← Agri & Allied (CT)
Past Questions — 2025
The ‘Ring of Fire’ is associated with: I. Global mid-oceanic ridges. II. Concentration of volcanoes and earthquakes around the Pacific Ocean. III. The convergence of tectonic plates. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
II and III only
C)
I and III only
D)
All are correct
Step-by-step analysis of the statements:
1. **Statement II (Correct):** The 'Ring of Fire' is a horseshoe-shaped zone in the Pacific Ocean basin characterized by a high frequency of volcanic eruptions and earthquakes. It is the most seismically and volcanically active region in the world.
2. **Statement III (Correct):** The activity in the Ring of Fire is primarily caused by plate tectonics. Specifically, it is the result of the convergence of tectonic plates, where oceanic plates slide beneath continental plates or other oceanic plates in a process called 'subduction'. This subduction creates deep ocean trenches and triggers the melting of the mantle, leading to volcanic arcs and powerful earthquakes.
3. **Statement I (Incorrect):** Mid-oceanic ridges (like the Mid-Atlantic Ridge) are associated with 'divergent' plate boundaries, where plates move apart and new crust is created. While they are geologically active, the 'Ring of Fire' is specifically defined by the perimeter of the Pacific Ocean and is dominated by 'convergent' boundaries (subduction zones), not the global system of mid-oceanic ridges.
Since statements II and III are correct and statement I is incorrect, the correct option is 'b'.
Regarding the ‘Election Commission of India’: I. It is a constitutional body under Article 324. II. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. III. It conducts elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and Panchayats. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
II and III only
C)
I and III only
D)
I, II and III
Let's evaluate each statement based on the Constitution of India:
1. **Statement I is correct**: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a permanent, independent constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, which grants it the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
2. **Statement II is correct**: To ensure the independence of the office, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) cannot be removed from office except in a manner and on grounds similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., through a process of impeachment by Parliament on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity).
3. **Statement III is incorrect**: The Election Commission of India conducts elections for the Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), State Legislatures (Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad), and the offices of the President and Vice-President. However, it does NOT conduct elections for Panchayats and Municipalities. Those are conducted by the **State Election Commission (SEC)** of the respective states under Articles 243K and 243ZA.
Since statements I and II are correct and statement III is incorrect, the correct option is (a).
‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle of the masses for the first time during the:
A)
Agitation against the Partition of Bengal
B)
Home Rule Movement
C)
Non-Cooperation Movement
D)
Visit of the Simon Commission to India
The concepts of 'Swadeshi' (promoting indigenous goods) and 'Boycott' (refusing to use British-made goods) were first formally adopted as mass struggle methods during the Swadeshi Movement (1905-1911). This movement was a direct reaction to Lord Curzon's decision to partition Bengal in 1905. The goal was to exert economic pressure on the British government and foster self-reliance among Indians.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Home Rule Movement (1916): This movement focused more on administrative autonomy and constitutional agitation rather than the initial introduction of boycott/swadeshi.
- c. Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922): While this movement used boycott and swadeshi on a much larger, nationwide scale under Mahatma Gandhi, these methods had already been pioneered and established during the anti-partition agitation of 1905.
- d. Visit of the Simon Commission (1928): The protests against the Simon Commission were primarily characterized by the slogan 'Simon Go Back' and focused on the lack of Indian representation in the commission, not the introduction of swadeshi/boycott methods.
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to:
A)
Solve the problem of minorities in India
B)
Give effect to the Independence Bill
C)
Delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
D)
Enquire into the riots in East Bengal
The Radcliffe Committee (or the Boundary Commissions) was chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer. It was appointed in 1947 by the British government to define the borders between the newly independent dominions of India and Pakistan. The committee had to partition the provinces of Punjab and Bengal based on religious demographics and other factors.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): The problem of minorities was handled through various political negotiations and the Cabinet Mission Plan, not by the Radcliffe Committee.
