← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions
An induced ovulator among the following is _______.
A)
bovine
B)
canine
C)
ovine
D)
feline
In animal physiology, ovulation is categorized based on the trigger that causes the release of the ovum from the follicle.
1. **Induced Ovulators**: These are animals where the act of mating (coitus) or specific tactile stimulation of the vagina/cervix triggers a neuroendocrine reflex. This reflex sends signals to the hypothalamus, causing a surge of GnRH, which leads to an LH (Luteinizing Hormone) surge and subsequent ovulation. Examples include cats (felines), rabbits, and camels.
2. **Spontaneous Ovulators**: These are animals where ovulation occurs regularly as part of the estrous cycle, regardless of whether mating occurs.
Evaluating the options:
- **a. Bovine (Cattle)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **b. Canine (Dogs)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **c. Ovine (Sheep)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **d. Feline (Cats)**: Induced ovulators. Without mating or stimulation, a queen cat will typically not ovulate.
Tarsorrhaphy refers to suturing of _______.
A)
eye ball
B)
tarsal gland
C)
eyelid
D)
tendon
Tarsorrhaphy is a surgical procedure where the upper and lower eyelids are sewn together (partially or completely). The term is derived from 'tarsus' (referring to the tarsal plate of the eyelid) and 'rhaphy' (meaning suturing). It is typically performed to protect the cornea from exposure, treat severe eyelid malpositions, or allow the eye to heal after surgery.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Eye ball: Suturing the eyeball itself is generally referred to as a scleral or corneal suture, not tarsorrhaphy.
- b. Tarsal gland: These are meibomian glands located within the tarsal plate; they are not the target of a suturing procedure called tarsorrhaphy.
- d. Tendon: Suturing a tendon is called tenorrhaphy.
Damage to _______ nerve causes roaring in equines.
A)
recurrent laryngeal
B)
glossopharyngeal
C)
vagus
D)
accessory
In equines, 'roaring' is the clinical manifestation of Laryngeal Hemiplegia. This condition occurs due to the paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle, which is responsible for abducting (opening) the arytenoid cartilages of the larynx during inspiration. This muscle is innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve (a branch of the vagus nerve). When this nerve is damaged or compressed, the arytenoid cartilage fails to abduct and instead collapses into the airway during heavy breathing, creating a characteristic snoring or 'roaring' sound.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Glossopharyngeal nerve: Primarily involved in taste and sensation of the posterior third of the tongue and pharynx.
- c. Vagus nerve: While the recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus, the specific damage causing roaring is localized to the recurrent laryngeal branch. Selecting 'vagus' is too general, as damage to the main trunk of the vagus would cause systemic autonomic failure rather than isolated laryngeal hemiplegia.
- d. Accessory nerve: Primarily innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck.
The rate of fluid administration of isotonic crystalloid fluids during hypovolemic shock in dogs is _______.
A)
10-20 mL/kg/hr
B)
40 mL/kg/hr
C)
90 mL/kg/hr
D)
60 mL/kg/hr
In veterinary emergency medicine, specifically for the management of hypovolemic shock in dogs, the standard approach for 'shock-dose' fluid therapy using isotonic crystalloids involves calculating the total shock volume and administering it over a specific timeframe. The standard shock dose for a dog is approximately 80-90 mL/kg. In an acute shock scenario, the goal is to restore perfusion rapidly. While the total volume is 90 mL/kg, the initial 'bolus' or rapid administration rate often targets a significant portion of this volume quickly. According to standard veterinary anesthesia and emergency manuals (such as the AAHA or Merck Veterinary Manual), the calculated shock rate for isotonic crystalloids in dogs is typically cited as 90 mL/kg (total shock volume), and when administered as a rapid infusion to stabilize a patient in hypovolemic shock, the target rate is often aligned with this volume calculation. Options a, b, and d represent maintenance or mild dehydration rates, whereas 90 mL/kg/hr (or the total shock volume of 90 mL/kg) is the recognized benchmark for aggressive shock resuscitation in canines.
