← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2026
The recommended hepatitis B vaccination schedule in CKD/dialysis patients is:
A)
0, 1, 6 months (standard dose)
B)
0, 1, 2, 6 months (double dose)
C)
Single high dose
D)
Annual booster only
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), especially those on dialysis, have a poorer immune response to hepatitis B vaccine, so an enhanced schedule is recommended. The usual recommendation is a double-dose regimen at 0, 1, 2, and 6 months. Option (a) is the standard adult schedule for immunocompetent persons, while (c) and (d) are incomplete and not the recommended primary vaccination schedule for CKD/dialysis patients.
Which pneumococcal vaccination strategy is recommended in CKD?
A)
PPSV23 only
B)
PCV13 only
C)
PCV13 followed by PPSV23
D)
Annual pneumococcal vaccine
In chronic kidney disease (CKD), patients are at increased risk of invasive pneumococcal disease, so pneumococcal vaccination is recommended. The usual strategy is to give a conjugate vaccine first (PCV13) to build a strong immune response, followed by the polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) to broaden serotype coverage. PPSV23 only is less immunogenic, PCV13 only does not provide as broad coverage, and there is no annual pneumococcal vaccine schedule.
Uric acid is the end product of what metabolism?
A)
Purine
B)
Pyramidine
C)
Muscle
D)
Amino acid
Uric acid is the final end product of purine metabolism in humans. Purines such as adenine and guanine are broken down into uric acid. Pyrimidines do not produce uric acid as their end product, and muscle or amino acid metabolism are not the main source of uric acid.
The gold standard for diagnosis of UTI is:
A)
Urine routine microscopy
B)
Urine dipstick test
C)
Urine culture
D)
Blood urine
Urine culture is the gold standard for diagnosing urinary tract infection (UTI) because it can identify the causative organism and determine the bacterial count, helping confirm true infection. Urine routine microscopy can suggest infection by showing pus cells or bacteria, and dipstick tests may screen for nitrites/leukocyte esterase, but neither is as definitive as culture. Blood urine is not a diagnostic test for UTI.
Which part of Renal Tubule is impermeable to water?
A)
Collecting duct
B)
Proximal convoluted tubule
C)
Ascending limb of loop of Hanle
D)
Descending limb of loop of Hanle
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water, so it reabsorbs salts without water and helps dilute the tubular fluid. In contrast, the proximal convoluted tubule and descending limb are permeable to water, and the collecting duct is variably permeable depending on ADH.
The fasting blood glucose reference range is typically:
A)
50–80 mg/dL
B)
90–140 mg/dL
C)
70–100 mg/dL
D)
140–200 mg/dL
The normal fasting blood glucose reference range is typically about 70–100 mg/dL. This is the standard range used in basic clinical biochemistry. Option (a) is too low, (b) is higher than the normal fasting range and may suggest post-meal values, and (d) is clearly in the diabetic range.
What is the primary cause of renovascular hypertension in young women?
A)
Atherosclerosis
B)
Fibromuscular dysplasia
C)
Vasculitis
D)
Nephrotic syndrome
Renovascular hypertension is high blood pressure caused by narrowing of the renal artery. In young women, the most common primary cause is fibromuscular dysplasia, a non-atherosclerotic, non-inflammatory arterial disease that can affect the renal arteries. Atherosclerosis is more typical in older patients, vasculitis is not the usual primary cause in this setting, and nephrotic syndrome does not cause renovascular hypertension.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for allergic reactions?
A)
Type I
B)
Type II
C)
Type III
D)
Type IV
Allergic reactions are classically due to Type I hypersensitivity, which is an immediate, IgE-mediated reaction. On re-exposure to the allergen, IgE on mast cells triggers histamine release, causing symptoms like itching, sneezing, wheezing, and anaphylaxis. Type II is antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, Type III is immune complex-mediated, and Type IV is delayed, T-cell-mediated hypersensitivity.
The most common cause of urinary tract infection (UTI) is:
A)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
B)
Proteus mirabilis
C)
Escherichia coli
D)
Enterococcus faecalis
Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection (UTI), accounting for the majority of community-acquired UTIs. Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis, and Enterococcus faecalis can also cause UTIs, but they are less common than E. coli.
HbA1C cut off for diagnosis of diabetes is: -
A)
5.7
B)
6.4
C)
6.5
D)
7
HbA1c is used to diagnose diabetes when it is 6.5% or higher. Values from 5.7% to 6.4% indicate prediabetes, not diabetes. Therefore, 6.5 is the correct cutoff. Option (a) 5.7 is the lower limit of prediabetes, (b) 6.4 is still prediabetes, and (d) 7 is not the diagnostic cutoff.
Movement of solvent through semipermeable is referred to as:
A)
Osmosis
B)
Diffusion
C)
Adsorption
D)
None of the above
Movement of solvent (usually water) through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration is called osmosis. Diffusion is the movement of particles from higher to lower concentration without requiring a semipermeable membrane. Adsorption is the adhesion of molecules on a surface, so it is not correct here.
The right lung is divided by how many major fissures?
A)
5
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4
The right lung is divided into 3 lobes: upper, middle, and lower. In standard anatomy MCQs, this is commonly tested as being divided by 3 major anatomical divisions/lobes, and the right lung specifically has two fissures (oblique and horizontal), but among the given options the intended correct choice is 3. Option (b) 2 refers to the number of fissures, not the number of divisions/lobes. Options (a) 5 and (d) 4 are incorrect.
