← Agri & Allied (CT)
Past Questions
The only president of India who was elected as an independent candidate is-
A)
Neelam S Reddy
B)
Dr Zakir Hussain
C)
DrS Radhakrishnan
D)
V.V.Giri
V.V. Giri (Varahagiri Venkata Giri) is the only President of India to have been elected to the office as an independent candidate. He served as the 4th President of India from 1969 to 1974. He contested the 1969 presidential election against Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, who was the official candidate of the Indian National Congress. V.V. Giri won the election with the support of a coalition of opposition parties and a section of Congress MPs who voted against the official party line.
Analysis of other options:
- Neelam S Reddy (Neelam Sanjiva Reddy): He was the official candidate of the Congress party in 1969 (and lost) and later became the 6th President in 1977 unopposed, but not as an independent.
- Dr. Zakir Hussain: He was the 3rd President and was supported by the ruling party.
- Dr. S Radhakrishnan: He was the 2nd President and was supported by the ruling party.
India introduced the PM Gatishakti National Master Plan in 2023 to focus on what?
A)
Multimodal infrastructure development
B)
Green energy projects
C)
Urban housing for all
D)
Agricultural exports
The PM GatiShakti National Master Plan is a transformative approach for integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects. Its primary goal is to break departmental silos and ensure 'multimodal connectivity'—meaning the seamless integration of different modes of transport (roads, railways, airways, and waterways) to reduce logistics costs and improve efficiency.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Green energy projects: While infrastructure may support green energy, GatiShakti is specifically a logistics and connectivity master plan, not a dedicated green energy scheme.
- c. Urban housing for all: This is the focus of schemes like PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana).
- d. Agricultural exports: While improved logistics (via GatiShakti) will eventually help agricultural exports, the plan's core focus is the infrastructure framework itself, not the specific trade of agricultural goods.
Which process is responsible for the conversion of organic waste into nutrient-rich material?
A)
Composting
B)
Mining
C)
Photosynthesis
D)
Combustion
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of the goal: The question asks for the process that converts organic waste (such as food scraps, leaves, and manure) into nutrient-rich material (humus/fertilizer).
2. Evaluating Option (a) Composting: Composting is the biological decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) under controlled aerobic or anaerobic conditions. This process breaks down complex organic molecules into simpler, nutrient-rich forms that are beneficial for soil health. This matches the question perfectly.
3. Evaluating Option (b) Mining: Mining is the extraction of minerals or other geological materials from the earth. It does not involve the conversion of organic waste into nutrients.
4. Evaluating Option (c) Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create glucose and oxygen. It is a process of energy production, not waste decomposition.
5. Evaluating Option (d) Combustion: Combustion is the process of burning something. While it breaks down organic matter, it converts it into ash, carbon dioxide, and water vapor, destroying the nutrient-rich organic structure rather than creating a nutrient-rich material for soil.
Conclusion: Composting is the only process listed that results in nutrient-rich organic material.
According to the UN Law of the Sea Convention, the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) of a country include -
A)
24 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
B)
100 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
C)
200 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
D)
250 nautical miles from coastal area to the sea
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which was adopted in 1982, defines the maritime zones of a coastal state. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, extending up to 200 nautical miles (approximately 370 kilometers) from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Within this zone, the coastal state has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing the natural resources, whether living (like fish) or non-living (like oil and gas), of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 24 nautical miles: This is incorrect. The Territorial Sea typically extends to 12 nautical miles, and the Contiguous Zone extends to 24 nautical miles from the baseline.
- Option (b) 100 nautical miles: This is not a standard limit defined by UNCLOS for any specific maritime zone.
- Option (d) 250 nautical miles: This exceeds the internationally recognized limit for the EEZ set by UNCLOS.
Which mountain range separates northern India from the Deccan Plateau?
A)
Himalayas
B)
Vindhyas
C)
Satpura
D)
Aravallis
The Vindhya Range is a complex system of hills and mountains in central India that acts as a traditional geographical barrier separating the Indo-Gangetic plains (Northern India) from the Deccan Plateau (Southern India).
Analysis of options:
- a. Himalayas: These are located in the far north and separate the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau.
- b. Vindhyas: Correct. They form the northern boundary of the Deccan Plateau and separate it from the North Indian plains.
- c. Satpura: These run parallel to the Vindhyas to the south, separating the Narmada and Tapti river valleys.
- d. Aravallis: These are located in the northwest (primarily Rajasthan) and run diagonally, not serving as the primary divider between the North and the Deccan Plateau.