- Option (b): The Independence Bill (Indian Independence Act 1947) was a legislative act passed by the British Parliament; the Radcliffe Committee was a consequence of this act, not the means to 'give effect' to the bill itself.
- Option (d): While riots occurred during the partition, the Radcliffe Committee's mandate was boundary demarcation, not a judicial or administrative inquiry into specific riots in East Bengal.
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of:
A)
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
B)
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
C)
Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
D)
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the North-Eastern states to protect the indigenous people's customs, land, and culture. It allows for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) which have legislative, judicial, and executive powers. The four states covered under the Sixth Schedule are Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the mnemonic 'AMTM').
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because Manipur and Nagaland are not part of the Sixth Schedule.
- Option (b) is correct as it lists the four specific states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Option (c) is incorrect because Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland are not part of the Sixth Schedule.
- Option (d) is incorrect because Nagaland is not part of the Sixth Schedule (Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A instead).
Which among the following groups of Banks in India was previously referred as ‘Other Scheduled Commercial Banks’?
A)
National Banks
B)
Foreign Banks
C)
Scheduled Cooperative Banks
D)
Private Banks
In the classification of the Indian banking system by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) are divided into several categories. Historically and in various statistical reporting frameworks, SCBs were broadly categorized into: 1. Public Sector Banks (including Nationalized Banks), 2. Foreign Banks, and 3. 'Other Scheduled Commercial Banks'. The term 'Other Scheduled Commercial Banks' specifically referred to the Private Sector Banks (both old and new) that were not nationalized. While modern reporting often lists 'Private Sector Banks' explicitly, in traditional regulatory groupings, they occupied the 'Other' category to distinguish them from the state-owned (Public) and international (Foreign) entities.
- Option (a) National Banks are a subset of Public Sector Banks.
- Option (b) Foreign Banks are a distinct category of SCBs.
- Option (c) Scheduled Cooperative Banks are separate from Commercial Banks (they fall under Cooperative Banking regulations).
- Option (d) Private Banks is the correct fit for the 'Other' category in the context of Commercial Banking classification.
Which among the following sectors doesn’t feature in Index of Industrial Production (IIP) calculation?
A)
Agricultural sector
B)
Manufacturing sector
C)
Steel sector
D)
Petroleum sector
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index that tracks the growth of various industrial sectors in an economy. It is specifically designed to measure the volume of production of 'industrial' goods.
1. **Composition of IIP**: The IIP is typically divided into three main sectors:
- **Mining**: Includes extraction of minerals and ores.
- **Manufacturing**: Includes a wide range of goods, including the **Steel sector** (Option c) and the **Petroleum sector** (Option d), which are key components of the manufacturing index.
- **Electricity**: Includes the production of electrical energy.
2. **Why Agricultural sector is incorrect**: Agriculture is a 'Primary Sector' activity, whereas IIP focuses on the 'Secondary Sector' (Industrial). Agricultural production is measured by different indices, such as the Index of Agricultural Production or through GDP estimates for the primary sector, but it is never included in the Industrial Production index.
Therefore, the Agricultural sector does not feature in the IIP calculation.
Which country launched Operation SOUTHERN SPEAR to target narco-terrorists?
A)
Canada
B)
United States
C)
Brazil
D)
Mexico
Operation Southern Spear is a strategic initiative launched by the United States to disrupt the financial networks and operational capabilities of narco-terrorists. The operation focuses on the intersection of drug trafficking and terrorism, specifically targeting organizations that use narcotics trade to fund insurgencies or terrorist activities. By leveraging intelligence, financial sanctions, and law enforcement coordination, the U.S. aims to weaken the synergy between cartels and terrorist groups. Canada, Brazil, and Mexico, while partners in regional security and anti-drug efforts, were not the initiating authority of this specific operation.
The term ‘Demographic Dividend’ refers to:
A)
An increase in the population of the elderly.
