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Past Questions — 2024

Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Birsa Munda was associated with:

A) Satnami Rebellion
B) Ulgulan Revolt
C) Santhal Rebellion
D) Indigo Revolt
Birsa Munda was a prominent tribal leader and folk hero who led the 'Ulgulan' (meaning 'The Great Tumult') revolt in the late 19th century (approximately 1899–1900) in the Chotanagpur plateau region of present-day Jharkhand. The movement aimed to establish a Munda Raj by driving out the British colonial government and the 'dikus' (outsiders/landlords) who were exploiting the tribal people and disrupting their traditional land tenure system (Khuntkatti system). Why other options are incorrect: - a. Satnami Rebellion: This was a movement led by Ghasidas in Chhattisgarh, primarily focused on social reform and against caste discrimination. - c. Santhal Rebellion: This occurred earlier (1855–1856) and was led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu against the Zamindari system and British rule. - d. Indigo Revolt: This was a peasant uprising (1859–1860) in Bengal against the forced cultivation of indigo by European planters.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Which process is responsible for the conversion of organic waste into nutrient-rich material?

A) Composting
B) Mining
C) Photosynthesis
D) Combustion
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Analysis of the goal: The question asks for the process that converts organic waste (such as food scraps, leaves, and manure) into nutrient-rich material (humus/fertilizer). 2. Evaluating Option (a) Composting: Composting is the biological decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) under controlled aerobic or anaerobic conditions. This process breaks down complex organic molecules into simpler, nutrient-rich forms that are beneficial for soil health. This matches the question perfectly. 3. Evaluating Option (b) Mining: Mining is the extraction of minerals or other geological materials from the earth. It does not involve the conversion of organic waste into nutrients. 4. Evaluating Option (c) Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create glucose and oxygen. It is a process of energy production, not waste decomposition. 5. Evaluating Option (d) Combustion: Combustion is the process of burning something. While it breaks down organic matter, it converts it into ash, carbon dioxide, and water vapor, destroying the nutrient-rich organic structure rather than creating a nutrient-rich material for soil. Conclusion: Composting is the only process listed that results in nutrient-rich organic material.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

According to the UN Law of the Sea Convention, the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) of a country include -

A) 24 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
B) 100 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
C) 200 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
D) 250 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which was adopted in 1982, defines the maritime zones of a coastal state. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, extending up to 200 nautical miles (approximately 370 kilometers) from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Within this zone, the coastal state has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing the natural resources, whether living (like fish) or non-living (like oil and gas), of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil. Analysis of other options: - Option (a) 24 nautical miles: This is incorrect. The Territorial Sea typically extends to 12 nautical miles, and the Contiguous Zone extends to 24 nautical miles from the baseline. - Option (b) 100 nautical miles: This is not a standard limit defined by UNCLOS for any specific maritime zone. - Option (d) 250 nautical miles: This exceeds the internationally recognized limit for the EEZ set by UNCLOS.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The island of Bombay was given to the English Prince Charles I as dowry by :

A) The Danish
B) The Dutch
C) The Portuguese
D) The East India Company
The island of Bombay (now Mumbai) was originally under the control of the Portuguese, who had acquired it from the Sultan of Gujarat in 1534. In 1661, as part of the marriage treaty between King Charles II of England (though the question mentions Charles I, historical records confirm it was Charles II) and Catherine of Braganza, the daughter of King John IV of Portugal, the Portuguese gave the seven islands of Bombay to the English crown as a dowry. Later, in 1668, King Charles II leased the islands to the East India Company for a nominal annual rent of 10 pounds. Why other options are incorrect: - a. The Danish: Denmark had trading posts in India (like Tranquebar), but they never controlled Bombay. - b. The Dutch: The Dutch East India Company (VOC) was a major rival to the English, but they did not own Bombay. - d. The East India Company: The Company did not give Bombay as a dowry; rather, they received it as a lease from the English Crown after the Crown had received it from the Portuguese.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Which of the following type of forest occupies the largest area in India?

A) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
B) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
C) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
D) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
In India, the forest types are categorized based on rainfall, temperature, and altitude. Among the given options, Tropical Deciduous Forests (which include both Moist and Dry variants) are the most widespread in the country. Specifically, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests cover a vast area of the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and Odisha/Chhattisgarh. While 'Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests' are also extremely common, among the specific choices provided in this multiple-choice question, 'Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest' represents the largest share of the listed categories. Breakdown of other options: - Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests (a) are restricted to high-rainfall areas like the Western Ghats and North-East India. - Montane Wet Temperate Forests (b) are limited to high-altitude regions of the Himalayas. - Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forests (c) are found in very specific pockets, primarily in the Coromandel coast (Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh). Therefore, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest is the correct answer among the provided options.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Which new bill replaced the British-era Criminal Law in India?

A) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill
B) Freedom of Speech and Expression Bilt
C) Indian Penal Reform Bill
D) Criminal Justice Reform Bill
The Government of India introduced three new criminal laws to replace the colonial-era laws established by the British. Specifically, the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860. Additionally, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaced the Indian Evidence Act. Option (a) is correct as it identifies the specific bill that replaced the primary substantive criminal law (the IPC). Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect as they are not the names of the official legislation passed by the Indian Parliament for this purpose.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The highest body responsible for the formation of public policy in India:

A) The President
B) The Parliament
C) The Judiciary
D) The Election Commission
In the Indian democratic system, public policy is formulated through the legislative process. The Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India. While the Executive (Council of Ministers) proposes policies and drafts bills, these policies only gain legal force and official status as 'public policy' once they are debated, voted upon, and passed by the Parliament. The Parliament represents the will of the people, making it the highest body responsible for the formal creation and authorization of public policy. Why other options are incorrect: - a. The President: The President is the nominal head of state. While bills are passed in the President's name and require their assent, the President does not formulate policy independently. - c. The Judiciary: The Judiciary interprets laws and ensures they are constitutional (Judicial Review), but it does not formulate public policy; doing so would violate the principle of Separation of Powers. - d. The Election Commission: This is a constitutional body responsible for the administration of elections, not for the formulation of general public policy for the nation.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

What is the Paris Agreement?

A) International Treaty on Climate Change
B) International Treaty on Non-Nuclear Proliferation
C) International Treaty on Global Trade
D) None of the above
The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It was adopted by 196 Parties at the COP 21 in Paris on 12 December 2015 and entered into force on 4 November 2016. Its primary goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, degrees Celsius, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels. Analysis of other options: - Option (b) refers to treaties like the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), which is unrelated to the Paris Agreement. - Option (c) refers to agreements managed by the World Trade Organization (WTO) or regional trade blocs, which is unrelated to the Paris Agreement.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Firms where there is co-existence of large number of buyers and sellers alongside homogeneous products is called-

A) Perfect Competition
B) Monopolistic Competition
C) Duopoly
D) Oligopoly
The question describes the two primary characteristics of a Perfect Competition market structure: 1) A large number of buyers and sellers (meaning no single agent can influence the market price) and 2) Homogeneous products (meaning the goods are identical, and consumers perceive no difference between products from different sellers). Why other options are incorrect: - b. Monopolistic Competition: While there are many buyers and sellers, the products are 'differentiated' (not homogeneous), such as different brands of soap. - c. Duopoly: This is a market structure where only two sellers dominate the market, contradicting the 'large number of sellers' condition. - d. Oligopoly: This involves a few large firms dominating the market, which also contradicts the 'large number of sellers' condition.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Geoffrey Hinton, the winner of 2024 Nobel Prize for Physics is popularly known as-

A) Godfather of Surgery
B) Godfather of iOS
C) Godfather of AI
D) Godfather of Nuclear energy
Geoffrey Hinton was co-awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics (alongside John Hopfield) for his foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. Because of his pioneering work in deep learning and neural networks—which form the basis of modern Artificial Intelligence—he is widely referred to in the global scientific and tech community as the 'Godfather of AI'. Analysis of other options: - Option (a) 'Godfather of Surgery' is incorrect as Hinton is a computer scientist/cognitive psychologist, not a surgeon. - Option (b) 'Godfather of iOS' is incorrect; iOS is a proprietary operating system developed by Apple Inc. - Option (d) 'Godfather of Nuclear energy' is incorrect; his work is in computational science, not nuclear physics or energy production.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Author of the famous book ‘Sialton Official’:

A) Zikpuii Pa
B) Lalzuithanga
C) C.Thuamluaia
D) KC Lalvunga
The book 'Sialton Official' is a well-known work in Mizo literature authored by KC Lalvunga. In the context of Mizo literary history and competitive examinations focusing on regional literature, KC Lalvunga is recognized as the writer of this specific title. The other options listed (Zikpuii Pa, Lalzuithanga, and C. Thuamluaia) are other figures or authors in Mizo literature, but they are not the authors of 'Sialton Official'.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Fog is an example of-

A) Solid dispersed in gas
B) Gas dispersed in gas
C) Solid dispersed in liquid
D) Liquid dispersed in gas
Fog is a type of colloid known as an 'aerosol'. In a colloid, a dispersed phase (the substance being scattered) is distributed throughout a dispersion medium (the continuous medium). In the case of fog, tiny droplets of liquid water (the dispersed phase) are suspended in the air, which is a mixture of gases (the dispersion medium). Therefore, fog is a liquid dispersed in a gas. Analysis of other options: - Option (a) 'Solid dispersed in gas' describes smoke or dust in the air. - Option (b) 'Gas dispersed in gas' is not a colloidal system because gases mix completely to form homogeneous solutions. - Option (c) 'Solid dispersed in liquid' describes a sol, such as paint or blood.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

What is the key ingredient in Vinegar that you use in your diet?

A) Acetic Acid
B) Ascorbic Acid
C) Benzoic Acid
D) Nicotinic Acid
Vinegar is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria. The primary chemical component that gives vinegar its characteristic sour taste and pungent smell is acetic acid (CH3COOH), typically present in concentrations of 4% to 8% by volume. Analysis of other options: - b. Ascorbic Acid: This is Vitamin C, found primarily in citrus fruits; it is not the key ingredient of vinegar. - c. Benzoic Acid: This is commonly used as a food preservative (often as sodium benzoate) to inhibit mold growth, but it is not the defining component of vinegar. - d. Nicotinic Acid: Also known as Niacin (Vitamin B3), it is an essential nutrient but not an ingredient in vinegar.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Through which one among the following materials does sound travel fastest?

A) Air
B) Solids
C) Water
D) Wood
Sound is a mechanical wave that propagates through the vibration of particles in a medium. The speed of sound depends primarily on the elasticity (stiffness) and the density of the medium. 1. **Elasticity and Density**: In solids, atoms and molecules are packed much more closely together and are held by stronger intermolecular bonds compared to liquids and gases. This high elasticity allows the vibrational energy to be transferred from one particle to the next much more rapidly. 2. **Comparison**: - **Air (Gas)**: Particles are far apart; sound travels slowest (approx. 343 m/s). - **Water (Liquid)**: Particles are closer than in air; sound travels faster than in air (approx. 1,480 m/s). - **Solids**: Particles are most tightly packed; sound travels fastest (e.g., in steel, it is approx. 5,960 m/s). While 'Wood' (option d) is a solid, 'Solids' (option b) is the more comprehensive and correct category, as sound travels fastest in the solid state of matter generally, and specifically in dense, elastic solids like metals.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

What is the correct name of a ‘Shooting star’?

A) Moon
B) Meteor
C) Asteroid
D) Little star
A 'shooting star' is a common name for a meteor. A meteor is a streak of light that occurs when a meteoroid (a small piece of rock or dust from space) enters Earth's atmosphere at high speed. The friction between the meteoroid and the atmospheric gases generates intense heat, causing the object to vaporize and create a glowing trail of ionized gas, which appears as a falling star to an observer on the ground. Why other options are incorrect: - a. Moon: The Moon is Earth's natural satellite, a large celestial body that orbits the Earth; it does not 'shoot' across the sky. - c. Asteroid: Asteroids are large rocky bodies that orbit the Sun, mostly found in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. While a piece of an asteroid can become a meteoroid, the 'shooting star' effect specifically refers to the atmospheric entry (the meteor). - d. Little star: This is a descriptive term, not a scientific name. Shooting stars are not actually stars (which are massive balls of plasma), but small debris particles.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

What is the primary purpose of gender inclusion policies?

