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Past Questions — 2025
To which group do the black soils of India belong?
A)
Alluvial
B)
Chernozem
C)
Lateritic
D)
Podzolic
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Black soils in India, primarily found in the Deccan Trap region (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh), are formed from the weathering of volcanic basaltic rocks.
2. These soils are characterized by a high clay content, high water-holding capacity, and a dark color due to the presence of titaniferous magnetite and organic matter.
3. Globally, these types of fertile, dark, organic-rich soils are categorized as 'Chernozems' (from the Russian words 'chern' meaning black and 'zemlya' meaning earth). While Indian black soils are specifically 'Vertisols' in the USDA soil taxonomy, they belong to the broader Chernozem group of black earth soils.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Alluvial soils: These are deposited by rivers and are found primarily in the Indo-Gangetic plains; they are not volcanic in origin.
- c. Lateritic soils: These are formed by intense leaching in tropical areas with high rainfall and temperature (e.g., Western Ghats), resulting in red/yellowish soil rich in iron and aluminum oxides.
- d. Podzolic soils: These are typically found in cool, moist climates (like coniferous forests) and are characterized by an ash-grey color and acidity, which does not match the characteristics of Indian black soil.
The Hooghly basin is famous for-
A)
Ironand Steel Industries
B)
Cotton Industries
C)
Chemical Industries
D)
Jute Industries
The Hooghly basin, located in West Bengal, is the primary hub for the jute industry in India. Several factors contribute to this concentration: 1. Availability of raw materials: The basin is adjacent to the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta, where jute is grown extensively. 2. Water availability: Jute processing (retting) requires vast amounts of fresh water, which the Hooghly River provides. 3. Transport and Trade: The proximity to the port of Kolkata facilitates the export of jute goods to international markets. 4. Labor: The region provides a dense population of cheap and skilled labor.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Iron and Steel Industries: These are primarily concentrated in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region (e.g., Jamshedpur, Bokaro) due to the proximity of iron ore and coal mines.
- Cotton Industries: These are concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat (e.g., Mumbai, Ahmedabad) due to the availability of raw cotton and port facilities.
- Chemical Industries: While present in West Bengal, they are not the defining characteristic of the Hooghly basin compared to the dominance of the jute industry.
What is the central concept of M.N. Roy’s Radical Humanism?
A)
Non-cooperation with colonial regimes
B)
Spiritual nationalism
C)
Class struggle as the basis for revolution
D)
Emphasis on individual freedom beyond political ideologies
M.N. Roy began his political career as a militant nationalist and later became a prominent leader of the Communist International. However, in his later years, he moved away from Marxism (which emphasizes class struggle) and developed 'Radical Humanism' (also known as New Humanism). The central concept of Radical Humanism is the belief that the individual is the measure of all things. It emphasizes the sovereignty of the individual, rationalism, and human freedom, arguing that freedom is the primary biological and social need of humans. It rejects the idea that the individual should be subordinated to a class, a nation, or a political party.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) refers to the strategy of Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress.
- Option (b) refers to the ideologies of figures like Aurobindo Ghosh or early nationalist thinkers.
- Option (c) is the core tenet of Marxism, which M.N. Roy explicitly moved away from when he formulated Radical Humanism.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?
A)
Repression by the British government
B)
Internal divisions within the Congress
C)
The Chauri Chaura incident involving violence
D)
Limited support from rural areas
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi based on the principle of 'Ahimsa' (non-violence). 2. In February 1922, at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district (Uttar Pradesh), a peaceful demonstration turned violent when a mob clashed with police and set fire to a police station, resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen. 3. Gandhi, who believed that the movement should remain strictly non-violent and that the Indian people were not yet fully trained in the discipline of non-violence, decided that the movement was turning violent. 4. Consequently, he unilaterally suspended the movement in February 1922 to prevent further bloodshed and to maintain the moral integrity of the struggle.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a): While the British government did repress the movement, this was not the primary reason for the sudden suspension in 1922.
- Option (b): Internal divisions existed, but they did not trigger the suspension of the movement.
- Option (d): The movement actually had widespread support from rural areas, which is why it became so powerful.
The concept of over population is based on the-
A)
Absolute number of people in an area
B)
Density of population in that area
C)
Availability of food in the area
D)
Supporting capacity of the land in terms of varied human occupations
Overpopulation is not a measure of the total number of people (absolute number) or how crowded a place is (density), but rather a measure of the relationship between the population and the available resources.