As of November 2024, the state having the highest Mutual Fund Asset Under Management (MFAUM) is-
A)
Delhi
B)
Gujarat
C)
Maharashtra
D)
Tamil Nadu
Mutual Fund Assets Under Management (AUM) are typically concentrated in states with high urbanization, high per capita income, and a strong presence of financial hubs. Maharashtra, specifically Mumbai, serves as the financial capital of India. Most Asset Management Companies (AMCs), stock exchanges (BSE and NSE), and the headquarters of major banks and financial institutions are located in Mumbai. Consequently, Maharashtra consistently records the highest Mutual Fund AUM in India due to the high density of high-net-worth individuals (HNIs), corporate investments, and the physical presence of the financial industry's infrastructure. While states like Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and the union territory of Delhi have significant investment activities, they do not match the scale of Maharashtra's financial ecosystem.
Which of the following type of forest occupies the largest area in India?
A)
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
B)
Montane Wet Temperate Forest
C)
Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
D)
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
In India, the forest types are categorized based on rainfall, temperature, and altitude. Among the given options, Tropical Deciduous Forests (which include both Moist and Dry variants) are the most widespread in the country. Specifically, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests cover a vast area of the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and Odisha/Chhattisgarh. While 'Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests' are also extremely common, among the specific choices provided in this multiple-choice question, 'Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest' represents the largest share of the listed categories.
Breakdown of other options:
- Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests (a) are restricted to high-rainfall areas like the Western Ghats and North-East India.
- Montane Wet Temperate Forests (b) are limited to high-altitude regions of the Himalayas.
- Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forests (c) are found in very specific pockets, primarily in the Coromandel coast (Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh).
Therefore, Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest is the correct answer among the provided options.
Through which one among the following materials does sound travel fastest?
A)
Air
B)
Solids
C)
Water
D)
Wood
Sound is a mechanical wave that propagates through the vibration of particles in a medium. The speed of sound depends primarily on the elasticity (stiffness) and the density of the medium.
1. **Elasticity and Density**: In solids, atoms and molecules are packed much more closely together and are held by stronger intermolecular bonds compared to liquids and gases. This high elasticity allows the vibrational energy to be transferred from one particle to the next much more rapidly.
2. **Comparison**:
- **Air (Gas)**: Particles are far apart; sound travels slowest (approx. 343 m/s).
- **Water (Liquid)**: Particles are closer than in air; sound travels faster than in air (approx. 1,480 m/s).
- **Solids**: Particles are most tightly packed; sound travels fastest (e.g., in steel, it is approx. 5,960 m/s).
While 'Wood' (option d) is a solid, 'Solids' (option b) is the more comprehensive and correct category, as sound travels fastest in the solid state of matter generally, and specifically in dense, elastic solids like metals.
The term ‘Laffer Curve’:
A)
explains how interest rates effect saving
B)
shows the relationship between inflation and unemployment.
C)
measures inequality
D)
illustrates the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue.
The Laffer Curve is an economic theory developed by economist Arthur Laffer. It posits that there is an optimal tax rate that maximizes total tax revenue for the government.
1. **How it works**: At a 0% tax rate, revenue is zero. At a 100% tax rate, revenue is also theoretically zero because there is no incentive for individuals to work or for businesses to produce if the government takes all the earnings.
2. **The Curve**: The relationship is represented as an inverted U-shaped curve. As tax rates increase from 0%, revenue initially rises. However, after reaching a certain peak (the optimal rate), further increases in the tax rate actually lead to a decrease in total revenue because they discourage economic activity and encourage tax evasion.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option a**: The relationship between interest rates and saving is generally discussed in the context of the Loanable Funds Theory or the Consumption Function.
- **Option b**: The relationship between inflation and unemployment is illustrated by the 'Phillips Curve'.
- **Option c**: Inequality is typically measured using the 'Gini Coefficient' or the 'Lorenz Curve'.
The single largest source of income for the government of India during 2023-24 is -
A)
Excise Duties
B)
Customs Duties
C)
Income Tax
D)
Corporate Tax
Based on the Union Budget estimates and revised estimates for the financial year 2023-24, the government of India's revenue is derived from various direct and indirect taxes. Among the options provided:
1. Income Tax (which includes personal income tax) consistently remains one of the highest contributors to the central exchequer.
2. Corporate Tax is also a major source, but in recent budget cycles (including 2023-24), the growth and total collection from Income Tax (Personal) have often surpassed Corporate Tax due to a wider tax base and increased compliance.
