← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2026
Which of the following is an example of an internet-based service relevant to a radiology department?
A)
Accessing the hospital’s Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) from an on-site workstation.
B)
Using a web browser to view departmental on-call schedules.
C)
Remotely interpreting a study from a home office using teleradiology software.
D)
Accessing the hospital’s radiology information system (RIS) for a patient’s history.
An internet-based service in radiology is one that uses network/online connectivity to provide radiology functions remotely. Teleradiology software allows a radiologist to access and interpret imaging studies from outside the hospital, such as from a home office. Option (a) is an on-site PACS access, (b) is just a departmental web page/schedule, and (d) refers to RIS access, which is an internal information system rather than specifically an internet-based remote service.
What is the purpose of using ‘fizzing crystals’ or gas during a double-contrast barium meal study?
A)
To help the patient relax during the X-ray.
B)
To coat the lining of the stomach with barium more effectively.
C)
To distend the stomach with gas, allowing better visualization of the mucosal lining when coated with barium.
D)
To speed up the passage of barium through the small intestine.
In a double-contrast barium meal study, fizzing crystals (effervescent agents) release gas in the stomach. This distends the stomach and spreads the barium into a thin coating over the mucosa, which improves visualization of fine mucosal details. Option (b) is incomplete because barium coating alone is not the purpose of the gas. Option (a) is irrelevant, and (d) is not the function of fizzing crystals.
What is the function of the TFT (Thin-Film Transistor) array in a digital mammography detector?
A)
To focus the X-ray beam onto the breast.
B)
To read out the electrical charges that form the digital image.
C)
To compress the breast during the exposure.
D)
To filter the X-ray beam.
In a digital mammography detector, the TFT (Thin-Film Transistor) array is used as the readout matrix. It collects and sequentially reads the electrical charges produced in the detector pixels after X-ray exposure, converting them into a digital image. Option (a) is incorrect because focusing the X-ray beam is not the detector’s job. Option (c) is incorrect because breast compression is done by the mammography unit, not the TFT array. Option (d) is incorrect because X-ray beam filtration is done by filters, not the detector readout system.
What is the primary purpose of a CT-guided percutaneous drainage of an abscess?
A)
To remove a solid mass.
B)
To provide a definitive diagnosis of the abscess type.
C)
To remove an infected fluid collection and facilitate healing.
D)
To assess the size of the liver.
CT-guided percutaneous drainage is a minimally invasive procedure used to place a needle/catheter into an abscess under CT guidance. Its main goal is to evacuate the infected fluid/pus, reduce pressure and infection, and help the area heal. Option (a) is wrong because this procedure is for fluid collections, not solid masses. Option (b) is wrong because diagnosis may be aided by aspiration/culture, but the primary purpose is treatment. Option (d) is unrelated to abscess drainage.
Common access site for angiography is:
A)
Brachial vein
B)
Radial or femoral artery
C)
Cephalic vein
D)
Popliteal artery
Angiography is an imaging procedure used to visualize blood vessels by injecting contrast into an artery. The most common access sites are the radial artery at the wrist and the femoral artery in the groin. The brachial vein, cephalic vein, and popliteal artery are not the standard common access sites for routine angiography.
Typical color Doppler angle is:
A)
0 degree
B)
30-60 degree
C)
90 degrees
D)
120 degrees
In color Doppler ultrasound, the beam should ideally be aligned as closely as possible to the direction of blood flow for accurate velocity estimation. A typical and commonly recommended Doppler insonation angle is about 30–60 degrees. Angle 90 degrees gives no frequency shift (poor/no Doppler signal), and 0 degrees is ideal in theory but often not practical in routine scanning. Therefore, 30–60 degree is the correct answer.
CT scanner was invented by:
A)
Roentgen
B)
Hounsfield
C)
Watson
D)
Edison
The CT (Computed Tomography) scanner was invented by Sir Godfrey Hounsfield. He developed the first practical CT scanner in the early 1970s. Roentgen discovered X-rays, Watson is associated with DNA, and Edison is known for many inventions but not CT scanning.
ECG gating in CT coronary angiography for:
A)
Reducing motion artifacts
B)
Removing noise
C)
Increasing pitch
D)
Detecting calcifications
ECG gating in CT coronary angiography synchronizes image acquisition with a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, usually during minimal coronary motion. This reduces motion artifacts and improves visualization of the coronary arteries. It is not primarily used for removing noise, increasing pitch, or detecting calcifications.
Post-procedure care after a myelogram typically includes which instruction?
