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Past Questions — 2024

Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Lyssa is found in the tongue of-

A) Horse
B) Ox
C) Dog
D) Pig
In veterinary anatomy, the 'Lyssa' (also known as the torus linguae) is a specialized anatomical structure found on the dorsal surface of the tongue in ruminants, specifically the ox (cattle). It is a thickened, cornified, or roughened area (a torus) located near the root of the tongue, which helps in the manipulation of forage and roughage. - Option (a) Horse: The horse has a very muscular tongue with a different papillae arrangement, but lacks the specific 'lyssa' structure. - Option (c) Dog: Dogs have a smooth tongue with small papillae, lacking the torus linguae. - Option (d) Pig: Pigs have a relatively smooth tongue without this specific cornified torus.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Heart is supplied by-

A) Coronary artery
B) Subclavian artery
C) Brachial artery
D) Ascending aorta
The heart muscle (myocardium) requires a constant supply of oxygenated blood to function. This is provided by the coronary arteries, which branch off from the base of the ascending aorta. There are two primary coronary arteries: the Right Coronary Artery (RCA) and the Left Coronary Artery (LCA). These arteries wrap around the heart to supply blood to the different chambers and walls of the heart. Why other options are incorrect: - b. Subclavian artery: Supplies blood to the arms and parts of the chest/neck. - c. Brachial artery: The major blood vessel of the upper arm. - d. Ascending aorta: While the coronary arteries originate from the ascending aorta, the aorta itself is the main trunk that carries blood away from the heart to the rest of the body; it is the coronary arteries specifically that 'supply' the heart tissue.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Spiral fracture is most common in-

A) Femur
B) Tibia
C) Radius
D) Humerus
A spiral fracture occurs when a rotating or twisting force (torsional stress) is applied to the long axis of a bone. While spiral fractures can occur in any long bone, they are most characteristic and clinically common in the tibia. The tibia is a weight-bearing bone that often remains fixed (planted) while the body rotates around it, creating the ideal mechanical conditions for a spiral fracture. In veterinary and human orthopedics, the tibia is frequently cited as the most common site for this specific fracture pattern due to its anatomical position and the nature of the forces it sustains during traumatic events. While the femur, radius, and humerus can suffer spiral fractures, they are less frequent compared to the tibia in general trauma statistics.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Peterson’s block is practiced to anaesthetize-

A) Teeth
B) Eye
C) Flank
D) Limb
Peterson's block (also known as the Peterson flank block) is a regional anesthesia technique used in veterinary medicine, particularly in large animals like cattle and horses. It involves the infiltration of local anesthetic into the flank region to desensitize the area for surgical procedures such as rumenotomy, laparotomy, or castration. - Option (a) Teeth: Dental anesthesia is typically achieved through mandibular or maxillary nerve blocks. - Option (b) Eye: Ocular anesthesia is achieved via topical drops or retrobulbar/peribulbar blocks. - Option (d) Limb: Limb anesthesia is achieved through epidural anesthesia or specific peripheral nerve blocks (e.g., brachial plexus block). Therefore, Peterson's block is specifically associated with the flank.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Perosis on poultry is caused by the deficiency of which mineral?

A) Calcium
B) Manganeese
C) Magnesium
D) Copper
Perosis, also known as 'slipped tendon' or 'tibial dyschondroplasia,' is a skeletal deformity in poultry characterized by the slipping of the gastrocnemius tendon from the hock joint. This condition is primarily caused by a deficiency of Manganese (Mn), which is essential for the synthesis of glycosaminoglycans and the proper formation of cartilage and bone. Analysis of other options: - Calcium (a): Deficiency typically leads to rickets in young birds or osteomalacia/cage layer fatigue in adults, not perosis. - Magnesium (c): Deficiency can lead to neuromuscular irritability and stunted growth, but is not the primary cause of perosis. - Copper (d): Deficiency typically results in anemia, abnormal pigmentation, and poor growth (copper-deficient encephalomalacia in some species), but not the specific tendon slippage seen in perosis.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Fixation of uterus with pelvic or abdominal wall is called-

A) Vaginopexy.
B) Hysteropexy.
C) Cystopexy.
D) Cervicopexy.
The question asks for the term used for the surgical fixation of the uterus to the pelvic or abdominal wall. In medical terminology, the suffix '-pexy' refers to surgical fixation. The prefix 'hystero-' refers to the uterus. Therefore, Hysteropexy is the procedure used to treat uterine prolapse or displacement by fixing the uterus to a stable structure like the abdominal wall or pelvic ligaments. Analysis of other options: - a. Vaginopexy: The surgical fixation of the vagina. - c. Cystopexy: The surgical fixation of the urinary bladder (cysto- refers to the bladder). - d. Cervicopexy: The surgical fixation of the cervix (cervico- refers to the cervix).
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Most commonly used cryoprotectant for cell cryopreservation is -