The dose rate of vincristine for the management of canine transmissible veneral tumor is _______.
A)
0.25 mg/kg
B)
0.025 mg/kg
C)
2.5 mg/kg
D)
25 mg/kg
Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid used in veterinary oncology for the treatment of various neoplasms, including Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor (TVT). The standard therapeutic dose for vincristine in dogs is typically administered as a single intravenous injection every 2 to 3 weeks. The established clinical dose rate is 0.025 mg/kg (or 0.025 mg/kg body weight).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 0.25 mg/kg is 10 times the therapeutic dose and would likely cause severe neurotoxicity.
- Option (b) 0.025 mg/kg is the standard pharmacological dose used in veterinary medicine for TVT.
- Option (c) 2.5 mg/kg and Option (d) 25 mg/kg are lethal doses and far exceed the safety profile of this potent cytotoxic agent.
A non-selective H1 anti-histamine among the following is _______.
A)
Chlorpheniramine
B)
Promethazine
C)
Cetirizine
D)
Diphenhydramine
H1 anti-histamines are divided into two main generations: First-generation (non-selective) and Second-generation (selective).
1. First-generation H1 blockers (Non-selective): These drugs cross the blood-brain barrier and lack selectivity, meaning they also block muscarinic, alpha-adrenergic, and serotonergic receptors. This leads to side effects like sedation and dry mouth. Examples include Diphenhydramine, Promethazine, and Chlorpheniramine.
2. Second-generation H1 blockers (Selective): These are more selective for peripheral H1 receptors and do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier, resulting in significantly less sedation. Examples include Cetirizine, Loratadine, and Fexofenadine.
Analysis of options:
- Cetirizine (c) is a second-generation selective H1 blocker.
- Chlorpheniramine (a), Promethazine (b), and Diphenhydramine (d) are all first-generation non-selective blockers.
However, in standard pharmacology textbooks (such as K.D. Tripathi), Diphenhydramine is often cited as the prototypical first-generation, non-selective H1 antagonist. While a, b, and d are all technically non-selective, in the context of multiple-choice questions for medical exams, Diphenhydramine is the most classic example of a non-selective H1 blocker. Note: If the question allows for multiple correct answers, a, b, and d would fit, but as a single-choice question, Diphenhydramine is the gold standard representative of this class.
Radiographic confirmation of pregnancy in bitch is possible as early as _______.
A)
20-25 days of gestation
B)
55-60 days of gestation
C)
42-45 days of gestation
D)
10-20 days of gestation
In canine pregnancy diagnostics, radiography is used to identify fetal skeletons. For fetal skeletons to be visible on an X-ray, the fetal bones must have undergone sufficient mineralization (ossification). In the bitch, the mineralization of the fetal skeleton typically begins around day 35-40, but it becomes radiographically apparent and reliable for confirmation and fetal counting between 42 and 45 days of gestation.
- Option (a) 20-25 days: Too early; fetal skeletons are not yet mineralized. Ultrasound is the preferred method for this stage.
- Option (b) 55-60 days: While pregnancy is clearly visible here, this is late in the gestation period (which averages 63 days) and not the 'earliest' possible time for confirmation.
- Option (d) 10-20 days: Far too early for any radiographic detection; the embryos are not yet developed enough to be seen on X-ray.
The highest concentration of inositol is found in the semen of _______.
A)
bull
B)
boar
C)
ram
D)
buck
In andrology and livestock reproduction, the composition of seminal plasma varies significantly between species. Inositol is a sugar alcohol (polyol) that serves as an energy source and osmotic regulator for spermatozoa. Among the domestic animals listed, the boar (Sus scrofa) is characterized by having exceptionally high concentrations of inositol in its semen compared to bulls, rams, or bucks. This high concentration is a distinctive biochemical marker of boar seminal plasma and is thought to play a role in the survival and maturation of boar sperm during the transit through the female reproductive tract. In contrast, bulls and rams have lower levels of inositol, relying more on other substrates like fructose for energy.