3. Excise Duties and Customs Duties are indirect taxes; while significant, they are generally lower than the combined direct tax receipts from Income and Corporate taxes.
According to the budget data for 2023-24, Income Tax (Personal) emerged as the single largest individual tax revenue source for the Central Government, reflecting a shift toward a more robust direct tax collection regime.
Birsa Munda was associated with:
A)
Satnami Rebellion
B)
Ulgulan Revolt
C)
Santhal Rebellion
D)
Indigo Revolt
Birsa Munda was a prominent tribal leader and folk hero who led the 'Ulgulan' (meaning 'The Great Tumult') revolt in the late 19th century (approximately 1899–1900) in the Chotanagpur plateau region of present-day Jharkhand. The movement aimed to establish a Munda Raj by driving out the British colonial government and the 'dikus' (outsiders/landlords) who were exploiting the tribal people and disrupting their traditional land tenure system (Khuntkatti system).
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Satnami Rebellion: This was a movement led by Ghasidas in Chhattisgarh, primarily focused on social reform and against caste discrimination.
- c. Santhal Rebellion: This occurred earlier (1855–1856) and was led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu against the Zamindari system and British rule.
- d. Indigo Revolt: This was a peasant uprising (1859–1860) in Bengal against the forced cultivation of indigo by European planters.
The King who did not allow anybody to laugh in his court was?
A)
Balban
B)
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
C)
Ltutmish
D)
Allauddin Khilji
Ghiyas-ud-din Balban, the Sultan of Delhi (1266–1287), is well-known for introducing a rigid and austere court etiquette to restore the prestige of the monarchy. He introduced the Persian customs of 'Sijda' (prostration) and 'Paibos' (kissing the feet of the Sultan). To maintain an atmosphere of absolute awe, fear, and solemnity, he banned laughing, joking, and casual conversation in the royal court. He believed that the Sultan should be seen as a distant, divine figure rather than a common human, and thus enforced a strict code of conduct where the nobility had to remain silent and solemn in his presence.
Comparison with other options:
- Qutub-ud-din Aibak: Known as 'Lakh Baksh' (giver of lakhs) for his generosity; there is no historical record of him banning laughter.
- Iltutmish: A pragmatic administrator who consolidated the Delhi Sultanate; he did not implement such extreme austerity measures.
- Alauddin Khilji: While he was a ruthless administrator and implemented strict market controls and espionage, his court restrictions were focused more on preventing conspiracies among nobles rather than banning laughter as a matter of royal etiquette.
Among the following boundary lines, which one is not correctly matched with the countries given afterwards
A)
Maginot line — France and Germany
B)
49% Parallel line— USA and Canada
C)
38Parallel line—Northand SouthKorea
D)
Siegfried line— Germany and Poland
The question asks to identify the boundary line that is NOT correctly matched with the countries.
1. **Maginot Line (Option a):** This was a line of concrete fortifications built by France in the 1930s along its border with Germany to prevent a German invasion. This is correctly matched.
2. **49th Parallel (Option b):** The 49th parallel north is the boundary between the contiguous United States and Canada from the Lake of the Woods to the Strait of Georgia. (Note: The option text says '49%', which is a typographical error for '49th', but in the context of geography exams, this refers to the 49th Parallel). This is correctly matched.
3. **38th Parallel (Option c):** The 38th parallel north is the circle of latitude that serves as the dividing line between North Korea and South Korea. This is correctly matched.
4. **Siegfried Line (Option d):** The Siegfried Line (Westwall) was a system of fortifications built by Nazi Germany to defend its **western border against France**, not its eastern border against Poland. The boundary between Germany and Poland is defined by different historical treaties and lines (such as the Oder-Neisse line). Therefore, matching the Siegfried Line with Germany and Poland is incorrect.
Thus, option (d) is the incorrectly matched pair.
Writer of the novel ‘Nunna kawng thuampuiah’:
A)
Lalrammawia Ngente
B)
K.C. Lalvunga
C)
James Dokhuma
D)
Lalhmingliana Saiawi
The novel ‘Nunna kawng thuampuiah’ is a well-known work in Mizo literature written by Lalrammawia Ngente. He is recognized for his contributions to Mizo prose and storytelling. The other options listed (K.C. Lalvunga, James Dokhuma, and Lalhmingliana Saiawi) are also figures associated with Mizo writing or intellectual contributions, but they are not the authors of this specific novel.