A) Glycerol due to its low membrane permeability
B) Glycerol due to its high membrane permeability
C) DMSO due to its low membrane permeability
D) DMSO due to its high membrane permeability
In theriogenology and general cell cryopreservation, cryoprotectants (CPAs) are used to prevent the formation of lethal intracellular ice crystals. Glycerol is the most widely used cryoprotectant, particularly for the preservation of semen in livestock. For a cryoprotectant to be effective, it must be able to penetrate the cell membrane to protect the intracellular environment; this is known as 'membrane permeability.' Glycerol is highly permeable to the plasma membranes of most animal cells, allowing it to enter the cell and replace water, thereby lowering the freezing point and reducing the amount of ice formed inside the cell. While DMSO (Dimethyl Sulfoxide) is also a highly permeable and potent cryoprotectant often used in laboratory cell cultures, Glycerol remains the gold standard and most commonly used agent in veterinary theriogenology for large-scale semen cryopreservation. Therefore, the correct answer is Glycerol due to its high membrane permeability.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

The penetrating power of X-ray beam depends on-

A) Wavelength
B) kVp
C) Hz
D) mAs
The penetrating power of an X-ray beam refers to its ability to pass through matter. This is directly determined by the energy of the X-ray photons. 1. **kVp (peak kilovoltage)**: This controls the voltage applied across the X-ray tube. Increasing the kVp increases the kinetic energy of the electrons hitting the target, which in turn produces X-ray photons with higher energy (shorter wavelength). Higher energy photons have greater penetrating power, allowing them to pass through denser tissues. 2. **Wavelength (Option a)**: While penetrating power is inversely proportional to wavelength (shorter wavelength = higher energy), the 'control' or 'parameter' that determines this in a clinical/technical setting is the kVp. In the context of X-ray machine settings, kVp is the primary determinant. 3. **Hz (Option c)**: Hertz measures frequency. While frequency is related to energy, it is not a setting used to control the penetration of an X-ray beam in radiology. 4. **mAs (Option d)**: Milliampere-seconds (mAs) control the quantity (intensity/number) of X-ray photons produced, not their individual energy or quality. Changing mAs affects the darkness (density) of the image but does not change the beam's ability to penetrate a specific thickness of tissue.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Swiss cheese appearance of endometrium is condition noticed in-

A) Paraovarian cyst
B) Cystic corpora lutea
C) Cystic ovary
D) Delayed ovulation
In theriogenology (veterinary reproduction), 'Swiss cheese appearance' of the endometrium refers to a specific pathological state of the uterine lining characterized by the presence of numerous small, clear, cystic glands. This condition is caused by prolonged and abnormal exposure to estrogen (estrogenism) without the balancing effect of progesterone. In cases of 'Cystic ovary' (specifically follicular cysts), the follicle fails to luteinize, leading to the persistent secretion of estrogen. This chronic estrogenic stimulation causes cystic hyperplasia of the endometrial glands, which, upon histological or macroscopic examination, resembles the holes in Swiss cheese. - Option (a) Paraovarian cysts are typically fluid-filled sacs near the ovary and do not cause systemic hormonal imbalances affecting the endometrium. - Option (b) Cystic corpora lutea produce progesterone, which leads to a different endometrial state (secretory/luteal phase) rather than cystic hyperplasia. - Option (d) Delayed ovulation is a timing issue and does not inherently cause the chronic estrogenic stimulation required for this specific endometrial morphology.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

The neurotransmitter of all pre-ganglionic nerve fibre is —

A) Nor-adrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Adrenaline
D) Dopamine
In the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS), which consists of the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic divisions, the pre-ganglionic neurons are the first neurons in the pathway. Regardless of whether the system is sympathetic or parasympathetic, all pre-ganglionic nerve fibers release the neurotransmitter Acetylcholine (ACh). This ACh then binds to nicotinic receptors on the post-ganglionic neuron. Breakdown of options: - a. Nor-adrenaline: This is the primary neurotransmitter for most post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers. - b. Acetylcholine: Correct. It is the universal neurotransmitter for all pre-ganglionic fibers (both sympathetic and parasympathetic) and all post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers. - c. Adrenaline: Primarily a hormone released by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream, rather than a primary neurotransmitter for pre-ganglionic fibers. - d. Dopamine: Acts as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system and certain specific peripheral sites, but not as the universal pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

The treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning is —

A) Atropine alone
B) Atropine and Pralidoxime
C) Neostigmine
D) Atropine and Neostigmine
Organophosphate (OP) insecticides act by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE), leading to an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses. This results in overstimulation of nicotinic and muscarinic receptors (cholinergic crisis). The standard medical treatment involves two complementary drugs: 1. Atropine: An anticholinergic agent that blocks muscarinic receptors, effectively reversing life-threatening symptoms like excessive bronchial secretions, bradycardia, and miosis. 2. Pralidoxime (2-PAM): An oxime that acts as a cholinesterase reactivator. It removes the phosphate group from the inhibited AChE enzyme, restoring its function (provided it is administered before 'aging' of the enzyme occurs). Option (a) is incomplete as it only treats symptoms, not the cause. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect because Neostigmine is itself an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, which would exacerbate the poisoning by further increasing acetylcholine levels.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

In case of freemartinism condition ovaries are-

A) Normal
B) Hypoplastic
C) Hyperplastic
D) Aplastic
Freemartinism is a condition occurring in cattle where a female fetus is exposed to male hormones (specifically Anti-Müllerian Hormone and Testosterone) from its twin brother via placental anastomoses. This hormonal exposure interferes with the normal development of the female reproductive tract. Specifically, the ovaries in a freemartin heifer are 'hypoplastic,' meaning they are underdeveloped, small, and contain few or no functional follicles. This leads to sterility. - Option (a) Normal: Incorrect, as the hormonal interference prevents normal development. - Option (c) Hyperplastic: Incorrect, as hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number/size, whereas freemartin ovaries are underdeveloped. - Option (d) Aplastic: Incorrect, as aplasia refers to the complete failure of an organ to develop. In freemartinism, the ovaries are present but underdeveloped (hypoplastic), not entirely absent.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Plants causing Teratogenicity is-

A) Datura alba
B) Parthenium
C) Veratrum plants
D) Bamboo
Teratogenicity refers to the ability of a substance to cause birth defects or malformations in a developing embryo or fetus. Veratrum plants (such as Veratrum album) contain steroidal alkaloids that are known to be teratogenic in livestock. Specifically, ingestion of Veratrum by pregnant animals can lead to congenital malformations, including skeletal deformities and organ dysfunction in the offspring. Analysis of other options: - Datura alba: Primarily contains tropane alkaloids (like atropine and scopolamine) which cause anticholinergic toxicity (delirium, tachycardia), but is not primarily recognized as a classic teratogen in veterinary toxicology. - Parthenium: Known primarily for causing contact dermatitis (allergic reactions) and being an invasive weed; it is not a recognized teratogenic agent. - Bamboo: Generally non-toxic and not associated with teratogenicity.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Carbamate poisoning in dog is best treated with-

A) Sodium bicarbonate
B) Methylene blue
C) Dimercaprol
D) Atropine sulphate
Carbamates are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. They bind to the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. This leads to an accumulation of acetylcholine, resulting in overstimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors (cholinergic crisis), characterized by SLUDGE syndrome (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastrointestinal upset, and Emesis). Atropine sulphate is a competitive muscarinic antagonist that blocks the effects of excess acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors, effectively treating the life-threatening bradycardia and bronchial secretions associated with carbamate poisoning. Why other options are incorrect: - Sodium bicarbonate: Used primarily for salicylate poisoning or to alkalinize urine; it has no specific role in reversing carbamate toxicity. - Methylene blue: Used as a treatment for methemoglobinemia. - Dimercaprol: A chelating agent used for heavy metal poisoning (e.g., arsenic, mercury, lead), not for organophosphate or carbamate poisoning.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Which of the following is Neuroleptanalgesic?

A) Ketamine & Xylazine
B) Fentanyl & Morphine
C) Fentanyl & Droperidol
D) Propofol & Atropine
Neuroleptanalgesia is a pharmacological state characterized by profound analgesia, tranquility, amnesia, and muscle relaxation, without inducing a complete loss of consciousness. It is achieved by combining a potent opioid analgesic (which provides the analgesia) with a typical antipsychotic/neuroleptic drug (which provides the tranquility and sedation). 1. **Analysis of Option (c):** Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid (analgesic), and Droperidol is a butyrophenone antipsychotic (neuroleptic). The combination of these two is the classic example of neuroleptanalgesia. 2. **Analysis of Option (a):** Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist. While they are used together in veterinary medicine for sedation and anesthesia, they do not fit the specific pharmacological definition of neuroleptanalgesia. 3. **Analysis of Option (b):** Fentanyl and Morphine are both opioids. Combining two opioids provides additive analgesia but does not create the neuroleptic state. 4. **Analysis of Option (d):** Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic and Atropine is an anticholinergic/antimuscarinic agent. This combination is used for induction and managing secretions/heart rate, not for neuroleptanalgesia.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-III