_______ is a nuclear sperm defect.
A)
Distal droplet
B)
Cork screw sperm
C)
Diadem sperm
D)
Dag’s defect
In andrology and veterinary reproductive science, sperm defects are categorized based on the part of the sperm affected: the head (nuclear), the midpiece, or the tail.
1. **Diadem sperm (Option c):** This is a classic nuclear (head) defect. It is characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cytoplasmic material or a 'crown-like' structure around the head of the sperm, often associated with failures in spermiogenesis (the process where spermatids transform into mature spermatozoa). Because it involves the morphology of the head/nucleus region, it is classified as a nuclear defect.
2. **Distal droplet (Option a):** This is a cytoplasmic defect. A droplet is a remnant of cytoplasm that fails to be shed during sperm maturation in the epididymis. A distal droplet is located further down the tail, not in the nucleus.
3. **Cork screw sperm (Option b):** This is a tail/flagellar defect. It refers to the abnormal twisting or spiraling of the sperm tail, affecting motility rather than the nucleus.
4. **Dag’s defect (Option d):** This typically refers to specific midpiece or structural abnormalities (often seen in specific livestock breeds) rather than a primary nuclear defect.
Therefore, among the given options, the Diadem sperm is the one specifically categorized as a nuclear/head defect.
Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) test is done for _______ nerve.
A)
trochlear
B)
vestibulocochlear
C)
facial
D)
occulomotor
The Brainstem Auditory Evoked Response (BAER), also known as the Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potential (BAEP), is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the electrical activity of the auditory pathway. It specifically measures the response of the vestibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) and the brainstem pathways from the inner ear to the auditory cortex.
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The test involves delivering sound clicks through earphones.
2. Electrodes placed on the scalp record the electrical signals generated by the auditory nerve and brainstem in response to these sounds.
3. Since the vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for transmitting sound and balance information from the inner ear to the brain, it is the primary nerve being tested.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Trochlear nerve (CN IV): Controls superior oblique muscle of the eye (eye movement).
- c. Facial nerve (CN VII): Controls muscles of facial expression and taste (anterior 2/3 of tongue).
- d. Oculomotor nerve (CN III): Controls most eye movements and pupil constriction.
Write the etiology, pathophysiology and management of acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) in dogs.
Define wound and give its classification, and describe process, factors affecting, and complications of wound healing.
Write the etio-pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment and prevention of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) in pigs.
Foetal membrane in which the earliest blood forming cells appear is _______.
A)
amnion
B)
yolk sac
C)
chorion
D)
allantois
In vertebrate embryology, the process of blood formation is called hematopoiesis. The earliest blood-forming cells (hemangioblasts) appear in the mesoderm of the yolk sac. This initial stage is known as 'primitive hematopoiesis,' where blood islands form within the wall of the yolk sac to produce the first red blood cells and blood vessels before the hematopoietic function shifts to the liver, spleen, and eventually the bone marrow.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Amnion: This is a protective membrane that surrounds the embryo in amniotic fluid; it does not serve as a site for early blood formation.
- c. Chorion: This is the outermost membrane that contributes to the formation of the placenta for nutrient and gas exchange.
- d. Allantois: This membrane is primarily involved in waste disposal and gas exchange (and contributes to the umbilical cord), but it is not the primary site for the earliest blood cells.
N-acetylcysteine is an anti-dote for _______ toxicity.
A)
Acetaminophen
B)
Ivermectin
C)
Xylazine
D)
Warfarin
N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the gold-standard antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicity. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver; a small portion is converted into a highly reactive and toxic metabolite called NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine). Under normal conditions, NAPQI is neutralized by glutathione. In an overdose, glutathione stores are depleted, leading to NAPQI causing massive hepatic necrosis. N-acetylcysteine acts by replenishing glutathione stores and directly binding to NAPQI, thereby preventing liver damage.
Regarding the other options:
- Ivermectin toxicity is typically managed with supportive care (e.g., GABA receptor modulation or sedation).