1. Why 'd' is correct: Overpopulation occurs when the population exceeds the 'carrying capacity' of the environment. Carrying capacity is the maximum population size that an area can support indefinitely without degrading the environment. This includes not just food, but the ability of the land to provide diverse economic opportunities (occupations) and resources to sustain a decent standard of living for all inhabitants.
2. Why 'a' and 'b' are incorrect: A region can have a high absolute number of people or high density (like Singapore or Monaco) but not be 'overpopulated' if it has the technological and economic capacity to support that population.
3. Why 'c' is incorrect: While food availability is a critical component of carrying capacity, it is too narrow. Overpopulation also involves access to water, housing, healthcare, and employment opportunities. Therefore, 'supporting capacity' (option d) is the more comprehensive and geographically accurate term.
Which one of the following rivers drains into Arabian Sea?
A)
Yamuna
B)
Mahanadi
C)
Krishna
D)
Narmada
To determine which river drains into the Arabian Sea, we analyze the drainage patterns of the Indian subcontinent:
1. **Narmada (Option d):** The Narmada is one of the major west-flowing rivers of India. It originates in the Amarkantak plateau and flows westward through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, eventually emptying into the Arabian Sea via an estuary in Gujarat. Therefore, this is the correct answer.
2. **Yamuna (Option a):** The Yamuna is a major tributary of the Ganga. It flows eastward and joins the Ganga at Prayagraj. The combined Ganga-Brahmaputra system eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. **Mahanadi (Option b):** The Mahanadi is an east-flowing river that originates in the highlands of Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha to drain into the Bay of Bengal.
4. **Krishna (Option c):** The Krishna is one of the longest east-flowing rivers in India, originating in Mahabaleshwar and flowing across Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh to drain into the Bay of Bengal.
Conclusion: Only the Narmada flows westwards to meet the Arabian Sea.
Green Revolution in India mainly related to-
A)
Oilseed
B)
Fish
C)
Foodgrains
D)
Non-Conventional Energy Sources
The Green Revolution refers to a period of significant increase in agricultural productivity in India, starting in the mid-1960s. It was characterized by the introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, expanded irrigation infrastructure, and the increased use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. While it impacted various crops, its primary focus and most dramatic success were seen in foodgrains, specifically wheat and rice, which helped India move from a state of food deficiency to food self-sufficiency.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Oilseed: While there were later attempts to apply similar techniques to oilseeds (often referred to as the 'Yellow Revolution'), the primary Green Revolution was focused on cereals.
- b. Fish: The increase in fish production is associated with the 'Blue Revolution'.
- d. Non-Conventional Energy Sources: This relates to energy policy and sustainable power (like solar or wind), not agricultural crop production.
Budget Deficit means-
A)
Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment
B)
Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure
C)
Total Expenditure — Total Receipts
D)
Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts
In the context of a government budget, a 'Budget Deficit' (often referred to as the overall deficit) occurs when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total receipts (income).
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. Option (c) 'Total Expenditure — Total Receipts' is the general definition of a budget deficit. It represents the gap between what the government spends and what it earns from all sources (excluding borrowings).
2. Option (a) 'Fiscal Deficit — Interest Payment' refers to the 'Primary Deficit'. Primary deficit is used to see how much the government needs to borrow to meet expenses other than interest payments on previous loans.
3. Option (b) 'Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts — Total Expenditure' would actually calculate a budget surplus if the result is positive, or the negative of a deficit.
4. Option (d) 'Revenue Expenditure — Revenue Receipts' is the definition of the 'Revenue Deficit'. This specifically measures the gap in the government's day-to-day operational funding without considering capital assets or liabilities.
National Income in India is estimated by-
A)
Finance Commission
B)
Indian Statistical Institute
C)
Central Statistical Organization
D)
Finance Commission
The National Income of India is estimated by the Central Statistical Organization (CSO). The CSO is a government agency under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It is responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in the country and the compilation of National Accounts, including GDP and National Income.
Note: In recent years, the CSO and NSSO (National Sample Survey Office) were merged to form the National Statistical Office (NSO), but in the context of standard competitive exam options, 'Central Statistical Organization' is the recognized answer.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Finance Commission: This is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.
- Indian Statistical Institute (ISI): This is a premier academic and research institute, not a government body responsible for official national accounting.
Which mineral belt in India is rich in building materials?
A)
North-eastern plateau region
B)
South-western plateau region
C)
North-western region
D)
Himalayan region
India's mineral resources are distributed across several distinct belts. The North-western region (comprising Rajasthan and Gujarat) is particularly rich in non-metallic minerals used as building materials. This region is the primary source of limestone, gypsum, marble, and sandstone, which are essential for the construction industry.