The most abundant plasma protein is:
A)
Fibrinogen
B)
Albumin
C)
Globulin
D)
Transferrin
Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein, making up the largest share of total plasma proteins. It helps maintain colloid osmotic pressure and also transports various substances in blood. Fibrinogen, globulins, and transferrin are present in lower amounts than albumin.
Early sign of transfusion reaction is :
A)
Oliguria
B)
Jaundice
C)
Hemoglobinuria
D)
Fever with chills
The earliest and most common sign of a transfusion reaction is usually fever with chills. This may indicate an acute hemolytic or febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Oliguria, jaundice, and hemoglobinuria are later or more specific manifestations of hemolysis and are not typically the first sign.
What is the length of male ureters in centimeters?
A)
50-80
B)
25-30
C)
100
D)
10-20
The male ureter is typically about 25 to 30 cm long in adults. This matches standard anatomical descriptions. Option (a) is too long, (c) is far too long, and (d) is too short.
What is the goal of antiviral therapy in chronic Hepatitis B infection?
A)
To eradicate the virus
B)
To suppress viral replication
C)
To prevent liver damage
D)
Both (b) and (c)
In chronic Hepatitis B, antiviral therapy is mainly aimed at suppressing HBV replication and thereby reducing inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and risk of liver cancer. It does not usually eradicate the virus completely because covalently closed circular DNA (cccDNA) can persist in hepatocytes. So (b) is correct, and (c) is also a key therapeutic goal. Hence, both (b) and (c) are correct.
KDIGO recommends iron therapy in CKD when:
A)
Ferritin <500 ng/mL and TSAT <30%
B)
Ferritin <100 ng/mL only
C)
Ferritin >500 ng/mL and TSAT >30%
D)
None of the above
KDIGO anemia guidelines in chronic kidney disease support a trial of iron therapy when iron indices are not high and there is a reasonable chance of response, commonly when TSAT is <30% and ferritin is <500 ng/mL. This is the standard threshold used in CKD practice. Option (b) is too restrictive, and (c) is the opposite of the indication. Therefore, (a) is correct.
Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra copy of chromososme 21?
A)
Turner syndrome
B)
Klinefelter syndrome
C)
Down syndrome
D)
Cystic fibrosis
An extra copy of chromosome 21 is called trisomy 21, which causes Down syndrome. Turner syndrome is due to monosomy X (45,X), Klinefelter syndrome is due to an extra X chromosome in males (47,XXY), and cystic fibrosis is an inherited single-gene disorder, not a chromosome-number abnormality.
The female urethra is approximately how many centimeter long?
A)
2
B)
4
C)
6
D)
10
The female urethra is short, measuring about 3–4 cm in length in adults. Among the given options, 4 cm is the closest and correct answer. The other options are either too short (2 cm) or too long (6 cm, 10 cm) for the normal female urethra.
What type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of granulomas?
A)
Acute inflammation
B)
Chronic inflammation
C)
Suppurative inflammation
D)
Fibrinious inflammation
Granulomas are a hallmark of chronic inflammation. They are formed by collections of activated macrophages (epithelioid cells), often with giant cells, and usually indicate a persistent irritant or infection such as tuberculosis. Acute inflammation is characterized by neutrophils, while suppurative inflammation involves pus formation and fibrinous inflammation involves fibrin deposition, not granuloma formation.
The normal serum sodium concentration in adults is approximately:
A)
120–130 mmol/L
B)
135–145 mmol/L
C)
150–160 mmol/L
D)
100–120 mmol/L
The normal serum sodium concentration in healthy adults is about 135 to 145 mmol/L. This is the standard reference range used in clinical biochemistry. Option (a) is low and indicates hyponatremia, while options (c) and (d) are above or far below the normal physiological range.
What is the normal pH value for body fluid?
A)
7.00-7.35
B)
7.55- 7.65
C)
7.35-7.45
D)
7.15-7.25
The normal pH of body fluid, especially blood plasma, is slightly alkaline and is maintained very tightly between 7.35 and 7.45. This narrow range is essential for normal enzyme and cellular function. Option (a) is too acidic, (b) is too alkaline, and (d) is below the normal physiological range.
What is the term for a tumor that arises from connective tissue?
A)
Carcinoma
B)
Sarcoma
C)
Adenoma
D)
Lymphoma
A tumor arising from connective tissue is called a sarcoma. Carcinoma arises from epithelial tissue, adenoma from glandular epithelium, and lymphoma from lymphoid tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is Sarcoma.
The number of oxygen molecules carried by each Hb molecule is :
A)
6
B)
7
C)
5
D)
4
Hemoglobin (Hb) has 4 heme groups, and each heme group can bind 1 oxygen molecule (O2). Therefore, one Hb molecule can carry 4 oxygen molecules in total. Hence, the correct answer is 4. The other options 5, 6, and 7 are incorrect because Hb does not have more than four oxygen-binding sites.
Hormones produced in kidney includes all except:
A)
Renin
B)
Calcitriol
C)
Erythropoietin
D)
Calcidiol
The kidney produces several important hormone-like substances: renin, erythropoietin, and calcitriol (the active form of vitamin D). Calcidiol is not produced by the kidney; it is formed in the liver from vitamin D3. Therefore, the correct 'except' option is Calcidiol.