- Xylazine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist; its toxicity is managed with supportive care or specific alpha-2 antagonists like Yohimbine.
- Warfarin toxicity (excessive anticoagulation) is treated with Vitamin K or Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC).
Crazy chick disease in poultry is caused due to the deficiency of _______.
A)
Vitamin D
B)
Vitamin A
C)
Thiamine
D)
Vitamin E
Crazy chick disease, also known as polyneuritis, is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in poultry. Thiamine is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and the proper functioning of the nervous system. A deficiency leads to neurological symptoms, including ataxia, tremors, twisting of the neck (opisthotonos), and convulsions, which gives the disease its common name 'Crazy Chick Disease'.
Analysis of other options:
- Vitamin D deficiency typically leads to Rickets in young birds or Osteomalacia in adults, affecting bone mineralization.
- Vitamin A deficiency leads to issues like Curvaceousness (twisted neck) or Xerophthalmia (eye issues), but not the acute neurological 'crazy' symptoms associated with B1.
- Vitamin E deficiency is associated with 'Crazy Chick Disease' in some contexts (Encephalomalacia), but in standard veterinary nutrition and competitive exams for poultry, 'Crazy Chick Disease' specifically refers to the Thiamine (B1) deficiency causing polyneuritis.
The major vector for African swine fever in pigs is _______.
A)
Culex
B)
Stomoxys
C)
Culicoides
D)
Ornithodorous
African Swine Fever (ASF) is caused by a large DNA virus (Asfarviridae). While the virus is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected pigs or contaminated materials, soft ticks of the genus Ornithodorous act as important biological vectors. These ticks can maintain the virus in nature and transmit it to pigs during blood meals, playing a critical role in the epidemiology of the disease in endemic regions.
Analysis of other options:
- a. Culex: A genus of mosquitoes primarily known for transmitting diseases like West Nile virus or lymphatic filariasis, not ASF.
- b. Stomoxys: Stable flies that can act as mechanical vectors for some blood-borne pathogens, but they are not the major biological vector for ASF.
- c. Culicoides: Biting midges, which are the primary vectors for Bluetongue virus and Schmallenberg virus, not ASF.
Histologic classification of placenta of pig is _______.
A)
haemochorial
B)
syndesmochorial
C)
haemoendothelial
D)
epitheliochorial
The histologic classification of the placenta is based on the number of tissue layers separating the maternal blood from the fetal blood. In the pig (Sus scrofa), the placenta is classified as epitheliochorial. In this type, the fetal chorion remains completely separate from the maternal uterine epithelium; the maternal uterine epithelium remains intact, and the chorionic epithelium simply rests against it.
Breakdown of options:
- a. Haemochorial: The maternal blood comes into direct contact with the chorion (e.g., humans, primates).
- b. Syndesmochorial: A variation where the uterine epithelium is partially eroded (e.g., ruminants/sheep).
- c. Haemoendothelial: The most invasive type where maternal blood is in direct contact with the fetal endothelium (e.g., rabbits, rodents).
- d. Epitheliochorial: The least invasive type where all six layers (maternal endothelium, maternal connective tissue, maternal epithelium, fetal epithelium, fetal connective tissue, and fetal endothelium) are present. This is characteristic of pigs and horses.
Phalangeal exostosis is known as _______.
A)
splint bone
B)
spavin
C)
ring bone
D)
side bone
Phalangeal exostosis refers to the formation of new bone (bony growths) on the phalanges (the bones of the digit/toe). In veterinary orthopaedics, specifically in horses, this condition is known as 'ring bone'. It can occur at the proximal interphalangeal joint (high ring bone) or the distal interphalangeal joint (low ring bone).
Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- a. Splint bone: These are the metacarpal/metatarsal splint bones, which are naturally occurring small bones alongside the cannon bone, not an exostosis of the phalanges.
- b. Spavin: This refers to bony growths or osteoarthritis in the hock joint (tarsus), not the phalanges.