A)
Engage in strenuous activity immediately to circulate the contrast.
B)
Lie flat for a prolonged period (e.g., 24 hours).
C)
Fast for 12 hours after the procedure.
D)
Rest with the head elevated (less than 30 degrees) for several hours and drink plenty of fluids.
After a myelogram, the patient is usually advised to rest with the head slightly elevated and to increase fluid intake to help clear the contrast and reduce the risk of headache or other post-lumbar puncture symptoms. Strenuous activity is avoided, so (a) is incorrect. Lying flat for 24 hours is not the typical instruction in routine post-myelogram care, so (b) is incorrect. Fasting after the procedure is not required, so (c) is incorrect.
The ideal time to perform HSG is:
A)
During menstrual period
B)
During ovulation
C)
7-10 days after menstruation
D)
20-30 days after menstruation
Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is ideally performed in the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, usually 7–10 days after menstruation ends. At this time, the endometrium is thin, which gives better visualization, and the procedure is done before ovulation to avoid the risk of disturbing an early pregnancy. During menstruation it may cause more bleeding and poor imaging, during ovulation there is pregnancy risk, and 20–30 days after menstruation is too late in the cycle.
AERB stands for:
A)
Atomic Energy Regulation Board
B)
Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
C)
Atomic Environmental Research Board
D)
Auxiliary Energy Review Board
AERB is the standard abbreviation for the **Atomic Energy Regulatory Board** of India, which regulates nuclear and radiation safety. Option (a) is incorrect because the word is not 'Regulation' but 'Regulatory'. Options (c) and (d) are unrelated and not the expansion of AERB.
What type of X-ray beam is used in a multi-slice CT scanner?
A)
A cone-shaped beam.
B)
A pencil beam.
C)
A fan-shaped beam.
D)
A parallel beam.
In a multi-slice CT scanner, the X-ray beam used is a fan-shaped beam that covers multiple detector rows simultaneously. This allows the scanner to acquire several slices in one rotation. A pencil beam is used in older single-slice or some special scanning setups, and a parallel beam is not used in CT. A cone-shaped beam is more associated with cone-beam CT systems, not standard multi-slice CT.
What type of radioactive decay is the basis for PET imaging?
A)
Alpha decay
B)
Beta-minus decay
C)
Beta-plus decay
D)
Gamma decay
PET (Positron Emission Tomography) uses radionuclides that undergo beta-plus decay, also called positron emission. The emitted positron annihilates with an electron and produces two gamma photons, which are detected by the scanner to form the image. Alpha decay does not produce positrons, beta-minus decay emits electrons, and gamma decay is not the decay basis for PET.
What is plasmin, and what is its role in thrombolysis?
A)
An inactive precursor to plasminogen.
B)
An enzyme that promotes clot formation.
C)
An enzyme that breaks down fibrin, dissolving blood clots.
D)
A substance that activates platelets.
Plasmin is the active fibrinolytic enzyme formed from plasminogen. Its main role in thrombolysis is to digest fibrin, the structural mesh of a clot, thereby dissolving the blood clot. Option (a) is incorrect because plasminogen is the inactive precursor, not plasmin. Option (b) is wrong because plasmin does not promote clot formation; it breaks clots down. Option (d) is also incorrect because platelet activation is related to clot formation, not thrombolysis.
Coil arrays are used in MRI to:
A)
To improve signal reception and image quality
B)
To change planes of scanning
C)
To enhance patient comfort
D)
To reduce scan duration
Coil arrays in MRI are used as receiver coils to detect the emitted MR signal more efficiently. By combining signals from multiple coil elements, they increase signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), which improves image quality and can also allow faster imaging. Option (b) is incorrect because scan plane selection is done by the scanner gradients, not coils. Option (c) is unrelated. Option (d) is not the primary purpose, though improved signal reception can sometimes support faster scans.
MRCP is used for the evaluation of:
A)
Renal collecting system
B)
Spleen pathology
C)
Biliary pathology
D)
Bowel pathology
MRCP stands for Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatography. It is a special MRI technique used to visualize the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts, so it is mainly used for evaluating biliary pathology. It is not used for the renal collecting system, spleen pathology, or bowel pathology.
Which of the following is a common procedure for interventional radiology?
A)
Dental filling
B)
Total hip replacement
C)
Abscess pig tail drainage
D)
Heart transplant
Interventional radiology uses image-guided minimally invasive procedures for diagnosis and treatment. A common example is pigtail catheter drainage of an abscess. Dental filling, total hip replacement, and heart transplant are not interventional radiology procedures.