Post service/post coital pyometra is observed in-

A) Trichomoniasis
B) Vibriosis
C) IBR-IPV infection
D) Brucellosis
Vibriosis in cattle is caused by Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis. This pathogen is primarily transmitted through natural service or contaminated artificial insemination tools. A characteristic clinical manifestation of Vibriosis is 'post-service pyometra' or 'post-coital pyometra.' This occurs because the bacteria colonize the cervix and uterus, leading to an inflammatory response and the accumulation of purulent exudate (pus) in the uterus shortly after mating or insemination. Comparing other options: - Trichomoniasis (caused by Tritrichomonas foetus) typically causes early embryonic death or pyometra, but it is more commonly associated with chronic endometritis rather than the specific 'post-service' acute pyometra pattern seen in Vibriosis. - IBR-IPV (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis/IPV) is a viral infection that causes respiratory issues and reproductive failure (abortion), but not typically acute post-coital pyometra. - Brucellosis is a systemic bacterial infection causing abortion and infertility, but it does not present as a localized post-service pyometra.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

Urea can be added in the diets of ruminants at-

A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 4%
In ruminant nutrition, urea is used as a Non-Protein Nitrogen (NPN) source to provide nitrogen for rumen microbes to synthesize microbial protein. However, urea must be added cautiously because excessive amounts can lead to ammonia toxicity (hyperammonemia), which can be fatal to the animal. The general rule of thumb in animal nutrition is that urea should not exceed 1% of the total dry matter (DM) intake of the diet. Specifically, it is often recommended to keep urea levels around 0.5% to 1% of the total ration to ensure safe utilization by the rumen microorganisms without overloading the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia. Options b, c, and d (2%, 3%, and 4%) are far too high and would likely cause urea poisoning/ammonia toxicity in ruminants.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

In a multiple allele system with n alleles, the number of possible genotype is-

A) 4n
B) n(n+1)/2
C) 4^2
D) n^2
In a multiple allele system, a genotype is formed by the combination of two alleles. If there are 'n' different alleles available in the population, the total number of possible genotypes is the sum of all possible homozygotes and all possible heterozygotes. 1. Homozygotes: Since there are 'n' alleles, there are exactly 'n' possible homozygous genotypes (e.g., A1A1, A2A2, ..., AnAn). 2. Heterozygotes: The number of ways to choose 2 distinct alleles from 'n' is given by the combination formula nC2, which is n(n-1)/2. Total Genotypes = Homozygotes + Heterozygotes Total = n + [n(n-1)/2] Total = [2n + n^2 - n] / 2 Total = [n^2 + n] / 2 Total = n(n+1)/2 Example: If n=3 (alleles A, B, O), the genotypes are AA, BB, OO (3 homozygotes) and AB, AO, BO (3 heterozygotes). Total = 3(3+1)/2 = 6.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

Moisture contain in hays should not be more than-

A) 20-23%
B) 15-17%
C) 12-14%
D) 25-27%
In animal nutrition and forage preservation, hay is produced by drying grass or legumes to a moisture level where they can be stored safely without spoiling. The ideal moisture content for hay storage is generally considered to be between 12% and 18%. If moisture exceeds 20%, there is a significant risk of mold growth and spontaneous combustion due to microbial respiration (heating). While 12-14% (Option c) is safe, the standard upper limit recommended for most commercial and farm-level hay production to ensure stability while preventing excessive nutrient loss (leaf shatter) is typically cited around 15-17%. Moisture levels above 20% (Options a and d) are dangerous for storage as they promote the growth of fungi and bacteria, leading to nutrient loss and potential toxicity.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

As per BIS standard the minimum crude protein content of pig starter feed is-

A) 16%
B) 18%
C) 20%
D) 22%
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) specifications for animal feeds, pig feeds are categorized based on the growth stage of the animal (Starter, Grower, and Finisher). Pig starter feed is designed for piglets during their early post-weaning phase, where the demand for protein is highest to support rapid muscle development and organ growth. The BIS standard mandates a minimum crude protein (CP) content of 20% for pig starter feed. In contrast, as the pig matures, the protein requirement decreases: Grower feeds typically require around 16-18% CP, and Finisher feeds require approximately 14-16% CP. Therefore, option (c) 20% is the correct minimum requirement for the starter phase.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