B)
A rise in economic growth potential resulting from a changing age structure of the population (more working-age people).
C)
A decline in the total population due to migration.
D)
Equal distribution of wealth among the population.
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Definition: 'Demographic Dividend' is an economic term that describes the growth potential that can result from shifts in a population's age structure, specifically when the share of the working-age population (typically ages 15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (dependents, such as children and the elderly).
2. Mechanism: When there are more productive workers relative to dependents, there is an opportunity for increased economic output, higher savings rates, and accelerated GDP growth, provided the economy can generate enough jobs for the workforce.
3. Evaluating Options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because an increase in the elderly population leads to a 'demographic burden' or 'aging population,' which typically slows economic growth.
- Option (b) is correct as it accurately describes the shift toward a larger working-age population and the resulting growth potential.
- Option (c) is incorrect because migration-led population decline is not the definition of a demographic dividend.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the demographic dividend refers to the potential for growth based on age structure, not the redistribution of existing wealth.
With reference to the ‘Quit India Movement’, consider the following statements: I. It was launched in response to the failure of the Cripps Mission. II. Parallel governments were established in Ballia, Tamluk, and Satara during the movement. III. The Communist Party of India (CPI) supported the movement officially. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
II and III only
C)
I and III only
D)
I, II and III
Step-by-step analysis of the statements:
1. **Statement I is correct**: The Quit India Movement (August 1942) was launched after the failure of the Cripps Mission. Sir Stafford Cripps had come to India to secure Indian cooperation for the British war effort in WWII, but his proposals for 'Dominion Status' were rejected by the Indian National Congress as they did not offer immediate complete independence.
2. **Statement II is correct**: During the movement, several 'Parallel Governments' (Prati Sarkar) were established in areas where British control collapsed. Notable examples include Ballia (led by Chittu Pandey), Tamluk in Bengal, and Satara in Maharashtra (led by Nana Patil).
3. **Statement III is incorrect**: The Communist Party of India (CPI) did NOT support the Quit India Movement. This was because the Soviet Union (USSR), a key ally of the CPI, had entered World War II on the side of the Allies (including Britain) after the German invasion in 1941. Consequently, the CPI viewed the British war effort as a struggle against Fascism and opposed the movement to avoid hindering the war effort.
Since statements I and II are correct and statement III is incorrect, the correct option is 'a'.
The ‘Subsidiary Alliance’ system introduced by Lord Wellesley entailed: I. The British would be responsible for protecting the ally from external and internal threats. II. The ally had to maintain a British contingent at their own expense. III. The ally was free to enter into agreements with other rulers without British permission. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
II and III only
C)
I and III only
D)
All are correct
The Subsidiary Alliance was a strategic system introduced by Lord Wellesley (Governor-General from 1798 to 1805) to establish British hegemony in India.
Analysis of the statements:
1. Statement I is CORRECT: Under the alliance, the British promised to protect the Indian ruler from external attacks and internal rebellions in exchange for the ruler's submission to British terms.
2. Statement II is CORRECT: The ruler was required to maintain a permanent British military force (contingent) within their territory. The cost of this force was borne by the ruler, either through cash payments or by ceding a part of their territory to the British.
3. Statement III is INCORRECT: One of the primary conditions of the Subsidiary Alliance was that the ally could NOT enter into any negotiations or sign treaties with any other ruler or foreign power without the explicit permission of the British government. This effectively stripped the Indian states of their diplomatic independence.
Since statements I and II are correct and statement III is incorrect, the correct option is 'a'.
Who among the following has the power to declare a ‘Financial Emergency’ in India?
A)
The Finance Minister
B)
The Reserve Bank of India Governor
C)
The President of India
D)
The Prime Minister
Under the Constitution of India, the power to declare a Financial Emergency is vested in the President of India. This is governed by Article 360 of the Indian Constitution. The President can proclaim a Financial Emergency if they are satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is threatened.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. The Finance Minister: While the Finance Minister manages the economy and advises the government, they do not have the constitutional authority to declare an emergency.
