Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The placenta is said to be retained when it is not expelled out even after
A)
20minutes
B)
30 minutes
C)
40 minutes
D)
50 minutes and above
The selected option is the exception/incorrect statement: 30 minutes.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Which is the risk factor for pre-eclampsia?
A)
Multiparity
B)
Advanced maternal age
C)
Smoking
D)
None of these
Advanced maternal age is a recognized risk factor.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PPROM) , which statement is appropriate
A)
PPROM occurs before one-third of preterm deliveries
B)
Infection of the placenta (chorioamnionitis) or cord (funisitis) is uncommon.
C)
If there is evidence of chorioamnionitis delivery may be delayed to give antibiotics
D)
Induction should not be performed until term
Once chorioamnionitis is present, delivery is generally indicated rather than prolonged expectant management.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Hypertensive disorders in pregnancy: which of the following is true?
A)
‘Significant’ proteinuria is e”0.3 g/24 h.
B)
When blood pressure is >140/90 mmHg prior to 20 weeks’ pregnancy induced hypertension is the likely diagnosis.
C)
A protein : creatinine ratio >10 mg/nmol is considered significant
D)
None of these
The correct choice is ‘Significant’ proteinuria is e”0.3 g/24 h..
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The finding related to Types of multiple pregnancy is
A)
Dichorionic twins result from division at 9–13 days
B)
Division before day 3 leads to twins with a shared placenta but separate amnions, MCDA.
C)
All dichorionic twins are non-identical.
D)
Monochorionic twins are always identical.
Monochorionic twins arise from a single zygote and are therefore monozygotic/identical; chorionicity depends on timing of embryo division.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Pregnant woman is found to have excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid .Such polyhydramnios is likely to be associated with all the following conditions except
A)
twining
B)
microanecephaly
C)
oesophageal atresia
D)
bilateral renal agenesis
Bilateral renal agenesis causes oligohydramnios because fetal urine production is absent, so it is the exception.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Which measure would be least effective in preventing postpartum hemorrhage?
A)
Massage the fundus every hour for the first 24 hours following birth
B)
Teach the woman the importance of rest and nutrition \=nce healing
C)
Administer Methergine 0.2 mg every 6 hours for 4 doses as ordered )
D)
Encourage the woman to void every 2 hours
The correct choice is Teach the woman the importance of rest and nutrition \=nce healing.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
In ecclampsia , the treatement regimen that cause minimum effects on the fetus is
A)
diazepam therapy
B)
lytic cocktail regime
C)
MgSo4
D)
phenobarbitone therapy
The correct choice is MgSo4.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Labour/vaginal delivery after a previous Caesarean section (VBAC), which staement is correct:
A)
If vaginal delivery is attempted about 30% of women will deliver vaginally after one Caesarean section.
B)
Emergency Caesarean section is as safe as elective Caesarean
C)
Fetal risks are increased with VBAC.
D)
Caesarean section is less likely in women who have had a previous elective Caesarean section
VBAC carries some increased fetal risk from uterine rupture, although most selected women can achieve vaginal birth.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy
A)
Hepatitis A
B)
Hepatitis B
C)
Hepatitis C
D)
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E is especially severe in pregnancy and carries a high risk of fulminant maternal disease.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The Uterine rupture and inversion of uterus is
A)
The principal risk factor for uterine rupture is use of oxytocin in multiparous wo men
B)
Constant lower abdominal pain in labour is common and unlikely to be related to uterine rupt ure.
C)
Rupture of a LSCS scar most commonly occurs before labour.
D)
Uterine inversion usually follows traction on the placenta and occurs in 1 in 20 000 deliveries.
Uterine inversion classically follows excessive traction on the umbilical cord/placenta after delivery.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The risks involved in prolonged retention of placenta are
A)
hemarrahge
B)
shock
C)
risk of its recurrence in next pregnancy
D)
all of these
Retained placenta can cause severe haemorrhage and shock; recurrent retention risk may also be increased.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The latest complication of injuries to the birth canal at the cervix is
A)
ectropion
B)
cellulitis
C)
superlevator
D)
thrombophelbitis
Injury-related cervical trauma can lead to later complications such as cervical ectropion/cervical healing changes; the listed late complication is thrombophlebitis in the intended answer set.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Among the following drugs the one most commonly used to reduce the blood loss in the management of postpartum heamoraghe is
A)
oxytocin
B)
methergin
C)
prostaglandins
D)
progesterone
The correct choice is oxytocin.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Mifepristone is used in
A)
ectopic pregnancy
B)
fibroid uterus
C)
molar pregnancy
D)
none of these
Mifepristone is used for medical termination of pregnancy and medical abortion; none of the listed gynaecological conditions is the standard indication.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Which one of the following is a typical biochemical and haematological abnormality in Pre-eclampsia?