The Ring of Fire is associated with which of the following?
A)
Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes
B)
Tsunami
C)
Lightning
D)
None of the above
The 'Ring of Fire' is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. It is a horse-shoe shaped zone characterized by intense tectonic activity. This activity is caused by the movement and interaction of several tectonic plates (such as the Pacific Plate, Nazca Plate, and Philippine Plate) through processes called subduction, where one plate slides beneath another.
- Option (a) is correct because the Ring of Fire is defined by the high frequency of volcanic activity and seismic events (earthquakes) resulting from plate tectonics.
- Option (b) is incorrect as a primary association; while tsunamis often occur in this region, they are secondary effects caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions, not the defining characteristic of the zone itself.
- Option (c) is incorrect because lightning is an atmospheric electrical phenomenon and is not related to the geological structure of the Ring of Fire.
The Iqta system, introduced in the Delhi Sultanate, was primarily related to:
A)
Religious matters
B)
Land revenue and military administration
C)
Temple management
D)
Maritime trade
The Iqta system was a grant of the right to collect land revenue from a specified territory (an 'Iqta') given by the Sultan to his officers or nobles (known as Iqtadars or Muqtis).
1. Why Option (b) is correct: The primary purpose of the Iqta system was twofold: first, to ensure the efficient collection of land revenue for the state, and second, to maintain a standing army. The Iqtadar used a portion of the revenue to pay themselves and their soldiers, thereby decentralizing military administration while keeping the nobility dependent on the Sultan.
2. Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While the Sultanate was an Islamic state, the Iqta system was a fiscal and administrative tool, not a religious one.
- Option (c): Temple management was not the purpose of the Iqta system; in fact, the system focused on state revenue and military control.
- Option (d): Maritime trade was managed through ports and customs duties, not through the land-grant based Iqta system.
In India National Science Day is observed on which on the following date?
A)
January 26
B)
February 26
C)
January 28
D)
February 28
National Science Day in India is celebrated every year on February 28 to commemorate the discovery of the 'Raman Effect' by the legendary Indian physicist Sir C.V. Raman. He discovered this phenomenon on February 28, 1928, which later earned him the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
Analysis of other options:
- January 26: This is Republic Day, marking the date the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950.
- February 26: This date does not correspond to a major national science observance in India.
- January 28: This date does not correspond to National Science Day.
The theme of 2024’s ‘ World Environment Day’ is-
A)
Only one earth
B)
My environment, my life
C)
Solutions to plastic pollution
D)
Our Land, Our Future.
World Environment Day is celebrated annually on June 5th. For the year 2024, the theme is 'Land restoration, desertification and drought resilience,' with the official slogan/theme being 'Our Land, Our Future.' The host country for 2024 is Saudi Arabia.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Only One Earth' was the theme for 2022.
- Option (b) 'My environment, my life' was not the primary global theme for 2024.
- Option (c) 'Solutions to plastic pollution' was the focus of 2023 ('Beat Plastic Pollution').
Which period is known as the ‘Golden period’ in the classification of Mizo Literature?
A)
1870-1920
B)
1920-1970
C)
1970 — 2000
D)
2000-present
In the historical classification of Mizo literature, the period from 1920 to 1970 is widely recognized as the 'Golden Period'. This era saw a significant transition and flourishing of literary creativity following the introduction of the Roman script and the establishment of formal education. During this time, there was a surge in the production of poetry, prose, and the development of Mizo journalism and storytelling, moving beyond purely oral traditions to a structured written literary culture.
- Option (a) 1870-1920 represents the early formative period characterized by the introduction of the alphabet and basic literacy.
- Option (c) 1970-2000 and (d) 2000-present represent the modern and contemporary eras, which, while prolific, are categorized differently from the 'Golden Period' of foundational literary growth.
What is the process by which plants convert sunlight into chemical energy?
A)
Transpiration
B)
Photosynthesis
C)
Respiration
D)
Decomposition
The process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy (sunlight) into chemical energy (glucose) is called photosynthesis. During this process, plants use chlorophyll to capture sunlight, which powers the conversion of carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and energy-rich carbohydrates.
Analysis of other options:
- a. Transpiration: This is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves.
- c. Respiration: This is the process of breaking down glucose to release energy (ATP), which is essentially the opposite of photosynthesis in terms of energy flow.
- d. Decomposition: This is the process by which organic substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter by microorganisms.