- b. The Reserve Bank of India Governor: The RBI Governor manages monetary policy and banking regulation but has no legislative or constitutional power to declare a national emergency.
- d. The Prime Minister: Although the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, the formal constitutional power to 'declare' the emergency resides solely with the President.
The ‘Tropic of Cancer’ passes through which of the following Indian states? 1. Mizoram 2. Tripura 3. Manipur 4. Jharkhand Select the correct option:
A)
1, 2 and 4 only
B)
2, 3 and 4 only
C)
1 and 2 only
D)
1, 3 and 4 only
The Tropic of Cancer (approximately 23.5° N latitude) passes through 8 Indian states. These states, from west to east, are:
1. Gujarat
2. Rajasthan
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Chhattisgarh
5. Jharkhand
6. West Bengal
7. Tripura
8. Mizoram
Evaluating the given list:
1. Mizoram: Yes, the Tropic of Cancer passes through it.
2. Tripura: Yes, the Tropic of Cancer passes through it.
3. Manipur: No, it lies to the east/south of the line's path in the Northeast region.
4. Jharkhand: Yes, the Tropic of Cancer passes through it.
Since statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect, the correct option is 'a'.
The first Carnatic War was ended by signing the treaty of:
A)
Paris
B)
Pondicherry
C)
Aix-La-Chapelle
D)
London
The First Carnatic War (1746–1748) was an extension of the War of the Austrian Succession in Europe, fought between the French and the British in India. The conflict ended in 1748 when the parent countries (France and Britain) signed the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in Europe. As a result of this treaty, Madras, which had been captured by the French, was restored to the British in exchange for territories in North America (specifically Louisbourg).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option a (Paris): The Treaty of Paris (1763) ended the Seven Years' War and the Third Carnatic War.
- Option b (Pondicherry): While Pondicherry was a major French stronghold, there is no 'Treaty of Pondicherry' that ended the First Carnatic War.
- Option d (London): While various agreements were signed in London over the centuries, the specific treaty ending the First Carnatic War was signed at Aix-la-Chapelle.
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)’: I. They are non-justiciable in nature. II. They supersede Fundamental Rights in all circumstances. III. They encompass the Gandhian, Socialist, and Liberal-Intellectual principles. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
I and III only
C)
II and III only
D)
All are correct
Let's analyze each statement based on the Constitution of India:
1. **Statement I is correct**: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51), are non-justiciable. This means that if the government fails to implement them, a citizen cannot approach a court of law to enforce them (as per Article 37).
2. **Statement II is incorrect**: DPSPs do NOT supersede Fundamental Rights (FRs) in all circumstances. While there have been legal conflicts, the Supreme Court of India (notably in the Minerva Mills case, 1980) established a 'harmony and balance' between FRs and DPSPs. While certain specific articles (like Art 39b and 39c) can take precedence over certain FRs (Art 14 and 19) under specific conditions, it is incorrect to say they supersede FRs 'in all circumstances'.
3. **Statement III is correct**: Although the Constitution does not formally classify them, the DPSPs are traditionally categorized into three broad groups based on their content:
- **Socialist principles**: Aimed at providing social and economic justice (e.g., Article 38, 39).
- **Gandhian principles**: Based on the ideology of Mahatma Gandhi (e.g., Article 40 - Village Panchayats, Article 47 - Prohibition of intoxicating drinks).
- **Liberal-Intellectual principles**: Based on liberalism (e.g., Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code, Article 50 - Separation of judiciary from executive).
Since statements I and III are correct and statement II is incorrect, the correct option is 'b'.
In which Indian state was the orchid Chamaegastrodia reikensis discovered?
