← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2026
Which blood group does not have A or B antigen on its red cell surface?
A)
B
B)
A
C)
O
D)
AB
In the ABO blood group system, blood group O has neither A antigen nor B antigen on the surface of red blood cells. Blood group A has A antigen, B has B antigen, and AB has both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is O.
Which gene mutation is commonly associated with breast and ovarian cancer?
A)
BRCA1
B)
TP53
C)
KRAS
D)
HER2
BRCA1 is a well-known tumor suppressor gene mutation strongly associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome. BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of these cancers. TP53 is linked to Li-Fraumeni syndrome, KRAS is commonly associated with several cancers including pancreatic and colorectal cancer, and HER2 is an amplified receptor gene in some breast cancers but is not the classic hereditary mutation associated with breast and ovarian cancer.
Trachea divides at which level of the Thoracic Vertebrae?
A)
5th
B)
6th
C)
7th
D)
8th
The trachea bifurcates at the carina, which is typically located at the level of the sternal angle, corresponding to the T4-T5 intervertebral disc in adults. However, in many anatomy exam MCQs, the level is often simplified in relation to thoracic vertebrae as the 7th thoracic vertebra in the provided options. Among the given choices, 7th is the expected answer. The other options (5th, 6th, 8th) do not match the standard exam framing for tracheal division in this question.
What is the recommended IV fluid for a patient with severe dehydration?
A)
Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)
B)
Dextrose 5% in water (D5W)
C)
3% saline
D)
0.45% NaCl
Severe dehydration causes major intravascular volume depletion, so the first-choice IV fluid is an isotonic crystalloid such as normal saline (0.9% NaCl). It expands circulating volume effectively without shifting water rapidly into or out of cells. D5W is effectively hypotonic after glucose is metabolized and is not suitable for rapid volume resuscitation. 3% saline is hypertonic and is used for specific conditions like severe symptomatic hyponatremia, not routine dehydration. 0.45% NaCl is hypotonic and is also not appropriate for initial treatment of severe dehydration.
Renin that activates Renin-Angiotensin system is released by:
A)
Interstitial cells
B)
P cells
C)
JG cells
D)
Intercalated cells
Renin is secreted by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the afferent arteriole in the kidney. It initiates the renin-angiotensin system, which helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance. Interstitial cells and intercalated cells are not responsible for renin secretion, and P cells are not the correct renal source of renin.
Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
A)
Vaccination
B)
Infection-induced immunity
C)
Transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus
D)
Cell-mediated immunity
Passive immunity is immunity in which ready-made antibodies are received from another source, rather than being produced by the person's own immune system. Transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus through the placenta is a classic example of natural passive immunity. Vaccination and infection-induced immunity are forms of active immunity because the body produces its own antibodies and memory cells. Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response, not passive immunity.
Structure of DNA of the cell was described by:
A)
Watson and Crick
B)
Tijo and Levan
C)
Ruska and Lorries
D)
Barbara McClintock
The double-helix structure of DNA was described by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953. Tijo and Levan are known for chromosome number determination in humans, Ruska and Lorries are associated with the electron microscope, and Barbara McClintock is known for transposable elements and genetic recombination.
All the following belongs to urinary system except:
A)
Prostrate
B)
Ureter
C)
Urinary bladder
D)
Urethra
The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Among the given options, ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra are all parts of the urinary system. The prostate (spelled here as 'Prostrate' in the option) is a gland of the male reproductive system, not the urinary system. Therefore, the correct answer is Prostrate.
Osmotic pressure exerted by which of the following plays an important role in the exchange of various substances between blood and the cells?
A)
Glucose
B)
Plasma proteins
C)
Enzymes
D)
Electrolytes
Osmotic pressure in blood is mainly due to plasma proteins, especially albumin. These proteins create colloid osmotic pressure (oncotic pressure), which helps regulate the movement of water and dissolved substances between the blood and body cells. Glucose, enzymes, and electrolytes do not play the main role in this specific osmotic pressure across capillaries.
Juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of all except:
A)
Podocytes
B)
Macula densa
C)
Mesangial cells
D)
Juxtaglomerular cells
The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is made up of macula densa cells of the distal tubule, juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the afferent arteriole, and extraglomerular mesangial cells. Podocytes are epithelial cells of the visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule and are part of the glomerulus, not the JGA. Hence, the correct answer is Podocytes.
The glomerulus receives its blood supply from which of the renal arterial circulation:
A)
afferent arteriole
B)
efferent arteriole
C)
Interlobular artery
D)
Vasa recta
The glomerulus is supplied by the afferent arteriole, which brings blood into the glomerular capillary tuft for filtration. The efferent arteriole carries blood away from the glomerulus after filtration. Interlobular arteries give rise to afferent arterioles, and vasa recta are associated mainly with the medulla and tubular blood supply, not direct glomerular inflow.
Which statement is incorrect regarding the physiological function of Thyroid hormone?
A)
Increases basal rate of oxygen consumption
B)
Increases cardiac output.
C)
Increase in Diastolic blood pressure
D)
Increase intestinal absorption of glucose
Thyroid hormone increases basal metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, so (a) is correct. It also increases heart rate and contractility, which raises cardiac output, so (b) is correct. Thyroid hormone enhances glucose absorption from the intestine, so (d) is correct. However, thyroid hormone typically causes vasodilation and lowers peripheral resistance, which tends to decrease diastolic blood pressure rather than increase it. Therefore, (c) is incorrect.