Breakdown of other options:
- a. North-eastern plateau region: This region (Chhota Nagpur plateau) is the 'mineral heartland' of India, rich in metallic minerals like iron ore, manganese, and coal, rather than primarily building materials.
- b. South-western plateau region: This region is known for gold (Kolar), iron ore, and bauxite, but is not the primary hub for general building materials compared to the North-west.
- d. Himalayan region: While it has some deposits, it is not categorized as a major 'mineral belt' for industrial building materials due to difficult terrain and geological instability.
In India, Coffee is mainly cultivated in the-
A)
Northern region
B)
Southern region
C)
Western region
D)
Northeast region
Coffee cultivation in India is heavily concentrated in the Southern region, specifically in the Western Ghats. The primary states involved are Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Karnataka alone accounts for the vast majority of India's coffee production. Coffee requires specific agro-climatic conditions: warm temperatures, high rainfall, and well-drained loamy soil, which are found in the hilly terrains of the South (such as the Baba Budan Hills).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Northern region: The climate is generally too extreme (very hot summers and cold winters) for coffee, which is a tropical plant.
- Western region: While some states are on the west coast, the specific high-altitude tropical rainforest environment required for coffee is concentrated in the South.
- Northeast region: While the Northeast is famous for tea cultivation, it does not have the same scale or specific environmental suitability for commercial coffee production as the Southern Ghats.
Which part of India receives the lowest annual rainfall?
A)
Meghalaya
B)
Manipur
C)
Jammu and Kashmir
D)
Ladakh
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Analysis of Rainfall Patterns: India's rainfall is primarily driven by the South-West Monsoon. Regions that are shielded from these moisture-bearing winds (rain-shadow areas) or located in high-altitude cold deserts receive the least precipitation. 2. Evaluating Options: (a) Meghalaya: Home to Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, it is the wettest place on Earth. (b) Manipur: Located in the Northeast, it receives significant rainfall from the monsoon. (c) Jammu and Kashmir: While some parts are dry, the valley and southern regions receive moderate precipitation. (d) Ladakh: Ladakh is a high-altitude cold desert. It lies in the rain-shadow area of the Himalayas, which block the moisture-laden clouds from the Indian Ocean. Consequently, it receives extremely low annual precipitation (often less than 100mm per year). 3. Conclusion: Among the given options, Ladakh is the driest region.
Which is the most widespread type of forest found in India?
A)
Tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests
B)
Tropical deciduous forests
C)
Tropical thorn forests
D)
Montane forests
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analysis of Forest Types: India's diverse climate and topography lead to various forest types.
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests: Also known as 'Monsoon Forests', these are the most widespread forests in India. They are characterized by the shedding of leaves for about 6 to 8 weeks during the dry summer. They are further divided into Moist Deciduous and Dry Deciduous forests. They cover a vast portion of the Indian peninsula, the foothills of the Himalayas, and eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
3. Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests: These are found in areas with very high rainfall (above 200 cm), such as the Western Ghats, North-East India, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. While dense, they cover a smaller total area than deciduous forests.
4. Tropical Thorn Forests: These are found in arid and semi-arid regions (Rajasthan, Gujarat, and rain-shadow areas of the Deccan Plateau) where rainfall is less than 70 cm.
5. Montane Forests: These are found in high-altitude regions like the Himalayas and Nilgiris, where vegetation changes with altitude.
Conclusion: Based on geographical distribution and land cover data, Tropical Deciduous forests occupy the largest area of India's forest cover.
Governor acts on the aid and advice of the
A)
Chief Minister
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Home Minister
D)
State Council of Ministers
According to the Constitution of India, the Governor is the nominal executive head of the state. Article 163 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions. While the Chief Minister leads the council, the constitutional mandate is that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the 'Council of Ministers' as a collective body.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Chief Minister: While the CM is the primary advisor, the Governor is advised by the Council of Ministers collectively (Collective Responsibility).
- Option (b) Prime Minister: The Prime Minister advises the President of India at the Union level, not the Governor at the State level.
- Option (c) Home Minister: The Home Minister is a member of the Council of Ministers but does not independently provide the constitutional 'aid and advice' required for the Governor's executive actions.
Which one of the following is NOT a part of the definition of a town as per the Census of India?
A)
Population density of 400 persons per sq km
B)
Presence of municipality
C)
More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector
D)
Population size of more than 5,000 persons
According to the Census of India, a settlement is classified as a 'Town' if it satisfies the following three criteria:
1. It has a minimum population of 5,000 (Option d is correct).
2. It has a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer (Option a is correct).
3. At least 75% of the male main working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits (secondary and tertiary sectors).
