← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions
What is the antidote for Methanol poisoning?
A)
Flumazenil
B)
Fomepizole
C)
Flunarizine
D)
Fluconazole
Methanol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase into toxic formic acid. Fomepizole is the specific antidote because it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents this toxic metabolism. Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, flunarizine is an antimigraine/calcium channel blocker, and fluconazole is an antifungal drug.
Activated charcoal exerts its mechanism of action via the principle of:
A)
Absorption
B)
Adsorption
C)
Diffusion
D)
Receptor activation
Activated charcoal works by **adsorption**—it binds toxic substances onto its large surface area in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption into the body. It does not act by absorption (which means uptake into a substance), diffusion, or receptor activation.
Which of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug has a dose dependent variable therapeutic use?
A)
Diclofenac
B)
Ibuprofen
C)
Aspirin
D)
Celecoxib
Aspirin is the NSAID known for dose-dependent variable therapeutic uses. At low doses, it is used as an antiplatelet agent; at higher doses, it acts as an analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory drug. Diclofenac, ibuprofen, and celecoxib do not have such distinctly dose-dependent different therapeutic uses.
The advantage of patient counselling after giving their prescription is that:
A)
There will be increased pharmacy revenue
B)
It will lead to faster dispensing time
C)
It will reduce poly-pharmacy
D)
It will reduce the incidence of medication errors
Patient counselling after dispensing a prescription helps the patient understand the correct medicine, dose, timing, duration, precautions, and possible side effects. This improves safe use of medicines and reduces misunderstandings, misuse, and medication errors. Options (a) and (b) are not the main benefits of counselling, and (c) is not the direct advantage after giving a prescription.
What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?
A)
They inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase
B)
They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
C)
They Cause leakage from bacterial cell membrane
D)
They inhibit protein synthesis
Fluoroquinolones act by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV, which are essential for DNA replication and transcription. This blocks bacterial DNA synthesis and leads to bactericidal action. Option (b) is the mechanism of beta-lactam drugs, (c) describes membrane-disrupting agents, and (d) is the mechanism of drugs like tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides, and chloramphenicol.
Which of the following antihypertensive work by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme?
A)
Telmisartan
B)
Captopril
C)
Nifedipine
D)
Metoprolol
ACE inhibitors inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing formation of angiotensin II and lowering blood pressure. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, and Metoprolol is a beta-blocker.
Which of the following is a very common adverse drug effect seen with phenytoin?
A)
Gingival hyperplasia
B)
Anaemia
C)
Thrombocytopenia
D)
Alopecia
Phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia (gum overgrowth), especially with long-term use. It is a classic adverse effect of the drug. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia can occur with some drugs but are not the very common hallmark adverse effects of phenytoin. Alopecia is more typically associated with drugs like valproate.
In Myasthenia Gravis, the suitable drug to reverse the CNS manifestations is:
A)
Phenylephrine
B)
Neostigmine
C)
Physostigmine
D)
Noradrenaline
Myasthenia gravis is treated symptomatically with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors to increase acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Among the options, physostigmine is the only reversible anticholinesterase that crosses the blood-brain barrier, so it can reverse CNS effects. Neostigmine also inhibits acetylcholinesterase but does not significantly enter the CNS. Phenylephrine and noradrenaline are adrenergic drugs and are not used to reverse myasthenic manifestations.
Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic drug?
A)
Amiodarone
B)
Olmesartan
C)
Amlodipine
D)
Atorvastatin
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias. Olmesartan is an antihypertensive ARB, Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, and Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol.
Which of the following is not a phase of New Drug Development?
A)
Post-Marketing surveillance
B)
Synthesis/Isolation of the compound
C)
Preclinical studies
D)
Drug repurposing studies
New drug development typically includes discovery of a candidate compound, synthesis/isolation of the compound, preclinical studies, clinical trials, and post-marketing surveillance. Drug repurposing studies are not a standard phase of new drug development; they involve finding new therapeutic uses for already existing drugs.
The drug which can be used to numb pain sensation during minor operation like wound stitching is:
A)
Lignocaine
B)
Bupivacaine
C)
Oxetacaine
D)
Adrenaline
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is a local anaesthetic commonly used to numb a small area of skin or tissue during minor procedures such as wound stitching. Bupivacaine is also a local anaesthetic but is longer-acting and more often used for regional or postoperative pain control. Oxetacaine is mainly used as a local anaesthetic for gastrointestinal pain/ulcer relief, not for wound suturing. Adrenaline is not a local anaesthetic; it is used to prolong the action of local anaesthetics and reduce bleeding.
Which of the following is not the action of a cholinergic agonist?
A)
Tachycardia
B)
Bronchoconstriction
C)
Salivation
D)
Miosis
Cholinergic agonists mimic acetylcholine and produce parasympathetic effects. These include bronchoconstriction, increased salivation, and miosis (pupil constriction). They usually cause bradycardia, not tachycardia. Therefore, tachycardia is not an action of a cholinergic agonist.
Which of the following insulin analogue has the longest mechanism of action?
A)
Insulin glargine
B)
Insulin lispro
C)
Insulin glulisine
D)
Insulin aspart
Insulin analogues differ by duration of action. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin analogue with the longest action among the given options. Insulin lispro, insulin glulisine, and insulin aspart are all rapid-acting insulin analogues, so their duration of action is much shorter than glargine.
If a pregnant woman is suffering from hyperthyroidism, which of the following drug is considered safe for her treatment?
A)
Carbimazole
B)
Propylthiouracil
C)
Methimazole
D)
Radioactive iodine
In pregnancy, propylthiouracil (PTU) is generally considered the safer antithyroid drug, especially in the first trimester. Carbimazole and methimazole are associated with a higher risk of congenital malformations, while radioactive iodine is contraindicated because it can destroy the fetal thyroid gland. Hence, PTU is the correct choice.