A)
Reduced haemoglobin
B)
Rise in platelets as part of the acute systemic response
C)
Low uric acid
D)
Impaired renal and liver function
Magnesium sulfate is the preferred anticonvulsant and has fewer fetal/neonatal adverse effects than diazepam or barbiturates.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The prolonged pregnancy: which of the following is true?
A)
A pregnancy is prolonged if e”40 weeks’ gestation is completed.
B)
Perinatal mortality and morbidity starts increasing between 41 and 42 weeks.
C)
Although stillbirth is increased post dates, neonatal illness, encephalopathy and meconium passage and a clinical diagnosis of fetal distress are less common.
D)
Routine dating scans increase the incidence of induction for post dates.
Perinatal risk rises after 41 weeks and becomes more important as gestation extends toward 42 weeks.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The Induction of labour: which one of the following is false?
A)
Hyperstimulation is more common with misoprostol than prostaglandin E2 (PGE2).
B)
Cervical ‘sweeping’ from/ after 40 weeks reduces the chance of induction and postdates pregnancy.
C)
Absolute contraindications include acute fetal compromise, abnormal lie, placenta praevia or pelvic obstruction such as a pelvic mass or pelvic deformity causing cephalo-pelvic disproportion
D)
The risk of cord prolapse is decreased with induction of labour.
Induction can increase, not decrease, cord-prolapse risk in susceptible presentations; thus that statement is false.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21) is
A)
Trisomy 21 is the most common chromosomal abnormality among live births.
B)
It usually occurs as a result of a balanced chromosomal translocation in the parents.
C)
One hundred per cent of affected infants have cardiac defects.
D)
The fetal heart is always abnormal.
Trisomy 21 is the most common autosomal chromosomal abnormality among live births; not all cases are due to translocation and not all have heart defects.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of postpartum depression?
A)
Energy depletion
B)
Sudden bursts of energy
C)
Mood swings
D)
Anxiety
Sudden bursts of energy are not a typical symptom of postpartum depression.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
The most common cause of PPH is
A)
uterine atonicty
B)
cervical tear
C)
vaginal lacerations
D)
coagulation disorder
Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Conservative management is contraindicated in a case of placenta praevia under the following situation except
A)
evidence of fetal distress
B)
fetal malformations
C)
mother in a haemodynamic condition
D)
woman in labour
In DIC, PT and aPTT are prolonged and thrombocytopenia develops; PCV is not a coagulation test.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
A 48 year old woman presents with intermenstrural bleeding for two month and episodes of bleeding occuring any time in the cycle .there is no associated pain . the differential diagnosis for intermenstrual bleeding does not include :
A)
endocervical polyp
B)
cervical malignancy
C)
endometrial polyp
D)
ovarian teratoma
An ovarian teratoma is not a typical direct cause of intermenstrual uterine bleeding.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
A 20 year old lady is referred with a problem of postcoital bleeding .It has occour six times over past two month with no pain in association . The investigation which she has to undergo is
A)
colposcopy
B)
ultrasonography
C)
cervical smear
D)
none of these
Persistent postcoital bleeding requires cervical assessment, commonly with colposcopy.
Assistant Professor / Lecturer • 2017 • Paper-II
Methods used in identification of high-risk pregnancy:
A)
Use of history as a screening tool in identification of high-risk pregnancy is very sensitive
B)
Use of history as a screening tool in identification of high-risk pregnancy is specific.
C)
The uterine circulation normally develops a very high resistance in normal pregnancy
D)
Low levels of pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) increase the risk of IUGR, pre-eclampsia and stillbirth
Low PAPP-A is associated with adverse placental outcomes including IUGR, pre-eclampsia and stillbirth.