A) To reduce government spending
B) To encourage urban migration
C) To ensure equal opportunities for all genders in the social, economic, and political sphere
D) To prioritize men’s participation in the workforce
Gender inclusion policies are designed to dismantle systemic barriers and biases that prevent individuals of any gender from accessing resources, rights, and opportunities. 1. Why option 'c' is correct: The core objective of gender inclusion is equity and equality. By ensuring that women, men, and non-binary individuals have equal access to education (social), employment and wages (economic), and decision-making roles (political), society can achieve sustainable development and social justice. 2. Why other options are incorrect: - Option 'a': Gender inclusion often requires initial investment in infrastructure (like childcare or safety) and does not aim to reduce government spending as its primary goal. - Option 'b': Urban migration is a demographic trend and is not the primary objective of gender-based policy frameworks. - Option 'd': Prioritizing one gender over others is the opposite of 'inclusion'; inclusion seeks to remove the historical prioritization of one group to create a level playing field for all.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The Iqta system, introduced in the Delhi Sultanate, was primarily related to:

A) Religious matters
B) Land revenue and military administration
C) Temple management
D) Maritime trade
The Iqta system was a grant of the right to collect land revenue from a specified territory (an 'Iqta') given by the Sultan to his officers or nobles (known as Iqtadars or Muqtis). 1. Why Option (b) is correct: The primary purpose of the Iqta system was twofold: first, to ensure the efficient collection of land revenue for the state, and second, to maintain a standing army. The Iqtadar used a portion of the revenue to pay themselves and their soldiers, thereby decentralizing military administration while keeping the nobility dependent on the Sultan. 2. Why other options are incorrect: - Option (a): While the Sultanate was an Islamic state, the Iqta system was a fiscal and administrative tool, not a religious one. - Option (c): Temple management was not the purpose of the Iqta system; in fact, the system focused on state revenue and military control. - Option (d): Maritime trade was managed through ports and customs duties, not through the land-grant based Iqta system.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Which article of the Indian constitution contains Impeachment of the President of India?

A) Article 52
B) Article 55
C) Article 61
D) Article 72
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. The Constitution of India provides a specific procedure for the removal of the President from office, known as 'Impeachment'. 2. Article 61 explicitly details the procedure for impeachment, which can only be initiated on the grounds of 'violation of the Constitution'. 3. Analysis of other options: - Article 52: States that 'There shall be a President of India'. - Article 55: Describes the manner of election of the President. - Article 72: Deals with the power of the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment. Therefore, Article 61 is the correct provision for the impeachment of the President.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The first Mizo Kristian song is-

A) Tlang Thim chhak lam kei ka en ang
B) Isua Vanahaawma
C) Lal ber hmaah kan ding ang
D) Lal ber sipai kan ni
In the history of Christianity in Mizoram, the first Mizo hymn (Kristian hla) was composed by the early missionaries and local converts. 'Tlang Thim chhak lam kei ka en ang' is recognized as the first Mizo Christian song. It was translated/composed during the early stages of the mission work by the Welsh Presbyterian Missionaries (such as J.H. Lorrain and F.W. Savidge) to introduce the gospel through music to the Mizo people. Options b, c, and d are later hymns or songs that became popular in the Mizo church but do not hold the distinction of being the first.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Which article of the Indian Constitution allows the President to declare a National Emergency?

A) Article 352
B) Article 356
C) Article 360
D) Article 370
The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies. 1. **Article 352 (National Emergency):** This allows the President to declare a National Emergency when the security of India or any part of it is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. This is the correct answer. 2. **Article 356 (President's Rule):** This allows the President to impose emergency rule in a specific state if the constitutional machinery in that state fails (State Emergency). 3. **Article 360 (Financial Emergency):** This allows the President to declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. 4. **Article 370:** This was a temporary provision regarding the special status of Jammu and Kashmir (largely abrogated in 2019) and is not related to the declaration of emergencies.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Judicial Review in India is based on-