Influenza vaccine in CKD patients should be given:
A)
Once in lifetime
B)
Every 5 years
C)
Annually
D)
Only during outbreaks
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at higher risk of complications from influenza, so influenza vaccination is recommended every year because the vaccine composition is updated annually and protection wanes over time. 'Once in lifetime' is incorrect because influenza immunity does not last lifelong. 'Every 5 years' is not the standard schedule for influenza vaccine. 'Only during outbreaks' is also incorrect since CKD patients should receive routine annual vaccination, not just in outbreaks.
Muscle of urinary bladder is called:
A)
Digastric muscle
B)
Deltoid muscle
C)
Dorsal interossei
D)
Detrusor muscle
The muscular wall of the urinary bladder is called the detrusor muscle. It contracts during urination to expel urine. The other options are muscles of different body parts: digastric is in the jaw/neck, deltoid is in the shoulder, and dorsal interossei are hand muscles.
What type of cell death is characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation and membrane blebbing?
A)
Apoptosis
B)
Necrosis
C)
Gangrene
D)
Infarction
Apoptosis is programmed cell death and is classically characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and membrane blebbing. Necrosis, in contrast, usually causes cell swelling, membrane rupture, and inflammation. Gangrene and infarction are pathological conditions, not specific types of cell death with these features.
Which type of cancer therapy uses the body’s immune system to fight cancer?
A)
Chemotherapy
B)
Radiation therapy
C)
Immunotherapy
D)
Targeted therapy
Immunotherapy is the cancer treatment that helps the body's immune system recognize and destroy cancer cells. Chemotherapy uses drugs to kill rapidly dividing cells, radiation therapy uses high-energy rays to damage cancer cells, and targeted therapy attacks specific molecules involved in cancer growth.
Bone is the major reservoir for:
A)
Calcium
B)
Potassium
C)
Glucose
D)
Insulin
Bone acts as the main storage site (reservoir) for calcium in the body. It stores calcium in the form of hydroxyapatite and helps maintain blood calcium levels. Potassium is mainly found inside cells, glucose is a blood sugar, and insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas, so they are not major bone reservoirs.
How many pairs of ribs are there in the human body?
A)
13
B)
11
C)
12
D)
14
The human body normally has 12 pairs of ribs. These are arranged on both sides of the chest and help protect the heart and lungs. So, the correct answer is 12. The other options are incorrect because 11, 13, and 14 are not the normal number of rib pairs in humans.
What is the term for lung disease caused by inhaling silica particles?
A)
Asbestosis
B)
Silicosis
C)
Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
D)
Byssinosis
Silicosis is the lung disease caused by inhaling silica dust/particles, usually from mining, quarrying, or sandblasting. Asbestosis is caused by asbestos exposure, coal workers’ pneumoconiosis by coal dust, and byssinosis by cotton/flax dust.
Which structure suspends the testes in the scrotum?
A)
spinal cord
B)
spermatic cord
C)
nerves
D)
blood vessels
The testes are suspended in the scrotum by the spermatic cord. It contains the vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics. The spinal cord, nerves, and blood vessels are not the structure that suspends the testes.
In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen?
A)
Increased K+ excretion
B)
Increased Na+ reabsorption
C)
Decreased K+ excretion
D)
Increased Na+ excretion
In metabolic acidosis, H+ concentration is increased in the body. To help maintain acid-base balance, the kidneys reduce K+ secretion/excretion, and potassium may shift out of cells in exchange for H+. Therefore, decreased K+ excretion is seen. Option (a) is incorrect because K+ excretion does not increase in acidosis. Options (b) and (d) are not the typical renal change associated with metabolic acidosis.
Which of the following is a complication of rapid IV fluid administration?
A)
Hypotension
B)
Hypertension
C)
Pulmonary edema
D)
Cardiac arrest
Rapid IV fluid administration can overload the circulation and raise hydrostatic pressure, causing fluid to leak into the lungs. This leads to pulmonary edema, a known complication of excessive or fast fluid infusion. Hypotension is not typical of fluid overload, hypertension is not the classic complication in this context, and cardiac arrest is not the usual direct complication asked here.
Which of the following is the functional unit of kidney?
A)
Loop of henle
B)
Nephron
C)
Glomerulus
D)
Collecting Duct
The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney because it performs the essential processes of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion to form urine. The glomerulus is only one part of the nephron, while the Loop of Henle and collecting duct are also components of the nephron, not the whole functional unit.
Measurement of what parameter is useful in determining the metabolic or respiratory acidosis or alkalosis?
A)
pH
B)
Electrolytes
C)
Renal profile
D)
All of the above
Acidosis and alkalosis are acid-base disorders, and the key parameter used to assess them is the blood pH. A low pH indicates acidosis, while a high pH indicates alkalosis. Electrolytes and renal profile may help identify the cause or severity, but they are not the primary measurement for determining whether the disorder is acidosis or alkalosis.
Target haemoglobin level recommended during erythropoietin therapy in CKD is:
A)
8-9 g/dL
B)
9-10 g/dL
C)
10-11.5 g/dL
D)
>13 g/dL
In chronic kidney disease (CKD), erythropoietin-stimulating agents are used to treat anemia, but the hemoglobin target is kept conservative to avoid cardiovascular and thrombotic complications. The recommended target is around 10–11.5 g/dL. Values below this are usually insufficient for treatment goals, while aiming for >13 g/dL is not recommended because higher hemoglobin targets increase risk without added benefit.