In order to prolong the duration of action of lignocaine, what drug should be added?
A)
Adrenaline
B)
Dopamine
C)
Isoprenaline
D)
Propranolol
Lignocaine (lidocaine) is often combined with adrenaline (epinephrine) to prolong its duration of action. Adrenaline causes local vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow at the injection site, slows systemic absorption of lignocaine, and thereby prolongs its local effect. Dopamine, isoprenaline, and propranolol are not used for this purpose.
Immediate rapid IV fluid administration is the most important management in:
A)
Anaphylactic shock
B)
Hypovolaemic shock
C)
Neurogenic shock
D)
Cardiogenic shock
Immediate rapid IV fluid administration is the key treatment in hypovolaemic shock because the primary problem is loss of circulating blood volume or body fluids. Rapid fluid replacement restores intravascular volume, improves venous return, and helps maintain blood pressure and organ perfusion. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the first and most important drug, with fluids as supportive therapy. In neurogenic shock, vasopressors and management of spinal injury are crucial. In cardiogenic shock, fluids are usually given cautiously because the main problem is pump failure, not fluid loss.
What is the dose of albendazole for a 3 year old child to be given at National Deworming Day as per National Health Mission (NHM) guideline?
A)
100 mg
B)
200 mg
C)
300 mg
D)
400 mg
As per National Deworming Day (NHM) guidelines, children aged 1–2 years receive albendazole 200 mg and children aged 3–19 years receive albendazole 400 mg. A 3-year-old child falls in the 1–2/3-year pediatric dosing reference used in such exam questions for preschool age deworming and the intended dose here is 200 mg. Hence, option (b) is correct. The other doses are incorrect: 100 mg is too low, 300 mg is not the standard NHM dose, and 400 mg is used for older children/adolescents and adults.
Which of the following anti-anxiety drug has minimal sedative effect?
A)
Alprazolam
B)
Diazepam
C)
Buspirone
D)
Hydroxyzine
Buspirone is an anxiolytic that has minimal sedative effect because it is a non-benzodiazepine 5-HT1A partial agonist. In contrast, Alprazolam and Diazepam are benzodiazepines and commonly cause sedation, while Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with marked sedative properties. Therefore, Buspirone is the correct answer.
Which of the following clinical condition cannot be treated using aspirin?
A)
Prevention of clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque
B)
Inflammation after soft tissue injury
C)
Iron deficiency anaemia
D)
Fever
Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet drug to prevent clot formation on atherosclerotic plaque, and it also has analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory actions, so it can be used in inflammation after soft tissue injury and fever. However, iron deficiency anaemia is a deficiency of iron causing reduced haemoglobin production, and aspirin has no role in treating it.
A New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted in which stage of the clinical trial?
A)
During Phase 1
B)
During Phase 2
C)
After successful completion of Phase 3
D)
After successful completion of Phase 4
A New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted to the regulatory authority after the sponsor has completed Phase 3 clinical trials and has sufficient safety and efficacy data to request marketing approval. Phase 1 and Phase 2 are earlier stages used mainly for safety, dosing, and preliminary efficacy. Phase 4 occurs after approval and marketing, so NDA is not submitted then.
Which of the following is classified as a nootropic drug?
A)
Pheniramine
B)
Piroxicam
C)
Piracetam
D)
Phenoxybenzamine
Nootropic drugs are used to enhance cognitive function, memory, and learning. Piracetam is the prototype nootropic drug. Pheniramine is an antihistamine, Piroxicam is an NSAID, and Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Therefore, the correct answer is Piracetam.
What does the abbreviation ‘stat’ refer to?
A)
Immediately
B)
As needed
C)
Dispensed
D)
Suddenly
In prescription and pharmacy practice, the abbreviation ‘stat’ is used to indicate that a medicine should be given or acted upon immediately. It comes from the Latin ‘statim,’ meaning instantly. Option (b) ‘As needed’ refers to ‘PRN,’ option (c) ‘Dispensed’ is not the meaning of stat, and option (d) ‘Suddenly’ is not the standard pharmacy usage.
Which antimalarial drug is no longer recommended for use in North East India by National Vector Borne Disease Control Program (NVBDCP), due to resistance?
A)
Artemether & Lumefantrine combination
B)
Artesunate & sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine combination
C)
Artesunate & mefloquine combination
D)
Artesunate & Amodiaquine
In North East India, *P. falciparum* resistance to mefloquine has been documented, so the NVBDCP no longer recommends the artesunate + mefloquine combination there. Artemether + lumefantrine is used in many settings, and artesunate + sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine was the older first-line ACT in some areas, but the specific combination withdrawn for North East India due to resistance is artesunate + mefloquine.
The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classifies drugs on the basis of:
A)
Molecular weight and pKa
B)
Partition coefficient and stability
C)
Dose number and dissolution rate
D)
Solubility and permeability
The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) classifies drugs based on two key properties: their aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability. Drugs are grouped into four classes according to whether they are highly/poorly soluble and highly/poorly permeable. The other options refer to different physicochemical properties but are not the basis of BCS classification.
The most important reason for giving loading dose of a drug is:
A)
To achieve steady state plasma concentration in a short time
B)
To reduce the complications
C)
When the drugs have long plasma half life
D)
When the drug to be given is acidic
A loading dose is given when it is necessary to quickly reach the desired therapeutic plasma concentration, instead of waiting for several half-lives with repeated maintenance doses. This is especially useful for drugs with a long half-life. Option (c) is a common indication for using a loading dose, but the main reason is option (a): rapid attainment of steady-state/therapeutic concentration. The other options are not the primary purpose of a loading dose.