← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions
In double contrast Barium studies the contrast used is:
A)
Barium + barium
B)
Barium + water
C)
Barium + air
D)
Barium + Iodinated contrast
In double-contrast barium studies, two contrast agents are used: a positive contrast agent (barium sulfate) to coat the mucosa and a negative contrast agent (air) to distend the organ and improve visualization of fine mucosal detail. Therefore, the correct answer is Barium + air. The other options are incorrect because barium with water is not a double-contrast study, barium with barium is not meaningful, and iodinated contrast is used in other imaging studies but not the standard double-contrast barium examination.
PET CT uses which radiotracer most commonly?
A)
Tc-99m MDP
B)
1-131
C)
FDG (Fluorodeoxyglucose)
D)
DTPA
PET-CT most commonly uses 18F-FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) as the radiotracer because it is taken up by metabolically active tissues, especially many cancers. Tc-99m MDP is used mainly for bone scans, I-131 is used in thyroid imaging/therapy, and DTPA is used for renal studies, not routine PET imaging.
What is the main advantage of FNAC over a core needle biopsy?
A)
Provides better architectural detail of the lesion.
B)
Less invasive, quicker, and generally less painful.
C)
Provides a definitive diagnosis for all types of tumors.
D)
Carries a higher risk of complications.
FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology) uses a very thin needle to collect cells, so it is usually less invasive than a core needle biopsy. It is quicker to perform, causes less discomfort, and has a lower complication risk. In contrast, a core needle biopsy gives tissue architecture, so option (a) is incorrect. FNAC does not provide a definitive diagnosis for all tumors, so (c) is incorrect. It also generally has fewer, not higher, complications, so (d) is incorrect.
In percutaneous nephrostomy contrast is instilled to the:
A)
CBD
B)
MPD
C)
Renal pelvis through nephrostomy tube
D)
IJ junction
In percutaneous nephrostomy, a tube is placed into the renal collecting system, usually the renal pelvis, to drain urine or allow access for imaging/procedures. Contrast is instilled through the nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis to outline the pelvicalyceal system. The other options are unrelated: CBD is the common bile duct, MPD is the main pancreatic duct, and IJ junction refers to the internal jugular region, not the kidney.
In an ischemic stroke (e.g., acute brain infarction), how does the movement of water molecules typically change, and how does it appear on a standard DWI image?
A)
Water movement increases; appears dark (low signal).
B)
Water movement is unrestricted; appears bright.
C)
Water movement is restricted; appears bright (high signal).
D)
Water movement is restricted; appears dark (low signal).
In acute ischemic stroke, failure of cellular energy pumps causes cytotoxic edema, which restricts the random movement (diffusion) of water molecules. On diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI), restricted diffusion typically appears bright (hyperintense/high signal). Therefore, option (c) is correct. Option (a) is wrong because increased diffusion would not be the usual finding in acute infarction. Option (b) is wrong because unrestricted water movement does not match ischemic cytotoxic edema. Option (d) is wrong because restricted diffusion in acute stroke is not dark on standard DWI; it is bright.
CR uses which detector type:
A)
Direct amorphous selenium
B)
Indirect gadolinium scintillator
C)
Photostimulable phosphor plate
D)
CCD chip
Computed Radiography (CR) uses a photostimulable phosphor plate as the image receptor. The plate stores the x-ray energy and is later scanned with a laser to release light, which is converted into a digital image.
Why others are incorrect:
- Direct amorphous selenium: used in direct digital radiography (DR), not CR.
- Indirect gadolinium scintillator: also used in DR detectors.
- CCD chip: used in some older digital imaging systems, not the standard detector in CR.
In a FLAIR sequence of the brain, the signal from which substance is intentionally suppressed to better visualize periventricular or subcortical lesions is?
A)
Fat
B)
White matter
C)
Gray matter
D)
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
FLAIR stands for Fluid Attenuated Inversion Recovery. In this MRI sequence, the signal from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is intentionally suppressed. This makes lesions near the ventricles and in the subcortical white matter more conspicuous, because the bright CSF signal no longer masks them. Fat is suppressed in fat-sat sequences, not FLAIR, and white matter/gray matter are not the targeted suppressed substances.
What is the primary purpose of a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG)?
A)
To assess kidney function.
B)
To image the bladder and urethra during urination.
C)
To detect kidney stones without contrast.
D)
To evaluate the adrenal glands.
A voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) is a fluoroscopic X-ray study performed while the patient voids (urinates). Its primary purpose is to visualize the bladder and urethra during urination and to detect problems such as vesicoureteral reflux or urethral abnormalities. It is not mainly used to assess kidney function, detect kidney stones without contrast, or evaluate the adrenal glands.