‘Parakeratosis’ in pigs occur due to-

A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Copper
D) Manganese
Parakeratosis is a skin disorder characterized by abnormal keratinization of the epidermis, leading to thickened, scaly, or crusty skin. In pigs, this condition is specifically caused by a deficiency of Zinc (Zn). Zinc is a critical cofactor for various enzymes involved in protein synthesis and cell division in the skin. When zinc is deficient, the stratum corneum fails to mature properly, resulting in the retention of nuclei in the cornified layer (parakeratosis). Analysis of other options: - Iron (a): Deficiency typically leads to anemia (especially in piglets). - Copper (c): Deficiency leads to 'Swayback' or anemia and skeletal issues in pigs. - Manganese (d): Deficiency typically causes Perosis (slipping tendon) or joint deformities in pigs.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

One example of NPN is-

A) Urea
B) Soyabean
C) Fishmeal
D) Fat
NPN stands for Non-Protein Nitrogen. These are nitrogen-containing compounds that are not proteins (they lack peptide bonds) but can be utilized by rumen microbes in ruminants to synthesize microbial protein. 1. Urea (Option a) is the most common example of an NPN. It is hydrolyzed by the enzyme urease in the rumen to produce ammonia, which microbes then use to build proteins. 2. Soyabean (Option b) and Fishmeal (Option c) are sources of 'True Protein' because they contain amino acids linked by peptide bonds. 3. Fat (Option d) is a lipid and does not contain nitrogen, therefore it cannot be a nitrogen source (protein or NPN).
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

The diploid chromosome number of Swamp buffalo is-

A) 60
B) 48
C) 50
D) 78
The Swamp buffalo (Bubalus bubalis carabanus) and the River buffalo (Bubalus bubalis bubalis) both belong to the species Bubalus bubalis. The diploid chromosome number (2n) for the domestic water buffalo is 48. This is a standard cytogenetic fact in livestock genetics. Comparing with other options: - 60 is the diploid number for horses (Equus ferus caballus). - 50 is not a standard diploid number for common livestock species. - 78 is the diploid number for dogs (Canis lupus familiaris). Therefore, the correct diploid chromosome number for the Swamp buffalo is 48.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

Crazy chick disease is caused by deficiency of-

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin E
Crazy chick disease, also known as Encephalomalacia, is a neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of Vitamin E. Vitamin E acts as a powerful antioxidant that protects cell membranes, particularly in the brain, from oxidative damage. In poultry, a lack of Vitamin E leads to the degeneration of the brain's white matter, resulting in characteristic symptoms such as ataxia, loss of balance, and opisthotonos (extreme hyperextension of the neck), which gives the birds a 'crazy' appearance. Why other options are incorrect: - Vitamin A deficiency typically leads to respiratory infections, growth retardation, and eye problems (Xerophthalmia). - Vitamin B deficiencies cause various issues depending on the specific B-vitamin (e.g., B1/Thiamine deficiency causes polyneuritis). - Vitamin D deficiency leads to Rickets in young animals and Osteomalacia in adults due to impaired calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • AH & Vety Paper-I

Mutation in which new codon specify the same amino acid is called as-

A) Synonymous mutation
B) Nonsense mutation
C) Non-Synonymous mutation
D) Neutral mutation
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. **Understanding the Genetic Code**: The genetic code is 'degenerate', meaning that multiple different codons can encode the same single amino acid. For example, GGU, GGC, GGA, and GGG all code for Glycine. 2. **Defining Synonymous Mutation**: A synonymous mutation (also known as a silent mutation) occurs when a point mutation changes a single nucleotide in a codon, but because of the degeneracy of the genetic code, the resulting new codon still specifies the same amino acid. Consequently, the primary structure of the protein remains unchanged. 3. **Evaluating Other Options**: - **b. Nonsense mutation**: This occurs when a point mutation changes a codon that specifies an amino acid into a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA), leading to premature termination of the protein chain. - **c. Non-Synonymous mutation**: This occurs when a nucleotide change results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein (missense mutation) or a stop codon (nonsense mutation). - **d. Neutral mutation**: While a synonymous mutation is often neutral, 'neutral mutation' is a broader evolutionary term referring to any mutation that does not affect the fitness of the organism. A non-synonymous mutation can also be neutral if the substituted amino acid has similar properties. Therefore, the specific term for a mutation where the new codon specifies the same amino acid is a synonymous mutation.
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