Which type of embolic agent is used for a temporary occlusion, such as in the management of trauma?
A)
Metallic coils
B)
Absolute ethanol
C)
Gelatin foam (Gel foam)
D)
Cyanoacrylate glue
Gelatin foam (Gelfoam) is an absorbable embolic material and is used for temporary vascular occlusion, for example in trauma or bleeding control. It is eventually resorbed by the body. Metallic coils, cyanoacrylate glue, and absolute ethanol are used for more permanent occlusion/sclerosis rather than temporary blockage.
In an Intravenous Urogram (IVU), what is the ‘nephrogram phase’?
A)
The phase where contrast is collecting in the bladder.
B)
The phase where contrast is being excreted into the ureters.
C)
The phase where contrast is concentrated within the renal parenchyma (kidney tissue).
D)
The phase where a plain radiograph (KUB) is taken before contrast injection.
In an Intravenous Urogram (IVU), the nephrogram phase is the early phase after contrast injection when the kidneys enhance and the contrast is seen in the renal parenchyma. Option (a) describes the bladder filling phase, option (b) describes the excretory/pyelographic phase with contrast in the ureters, and option (d) refers to the preliminary KUB film taken before contrast.
What is considered an absolute contraindication for a percutaneous nephrostomy procedure?
A)
Severe obesity
B)
An uncorrectable bleeding diathesis (abnormal blood coagulation)
C)
A history of kidney stones
D)
Pregnancy
Percutaneous nephrostomy is an invasive image-guided procedure, so uncontrolled coagulation problems are an absolute contraindication because they markedly increase the risk of severe bleeding. Severe obesity is a technical difficulty, not an absolute contraindication. A history of kidney stones is actually a common indication for nephrostomy in obstructive uropathy. Pregnancy is not an absolute contraindication; it requires careful radiation minimization and risk-benefit assessment.
PACS is used to store and retrieve:
A)
Patient bills
B)
Images and reports
C)
Pharmacy records
D)
OPD records
PACS stands for Picture Archiving and Communication System. It is used in radiology to store, manage, and retrieve medical images such as X-rays, CT scans, MRI scans, along with associated reports. The other options are unrelated to PACS: patient bills are handled by billing systems, pharmacy records by pharmacy management systems, and OPD records by hospital information systems.
Patient compliance for MRI is reduced due to all EXCEPT:
A)
Claustrophobia
B)
Long scanning time
C)
Loud noise
D)
Short scanning time
Patient compliance for MRI is reduced by factors that make the procedure uncomfortable or stressful, such as claustrophobia, long scanning time, and loud noise. Short scanning time does not reduce compliance; in fact, it usually improves patient tolerance. Therefore, the EXCEPT option is short scanning time.
An important component of building MRI scanning room is:
A)
RF shielding
B)
CF shielding
C)
SF shielding
D)
HF shielding
An MRI scanner produces strong radiofrequency (RF) signals and is highly sensitive to external electromagnetic interference. Therefore, an MRI scanning room must include RF shielding to prevent outside RF noise from affecting image quality and to keep MRI emissions contained. The other options are not standard shielding terms used for MRI rooms.
Which safety zone is defined as the area where the magnetic field is strong enough to pose a significant risk to unscreened individuals and ferromagnetic objects, and from which all ferromagnetic objects must be excluded?
A)
Zone I.
B)
Zone II.
C)
Zone III.
D)
Zone IV.
MRI safety zoning is commonly divided into Zones I to IV. Zone III is the area that is under the control of MRI personnel and where the magnetic field can pose a significant risk to unscreened individuals and ferromagnetic objects. Therefore, all ferromagnetic objects must be excluded from Zone III. Zone I is unrestricted public access, Zone II is the screened interface area, and Zone IV is the magnet room itself.
Which of the following best describes a flat panel detector (FPD)?
A)
An image receptor that requires a separate cassette and reader.
B)
A device that uses a vacuum tube to convert X-rays into a visible image.
C)
A solid-state detector that directly or indirectly converts X-rays into an electrical signal.
D)
A digital imaging system that relies on a CCD camera to capture an image.
A flat panel detector (FPD) is a digital radiography image receptor made of solid-state materials. It converts incoming X-rays into electrical signals either directly (e.g., amorphous selenium) or indirectly via a scintillator (e.g., cesium iodide) that first converts X-rays to light and then to electrical signal. Option (a) describes CR systems with cassette and reader, (b) refers to image intensifier/vacuum-tube based systems, and (d) describes CCD-based imaging, which is not the standard definition of an FPD.