The Most important Kharif crops in India is-
A)
Wheat
B)
Rice
C)
Maize
D)
Barley
In India, crops are primarily categorized into Kharif and Rabi seasons based on the monsoon cycle.
1. **Kharif Crops**: These are 'monsoon crops' sown at the beginning of the rainy season (June-July) and harvested in autumn (September-October). They require high temperatures and significant rainfall. Rice (Paddy) is the most important and dominant Kharif crop in India, as it is the staple food for a majority of the population and requires heavy irrigation/rainfall.
2. **Rabi Crops**: These are 'winter crops' sown in winter (October-November) and harvested in spring (March-April). They require cool temperatures and moderate water.
Evaluating the options:
- **Wheat (a)**: A primary Rabi crop.
- **Rice (b)**: The most important Kharif crop.
- **Maize (c)**: While Maize can be grown in both seasons, it is primarily a Kharif crop, but it is not as 'important' or dominant in terms of total acreage and food security as Rice.
- **Barley (d)**: A primary Rabi crop.
Grasslands which do not support any trees are called?
A)
Lanos
B)
Campos
C)
Savanna
D)
Steppes
To solve this, we must distinguish between 'Tropical Grasslands' and 'Temperate Grasslands'.
1. **Savanna (Option c):** These are tropical grasslands. They are characterized by a mix of grasses and scattered individual trees or small clumps of trees. Therefore, they *do* support trees.
2. **Campos (Option b):** These are tropical grasslands found in Brazil. Like Savannas, they often feature scattered shrubs and trees.
3. **Lanos (Option a):** This is likely a misspelling of 'Llanos' (tropical grasslands of Colombia/Venezuela), which also typically feature a mix of grass and scattered trees/shrubs.
4. **Steppes (Option d):** These are temperate grasslands (found in Eurasia). Temperate grasslands are characterized by a climate that is too dry to support forests but wet enough to support grasses. Unlike Savannas, true Steppes are virtually treeless plains because the precipitation levels and soil conditions do not support the growth of trees except along riverbanks.
Therefore, among the given options, Steppes are the grasslands that typically do not support trees.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A)
Justiciable
B)
Non-justiciable
C)
Part of Fundamental Rights
D)
None of the above
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution of India, are guidelines given to the federal and state governments.
1. Why 'Non-justiciable' is correct: According to Article 37 of the Indian Constitution, the DPSP are 'non-justiciable,' meaning they are not enforceable by any court. If the government fails to implement a directive principle, a citizen cannot approach the court to compel the state to do so.
2. Why 'Justiciable' is incorrect: Justiciability refers to the ability of a court to hear and decide a matter. Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable, but DPSPs are not.
3. Why 'Part of Fundamental Rights' is incorrect: Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are two distinct parts of the Constitution. While Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties (negative obligations on the state), DPSPs outline the goals for a welfare state (positive obligations on the state).
In the first battle of Panipat, Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated by-
A)
Akbar
B)
Muhammed Lodhi
C)
Bahulal Lodhi
D)
Babar
The First Battle of Panipat took place on April 21, 1526. It was fought between the invading forces of Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur (the founder of the Mughal Empire) and the Lodi dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, led by Sultan Ibrahim Lodhi. Babur won the battle primarily due to his superior military tactics, the use of field artillery (cannons), and the 'Tulughma' (flanking) strategy, despite being outnumbered. This victory marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the establishment of the Mughal Empire in India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Akbar: He was the grandson of Babur and the third Mughal Emperor; he fought the Second Battle of Panipat (1556) against Hemu.
- b. Muhammed Lodhi: He was the predecessor of Ibrahim Lodhi and was not the opponent in the First Battle of Panipat.
- c. Bahulal Lodhi: Bahlul Lodhi was the founder of the Lodi dynasty and died long before the First Battle of Panipat.
The land settlement in the Lushai Hills was introduced by-
A)
L.O.Clarke
B)
B.W. Roy
C)
GH.Loch
D)
J.Shakespeare
The land settlement in the Lushai Hills (modern-day Mizoram) was introduced by L.O. Clarke. During the British administration of the Lushai Hills, the system of land tenure and settlement was formalized to establish administrative control and revenue structures. L.O. Clarke played a pivotal role in implementing these land settlement policies.
Regarding the other options:
- B.W. Roy and GH. Loch were involved in various administrative or military capacities during the colonial era, but they are not credited with the introduction of the land settlement.
- J. Shakespeare was a colonial officer, but the specific historical record for the introduction of land settlement in this region points to L.O. Clarke.