MRI stands for:
A)
Magnetic Radiology Imaging
B)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
C)
Magnetic Resonance Investigation
D)
Magnetic Radiology Investigation
MRI is the standard medical abbreviation for Magnetic Resonance Imaging, a diagnostic technique that uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of internal body structures. The other options are not the correct expansion of MRI.
What is the most common indication for placing a stent in the biliary tree?
A)
To treat obstructive jaundice caused by a benign or malignant condition.
B)
To prevent gallbladder stone formation.
C)
To treat pancreatitis.
D)
To perform a cholangiogram.
A biliary stent is most commonly placed to relieve obstruction in the bile ducts, which causes obstructive jaundice. This obstruction may be due to benign causes such as strictures or stones, or malignant causes such as carcinoma of the pancreas or bile duct. Options (b), (c), and (d) are not the main indication: stents do not prevent gallbladder stone formation, they are not primarily used to treat pancreatitis, and a cholangiogram is only an imaging procedure, not an indication for stenting.
For Intravenous Urography the patient is examined in the following EXCEPT:
A)
Using Intravenous iodinated contrast media
B)
Exposed several times to study flow of contrast to urinary bladder
C)
Using sonography gel
D)
Plain radiograph obtained at the start of the study
Intravenous urography (IVU/IVP) uses intravenous iodinated contrast media and a series of plain radiographs taken at intervals to follow the passage of contrast through the kidneys, ureters, and urinary bladder. A plain radiograph is usually obtained at the start as a scout film. Sonography gel is used in ultrasound examinations, not in intravenous urography. Therefore, option (c) is the exception.
Which safety zone is defined as the area where the magnetic field is strong enough to pose a significant risk to unscreened individuals and ferromagnetic objects, and from which all ferromagnetic objects must be excluded?
A)
Zone I.
B)
Zone II.
C)
Zone III.
D)
Zone IV.
MRI safety zoning is commonly divided into Zones I to IV. Zone III is the area that is under the control of MRI personnel and where the magnetic field can pose a significant risk to unscreened individuals and ferromagnetic objects. Therefore, all ferromagnetic objects must be excluded from Zone III. Zone I is unrestricted public access, Zone II is the screened interface area, and Zone IV is the magnet room itself.
Which clinical finding in a male trauma patient would be an indication for an RGU before attempting to insert a Foley catheter?
A)
Haematuria (blood in the urine)
B)
Severe abdominal pain
C)
Blood at the urethral meatus (tip of the penis)
D)
Inability to void after drinking fluids
Retrograde urethrogram (RGU) is indicated before Foley catheter insertion when urethral injury is suspected. In a male trauma patient, blood at the urethral meatus is a classic sign of possible urethral injury, so catheterization should be avoided until RGU is done. Haematuria alone does not specifically indicate urethral injury, severe abdominal pain is nonspecific, and inability to void may occur for many reasons but is not the key sign requiring RGU first.
Which of the following best describes a flat panel detector (FPD)?
A)
An image receptor that requires a separate cassette and reader.
B)
A device that uses a vacuum tube to convert X-rays into a visible image.
C)
A solid-state detector that directly or indirectly converts X-rays into an electrical signal.
D)
A digital imaging system that relies on a CCD camera to capture an image.
A flat panel detector (FPD) is a digital radiography image receptor made of solid-state materials. It converts incoming X-rays into electrical signals either directly (e.g., amorphous selenium) or indirectly via a scintillator (e.g., cesium iodide) that first converts X-rays to light and then to electrical signal. Option (a) describes CR systems with cassette and reader, (b) refers to image intensifier/vacuum-tube based systems, and (d) describes CCD-based imaging, which is not the standard definition of an FPD.
What type of radioactive decay is the basis for PET imaging?
A)
Alpha decay
B)
Beta-minus decay
C)
Beta-plus decay
D)
Gamma decay
PET (Positron Emission Tomography) uses radionuclides that undergo beta-plus decay, also called positron emission. The emitted positron annihilates with an electron and produces two gamma photons, which are detected by the scanner to form the image. Alpha decay does not produce positrons, beta-minus decay emits electrons, and gamma decay is not the decay basis for PET.
What is plasmin, and what is its role in thrombolysis?
A)
An inactive precursor to plasminogen.
B)
An enzyme that promotes clot formation.
C)
An enzyme that breaks down fibrin, dissolving blood clots.
D)
A substance that activates platelets.