A)
Arunachal Pradesh
B)
Mizoram
C)
Nagaland
D)
Sikkim
Chamaegastrodia reikensis is a newly discovered species of orchid found in the state of Mizoram, India. It was identified and described by researchers (including those from the Botanical Survey of India) as part of the ongoing exploration of the biodiversity-rich Northeast region of India. The species is endemic to the specific ecological niches of Mizoram.
- Option a (Arunachal Pradesh), Option c (Nagaland), and Option d (Sikkim) are all biodiversity hotspots known for orchids, but this specific species, C. reikensis, was documented in Mizoram.
What is the landform where deposits of fine silts and clay deposit after a flood called?
A)
Backswamp
B)
Delta
C)
Moraine
D)
Mesa
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Analysis of the process: When a river floods, it overflows its banks and deposits sediment. Coarser materials (sand) are deposited first, forming natural levees. The finer materials, such as silts and clays, are carried further back into the low-lying areas behind the levees. 2. Identification of the landform: The area behind the natural levees where this fine sediment accumulates and water remains stagnant is known as a 'backswamp'. 3. Evaluation of other options: (b) Delta: A landform created at the mouth of a river where it enters a slower-moving body of water, consisting of various sediment sizes, not specifically the area behind flood levees. (c) Moraine: An accumulation of glacial debris (till) deposited by a melting glacier, not by river floods. (d) Mesa: A flat-topped hill or mountain with steep sides, formed by erosion of sedimentary rock, unrelated to flood deposits.
The new GST rate for luxury items and ‘sin’ goods is:
A)
18%
B)
28%
C)
32%
D)
40%
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India is structured into multiple slabs to ensure a progressive taxation system. The standard slabs are 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%.
1. The 28% slab is the highest tax bracket and is specifically reserved for luxury goods (such as high-end cars, air conditioners) and 'sin' goods (such as tobacco products, aerated drinks, and pan masala).
2. For certain 'sin' and luxury goods, an additional 'GST Compensation Cess' is levied on top of the 28% rate, but the base GST rate remains 28%.
Analysis of other options:
- 18% (Option a) is the standard rate applied to most services and common goods.
- 32% (Option c) and 40% (Option d) are not standard GST slabs in the Indian tax structure.
What is the name of the Made in India global strategic Battery Electric Vehicle recently flagged off by Prime Minister Modi?
A)
Grand Vitara
B)
Tata Acti.EV
C)
e-Vitara
D)
Mahindra XEV
Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently flagged off the 'e-Vitara', which is Maruti Suzuki's first globally strategic Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV). This vehicle is significant because it is 'Made in India' and intended for both domestic and global markets, marking a major milestone in India's push toward electric mobility and the 'Make in India' initiative.
Analysis of other options:
- a. Grand Vitara: This is a hybrid/internal combustion engine (ICE) SUV, not a dedicated global BEV flagged off in this specific context.
- b. Tata Acti.EV: This is a commercial electric loader/small commercial vehicle, not a global strategic passenger BEV.
- d. Mahindra XEV: While Mahindra has an XEV range, the specific recent event involving the Prime Minister flagging off a new global strategic BEV refers to the Maruti Suzuki e-Vitara.
Which instrument is used to measure the wind speed?
A)
Wind vane
B)
Barometer
C)
Hygrometer
D)
Anemometer
The correct instrument for measuring wind speed is the Anemometer. Here is the detailed breakdown of the options:
1. **Anemometer (Correct):** Derived from the Greek word 'anemos' (wind), this device typically consists of rotating cups that spin as the wind blows. The speed of rotation is proportional to the wind speed, allowing for an accurate measurement of how fast the air is moving.
2. **Wind vane (Incorrect):** A wind vane (or weather vane) is used to determine the **direction** from which the wind is blowing, not its speed.
3. **Barometer (Incorrect):** A barometer is used to measure **atmospheric pressure**, which is critical for forecasting weather changes.
4. **Hygrometer (Incorrect):** A hygrometer is used to measure the **humidity** (the amount of water vapor) in the air.