A) Precedents and conventions
B) Due process of law
C) Procedure established by law
D) Rule oflaw
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. 2. In the Indian Constitution, Article 21 explicitly states that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.' 3. Historically, India adopted the British concept of 'Procedure Established by Law' rather than the American concept of 'Due Process of Law'. 'Procedure established by law' means that a law is valid if it has been enacted by a competent legislature following the correct legal procedure. 4. While the Supreme Court of India has evolved the concept of 'Due Process' through various judgments (like Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India, 1978) by interpreting 'procedure' to be 'just, fair, and reasonable', the foundational basis written into the Constitution remains 'Procedure established by law'. Why other options are incorrect: - Option (a): Precedents and conventions are sources of law but not the constitutional basis for the power of judicial review. - Option (b): 'Due process of law' is a US constitutional doctrine. While Indian courts now apply a similar standard, the formal basis in the text of the Indian Constitution is 'Procedure established by law'. - Option (d): 'Rule of Law' is a broader legal principle (popularized by A.V. Dicey) that ensures no one is above the law, but it is not the specific technical mechanism upon which judicial review is based in India.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The land settlement in the Lushai Hills was introduced by-

A) L.O.Clarke
B) B.W. Roy
C) GH.Loch
D) J.Shakespeare
The land settlement in the Lushai Hills (modern-day Mizoram) was introduced by L.O. Clarke. During the British administration of the Lushai Hills, the system of land tenure and settlement was formalized to establish administrative control and revenue structures. L.O. Clarke played a pivotal role in implementing these land settlement policies. Regarding the other options: - B.W. Roy and GH. Loch were involved in various administrative or military capacities during the colonial era, but they are not credited with the introduction of the land settlement. - J. Shakespeare was a colonial officer, but the specific historical record for the introduction of land settlement in this region points to L.O. Clarke.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

What is the largest saltwater lake in India?

A) Dal Lake
B) Wular Lake
C) Chilika Lake
D) Loktak Lake
Step-by-step analysis: 1. The question asks for the largest saltwater lake (lagoon) in India. 2. Chilika Lake, located in Odisha, is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and the second largest coastal lagoon in the world. It is a designated Ramsar site and a key wintering ground for migratory birds. 3. Evaluating other options: - Dal Lake (Jammu & Kashmir): A freshwater lake known for its beauty and houseboats. - Wular Lake (Jammu & Kashmir): One of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia, fed by the Jhelum River. - Loktak Lake (Manipur): A freshwater lake famous for its floating islands called 'phumdis'. 4. Since Dal, Wular, and Loktak are all freshwater lakes, Chilika Lake is the only saltwater/brackish water option and the largest of its kind in the country.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

Grasslands which do not support any trees are called?

A) Lanos
B) Campos
C) Savanna
D) Steppes
To solve this, we must distinguish between 'Tropical Grasslands' and 'Temperate Grasslands'. 1. **Savanna (Option c):** These are tropical grasslands. They are characterized by a mix of grasses and scattered individual trees or small clumps of trees. Therefore, they *do* support trees. 2. **Campos (Option b):** These are tropical grasslands found in Brazil. Like Savannas, they often feature scattered shrubs and trees. 3. **Lanos (Option a):** This is likely a misspelling of 'Llanos' (tropical grasslands of Colombia/Venezuela), which also typically feature a mix of grass and scattered trees/shrubs. 4. **Steppes (Option d):** These are temperate grasslands (found in Eurasia). Temperate grasslands are characterized by a climate that is too dry to support forests but wet enough to support grasses. Unlike Savannas, true Steppes are virtually treeless plains because the precipitation levels and soil conditions do not support the growth of trees except along riverbanks. Therefore, among the given options, Steppes are the grasslands that typically do not support trees.
Agri & Allied (CT) • 2024 • General Studies

The Directive Principles of State Policy are:

A) Justiciable
B) Non-justiciable
C) Part of Fundamental Rights
D) None of the above
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution of India, are guidelines given to the federal and state governments. 1. Why 'Non-justiciable' is correct: According to Article 37 of the Indian Constitution, the DPSP are 'non-justiciable,' meaning they are not enforceable by any court. If the government fails to implement a directive principle, a citizen cannot approach the court to compel the state to do so. 2. Why 'Justiciable' is incorrect: Justiciability refers to the ability of a court to hear and decide a matter. Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable, but DPSPs are not. 3. Why 'Part of Fundamental Rights' is incorrect: Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are two distinct parts of the Constitution. While Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties (negative obligations on the state), DPSPs outline the goals for a welfare state (positive obligations on the state).