Plasmin is the active fibrinolytic enzyme formed from plasminogen. Its main role in thrombolysis is to digest fibrin, the structural mesh of a clot, thereby dissolving the blood clot. Option (a) is incorrect because plasminogen is the inactive precursor, not plasmin. Option (b) is wrong because plasmin does not promote clot formation; it breaks clots down. Option (d) is also incorrect because platelet activation is related to clot formation, not thrombolysis.
Coil arrays are used in MRI to:
A)
To improve signal reception and image quality
B)
To change planes of scanning
C)
To enhance patient comfort
D)
To reduce scan duration
Coil arrays in MRI are used as receiver coils to detect the emitted MR signal more efficiently. By combining signals from multiple coil elements, they increase signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), which improves image quality and can also allow faster imaging. Option (b) is incorrect because scan plane selection is done by the scanner gradients, not coils. Option (c) is unrelated. Option (d) is not the primary purpose, though improved signal reception can sometimes support faster scans.
MRCP is used for the evaluation of:
A)
Renal collecting system
B)
Spleen pathology
C)
Biliary pathology
D)
Bowel pathology
MRCP stands for Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography. It is a special MRI technique used to visualize the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts, so it is mainly used for evaluating biliary pathology. It is not used for the renal collecting system, spleen pathology, or bowel pathology.
Which of the following is a common procedure for interventional radiology?
A)
Dental filling
B)
Total hip replacement
C)
Abscess pig tail drainage
D)
Heart transplant
Interventional radiology uses image-guided minimally invasive procedures for diagnosis and treatment. A common example is pigtail catheter drainage of an abscess. Dental filling, total hip replacement, and heart transplant are not interventional radiology procedures.
Which type of embolic agent is used for a temporary occlusion, such as in the management of trauma?
A)
Metallic coils
B)
Absolute ethanol
C)
Gelatin foam (Gel foam)
D)
Cyanoacrylate glue
Gelatin foam (Gelfoam) is an absorbable embolic material and is used for temporary vascular occlusion, for example in trauma or bleeding control. It is eventually resorbed by the body. Metallic coils, cyanoacrylate glue, and absolute ethanol are used for more permanent occlusion/sclerosis rather than temporary blockage.
In an Intravenous Urogram (IVU), what is the ‘nephrogram phase’?
A)
The phase where contrast is collecting in the bladder.
B)
The phase where contrast is being excreted into the ureters.
C)
The phase where contrast is concentrated within the renal parenchyma (kidney tissue).
D)
The phase where a plain radiograph (KUB) is taken before contrast injection.
In an Intravenous Urogram (IVU), the nephrogram phase is the early phase after contrast injection when the kidneys enhance and the contrast is seen in the renal parenchyma. Option (a) describes the bladder filling phase, option (b) describes the excretory/pyelographic phase with contrast in the ureters, and option (d) refers to the preliminary KUB film taken before contrast.
What is considered an absolute contraindication for a percutaneous nephrostomy procedure?
A)
Severe obesity
B)
An uncorrectable bleeding diathesis (abnormal blood coagulation)
C)
A history of kidney stones
D)
Pregnancy
Percutaneous nephrostomy is an invasive image-guided procedure, so uncontrolled coagulation problems are an absolute contraindication because they markedly increase the risk of severe bleeding. Severe obesity is a technical difficulty, not an absolute contraindication. A history of kidney stones is actually a common indication for nephrostomy in obstructive uropathy. Pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication; it requires careful radiation minimization and risk-benefit assessment.
PACS is used to store and retrieve:
A)
Patient bills
B)
Images and reports
C)
Pharmacy records
D)
OPD records
PACS stands for Picture Archiving and Communication System. It is used in radiology to store, manage, and retrieve medical images such as X-rays, CT scans, MRI scans, along with associated reports. The other options are unrelated to PACS: patient bills are handled by billing systems, pharmacy records by pharmacy management systems, and OPD records by hospital information systems.
Patient compliance for MRI is reduced due to all EXCEPT:
A)
Claustrophobia
B)
Long scanning time
C)
Loud noise
D)
Short scanning time
Patient compliance for MRI is reduced by factors that make the procedure uncomfortable or stressful, such as claustrophobia, long scanning time, and loud noise. Short scanning time does not reduce compliance; in fact, it usually improves patient tolerance. Therefore, the EXCEPT option is short scanning time.
An important component of building MRI scanning room is:
A)
RF shielding
B)
CF shielding
C)
SF shielding
D)
HF shielding
An MRI scanner produces strong radiofrequency (RF) signals and is highly sensitive to external electromagnetic interference. Therefore, an MRI scanning room must include RF shielding to prevent outside RF noise from affecting image quality and to keep MRI emissions contained. The other options are not standard shielding terms used for MRI rooms.
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