With reference to the ‘President of India’: I. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States. II. Impeachment can be initiated by either House of the Parliament. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I only
B)
II only
C)
Both I and II
D)
Neither I nor II
Step-by-step analysis of the statements:
Statement I: 'He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States.'
This statement is CORRECT. According to Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry). Nominated members do not participate in this election.
Statement II: 'Impeachment can be initiated by either House of the Parliament.'
This statement is CORRECT. According to Article 61 of the Indian Constitution, the process for the impeachment of the President for 'violation of the Constitution' can be initiated by either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The charges must be signed by one-fourth of the total membership of the House that initiates the charges, and the resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House.
Since both statements I and II are correct, the correct option is (c).
Regarding ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’: I. It is a destination-based tax. II. It has subsumed all indirect taxes including Basic Customs Duty. III. The GST Council is a constitutional body chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Which of the statements is/are correct?
A)
I and II only
B)
I and III only
C)
II and III only
D)
All are correct
Let's analyze each statement individually:
Statement I: 'It is a destination-based tax.'
This is CORRECT. GST is a destination-based consumption tax, meaning the tax is collected by the state where the goods or services are finally consumed, rather than the state where they were produced (origin-based).
Statement II: 'It has subsumed all indirect taxes including Basic Customs Duty.'
This is INCORRECT. While GST subsumed many indirect taxes (such as Central Excise Duty, Service Tax, VAT, and Luxury Tax), it did NOT subsume Basic Customs Duty (BCD). BCD is still levied separately under the Customs Act, 1962. However, an Integrated GST (IGST) is levied on imports in addition to BCD to ensure a level playing field for domestic goods.
Statement III: 'The GST Council is a constitutional body chaired by the Union Finance Minister.'
This is CORRECT. The GST Council was established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and includes the Union Minister of State for Finance and the Finance Ministers of all State Governments.
Conclusion: Since statements I and III are correct and statement II is incorrect, the correct option is 'b'.
What is the name of Asia’s largest freight train whose trial run was recently conducted by Indian Railways?
A)
Agni Express
B)
Bharat Shakti
C)
Rudrastra
D)
Gangotri
Indian Railways recently conducted the trial run of 'Bharat Shakti', which is recognized as Asia's largest freight train. This initiative is part of India's effort to enhance logistics efficiency and increase the carrying capacity of goods across the rail network to support industrial growth and the 'Gati Shakti' National Master Plan. The train is designed to carry massive loads over long distances, significantly reducing the time and cost of freight movement. Options a (Agni Express), c (Rudrastra), and d (Gangotri) are not the names of this specific freight train project.
Which of the following commissions was appointed by the British Government to investigate into the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh?
A)
Hunter Commission
B)
Simon Commission
C)
Welby Commission
D)
Butler Committee
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab. In response to the widespread outrage and the brutality of the event, the British Government appointed a committee to investigate the incident. This committee was known as the Disorders Inquiry Committee, more commonly referred to as the Hunter Commission, chaired by Lord William Hunter.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Simon Commission: Appointed in 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919; it was boycotted by Indians because it had no Indian members.
- c. Welby Commission: This is not a major commission associated with the Indian Independence movement or the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
- d. Butler Committee: Appointed in 1927 to examine the relationship between the Paramountcy of the British Crown and the Princely States of India.
Fundamental Duties are given in which part of Indian Constitution?
A)
Part I
B)
Part II
C)
Part III
D)
Part IV A
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of India. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. These duties are listed under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
3. Article 51A is located within Part IV A of the Constitution.
Analysis of other options:
- Part I: Deals with 'The Union and its Territory' (Articles 1-4).
- Part II: Deals with 'Citizenship' (Articles 5-11).
- Part III: Deals with 'Fundamental Rights' (Articles 12-35).
- Part IV A: Specifically contains the Fundamental Duties (Article 51A).