Additionally, any settlement with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, or notified town area committee is automatically classified as a town regardless of the above criteria (Option b is correct).
Option (c) states that more than 75% of the population is engaged in the 'primary sector' (agriculture, forestry, fishing). This is the opposite of the actual census requirement, which mandates that 75% of the male main working population must be engaged in 'non-agricultural' (non-primary) pursuits. Therefore, option (c) is NOT a part of the definition.
The difference between Gross National Product and Depreciation is equal to-
A)
Net National Product
B)
Net Domestic at market price
C)
Net National Product at factor cost
D)
Net Value Added
In national income accounting, the fundamental relationship between 'Gross' and 'Net' concepts is the subtraction of depreciation (also known as Consumption of Fixed Capital).
1. **Formula**: Net National Product (NNP) = Gross National Product (GNP) - Depreciation.
2. **Reasoning**: GNP measures the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country. However, during production, capital assets (machinery, buildings, etc.) wear out or become obsolete. This wear and tear is called Depreciation. To find the 'Net' value (the actual addition to the wealth of the nation), we must subtract this depreciation from the 'Gross' value.
**Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option b (Net Domestic at market price)**: This is derived from Gross Domestic Product (GDP), not GNP. GDP refers to production within domestic boundaries, whereas GNP refers to production by nationals regardless of location.
- **Option c (Net National Product at factor cost)**: This is NNP minus Indirect Taxes plus Subsidies. While it is a 'Net' measure, the immediate result of subtracting depreciation from GNP is NNP at market price.
- **Option d (Net Value Added)**: This refers to the value added by a specific firm or industry (Gross Value Added minus Depreciation), not the aggregate national product.
NABARD was established on the recommendation of -
A)
Narashimham Committee
B)
Shivaraman Committee
C)
Public Accounts Committee
D)
None of the above
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on October 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. Its primary objective was to provide and regulate credit for agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, and other rural crafts.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Narashimham Committee: This committee was appointed to suggest reforms in the Indian banking sector (Banking Sector Reforms), focusing on deregulation and efficiency, not the establishment of NABARD.
- Public Accounts Committee: This is a parliamentary committee that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India to ensure government spending is legal and efficient; it does not recommend the creation of financial institutions.
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister recently launched National Mission on Natural Farming till the end of -
A)
16th Finance Commission
B)
15 Finance Commission
C)
17th Finance Commission
D)
None of these
The Government of India, through the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the 'National Mission on Natural Farming' (NMNF). This mission is designed to promote chemical-free farming and sustainable agriculture practices across the country. According to the official government guidelines and the approval framework, the mission is scheduled to be implemented until the end of the period covered by the 16th Finance Commission. The 16th Finance Commission's recommendations typically cover a five-year period, and the mission's timeline is aligned with this fiscal planning cycle to ensure budgetary allocation and monitoring. Options b and c are incorrect as the 15th Finance Commission's period has already concluded/is concluding, and the 17th is too far in the future.
Which of the following is not a credit control objective of RBI?
A)
To achieve stability in the Country’s currency rate and money market.
B)
Controlling the business cycle and meeting the needs of the company.
C)
Toachieve price stability.
D)
To meet financial obligations during a down turn in the economy as well as in regular times.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses credit control (monetary policy) to manage the overall economy, not to manage the individual financial obligations of specific entities.
- Option (a) is a core objective: RBI manages the money supply and interest rates to maintain stability in the exchange rate and the money market.
- Option (b) is a core objective: By adjusting credit flow, RBI attempts to smooth out the business cycle (reducing the severity of booms and busts) to ensure sustainable economic growth.
- Option (c) is a core objective: Price stability (controlling inflation) is the primary mandate of the RBI under the current flexible inflation targeting framework.
- Option (d) is incorrect because 'meeting financial obligations' is the responsibility of individual borrowers, companies, or the government (fiscal management), not a macro-economic credit control objective of the central bank. The RBI provides liquidity to the banking system (Lender of Last Resort), but its 'credit control objective' is not to ensure that specific entities meet their debts.
Which of the following are included in the first phase of land reforms in India?
A)
Abolition of intermediaries
B)
Ceiling on size of holdings
C)
Green Revolution
D)
Both (a) & (b)
Land reforms in India were implemented in several phases to remove the colonial legacy of land tenure and ensure equitable distribution of land.
1. **Abolition of Intermediaries (Zamindari Abolition):** This was the primary objective of the first phase of land reforms immediately after independence. The goal was to remove the middlemen (Zamindars, Jagirdars) between the actual tiller of the soil and the state, thereby giving ownership rights to the cultivators.
2. **Tenancy Reforms and Ceiling on Size of Holdings:** Along with the abolition of intermediaries, the government introduced 'Land Ceiling' laws. This involved fixing the maximum size of land a single family could hold; any land held in excess of this ceiling was acquired by the state and redistributed to landless laborers or marginal farmers.
3. **Why Option (c) is incorrect:** The Green Revolution was not a 'land reform' in terms of ownership or tenure; it was a technological transformation involving High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and irrigation, which primarily took place in the mid-1960s (a later period than the initial structural land reforms).
Since both the abolition of intermediaries and the imposition of land ceilings were core components of the initial structural land reform efforts, option (d) is the correct choice.
What sort of matters is raised during ‘zero hour’ in the Parliament?
A)
Matters ofno importance
B)
Matters of utmost importance
C)
Financial matters
D)
Constitutional matters
Zero Hour is an informal device in the Indian Parliamentary system. It starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the regular agenda for the day is taken up. During Zero Hour, Members of Parliament (MPs) are allowed to raise matters of 'urgent public importance' without prior notice.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the purpose of Zero Hour is to address pressing issues, not unimportant ones.
- Option (c) is incorrect because financial matters are typically handled during the Budget session or through specific financial bills and motions.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while constitutional matters may be discussed, Zero Hour is specifically designed for urgent, current public issues rather than general constitutional debates.
Which of the following defines depreciation?
A)
Destruction ofa plant in a fire accident
B)
Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
C)
Closure ofa plant due to labour trouble
D)
Closure ofa plant due to lockout
In economics and accounting, depreciation refers to the gradual decrease in the value of a physical asset over time. This occurs primarily due to three reasons: normal wear and tear from usage, obsolescence (becoming outdated), or the natural passage of time.
Step-by-step analysis of options:
- Option (a) 'Destruction of a plant in a fire accident' is classified as a 'Capital Loss' or an unexpected casualty, not depreciation, because it is a sudden, accidental event rather than a gradual decline.
- Option (b) 'Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear' perfectly matches the definition of depreciation, as it describes the systematic consumption of a fixed asset's value over its useful life.
- Option (c) 'Closure of a plant due to labour trouble' and Option (d) 'Closure of a plant due to lockout' refer to operational shutdowns or industrial disputes. While these may lead to financial losses or underutilization of assets, they do not define the process of depreciation itself.
Which one of the following communities does NOT practice transhumance?
A)
Gonds
B)
Bakarwals
C)
Bhotiyas
D)
Gaddis
Transhumance is the seasonal movement of livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures.
1. Bakarwals (Option b): They are a nomadic pastoral community from Jammu and Kashmir who migrate between the high mountains in summer and the lowlands in winter.
2. Bhotiyas (Option c): They are a community from the Uttarakhand Himalayas who traditionally practiced transhumance, moving between high-altitude pastures and lower valleys.
3. Gaddis (Option d): They are shepherds from Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir who practice seasonal migration with their sheep and goats.
4. Gonds (Option a): The Gonds are one of the largest tribal groups in India, primarily residing in the central highlands (Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh). They are traditionally settled agriculturists and forest dwellers, not nomadic pastoralists. Therefore, they do not practice transhumance.
Which of the following Committee is related to poverty study?
A)
Tendulkar
B)
Vijay Kelkar
C)
R.V Easwar
D)
Chelliah
The correct answer is the Tendulkar Committee.
1. **Tendulkar Committee (Option a):** Formed in 2007 and submitting its report in 2009, the committee headed by Suresh Tendulkar redefined the poverty line in India. It moved away from the calorie-based approach to a method based on Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) on health and education, providing a more comprehensive measure of poverty.
2. **Vijay Kelkar (Option b):** The Kelkar Committee is primarily associated with Tax Reforms (Direct and Indirect taxes) and the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model in infrastructure.
3. **R.V. Easwar (Option c):** While there are various administrative committees, R.V. Easwar is not associated with a landmark national committee for poverty estimation in the Indian economy.
4. **Chelliah (Option d):** The Raj Chelliah Committee is renowned for its recommendations on Tax Reforms in India (specifically the 1991 reforms) to simplify the tax structure and broaden the tax base.
The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers
A)
On the request of a state
B)
During national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well ina state
C)
Only during national emergency
D)
Atall times
Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States is detailed in the Seventh Schedule. This schedule contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. 'Residuary powers' refer to the authority to legislate on any matter that is not mentioned in any of these three lists. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is vested exclusively in the Parliament. This power is inherent to the Parliament and is not contingent upon a national emergency, a request from a state, or any other special condition. Therefore, the Parliament can exercise residuary powers at all times.