- d. Side bone: This is a bony growth on the solar surface of the distal phalanx (coffin bone), but 'ring bone' is the more general and standard term for phalangeal exostosis affecting the joints of the digit.
Lumpy skin disease in cattle is caused by _______.
A)
Parapox virus
B)
Capripox virus
C)
Herpes virus
D)
Vaccinia virus
Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) is a highly contagious viral disease of cattle caused by the Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus Capripoxvirus within the family Poxviridae.
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Capripox virus (Option b):** This genus includes three closely related viruses: Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV), Sheep Pox virus, and Goat Pox virus. These viruses cause similar systemic diseases characterized by skin nodules in cattle, sheep, and goats respectively. Therefore, this is the correct answer.
2. **Parapox virus (Option a):** These viruses cause conditions like Orf (contagious ecthyma) in sheep and goats or Pseudocowpox in cattle, but they do not cause the systemic 'lumpy' nodules characteristic of LSD.
3. **Herpes virus (Option c):** Herpesviruses cause a wide range of diseases (e.g., Bovine Herpesvirus-1 causes Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis), but they are structurally and genetically distinct from the Poxviridae family and do not cause LSD.
4. **Vaccinia virus (Option d):** This is a complex poxvirus used historically for vaccination against smallpox; it is not the causative agent of Lumpy Skin Disease in cattle.
Largest sinus in the head of horse is _______.
A)
Sphenoid sinus
B)
Palantine sinus
C)
Frontal sinus
D)
Maxillary sinus
In the equine head, the paranasal sinuses are a complex system of air-filled cavities. The maxillary sinus is the largest of these cavities. It is located in the maxillary bone and communicates with the nasal cavity via the nasomaxillary opening. While the frontal sinus is also significant in size, the maxillary sinus typically occupies the greatest volume within the skull of the horse. The sphenoid and palatine sinuses are considerably smaller in comparison. Therefore, based on equine anatomy, the maxillary sinus is the largest.
A cholinergic drug that is used for the management of ruminal atony is _______.
A)
Methacholine
B)
Acetylcholine
C)
Carbachol
D)
Nor-adrenaline
Ruminal atony (stasis) is a condition where the motility of the rumen is diminished or absent, often requiring the administration of parasympathomimetics (cholinergic drugs) to stimulate muscle contraction and restore motility.
1. **Carbachol (Option c):** This is a potent, synthetic cholinergic agonist that is resistant to hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase. Because of its stability and ability to stimulate muscarinic receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, it is clinically used in veterinary medicine to treat ruminal atony and other forms of GI stasis.
2. **Methacholine (Option a):** While a cholinergic agonist, it is primarily used in diagnostic tests (like the bronchial challenge test) rather than for the therapeutic management of ruminal atony.
3. **Acetylcholine (Option b):** This is the natural neurotransmitter. It is not used therapeutically for this condition because it is extremely rapidly degraded by acetylcholinesterase in the blood and tissues, making it ineffective as a systemic drug.
4. **Nor-adrenaline (Option d):** This is a sympathomimetic (adrenergic) drug. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system generally inhibits gastrointestinal motility, which would worsen ruminal atony rather than treat it.
‘Bull Nose’ in pigs is caused by _______ spp.
A)
Haemophilus
B)
Clostridium
C)
Fusobacterium
D)
Bacillus
‘Bull Nose’ in pigs, also known as Necrobacillosis or Fusobacterium necrosis, is a severe necrotic infection of the nasal cavity and surrounding tissues. It is primarily caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum, a Gram-negative, anaerobic, non-motile bacterium. The condition is characterized by the death of the nasal mucosa and cartilage, leading to a characteristic swelling and deformation of the snout that resembles a bull's nose.
Analysis of other options:
- a. Haemophilus: While some species cause respiratory issues (like Atrophic Rhinitis in pigs), they do not cause the specific necrotic 'Bull Nose' condition.
- b. Clostridium: These are anaerobic bacteria that cause diseases like Tetanus, Botulism, or Blackleg, but not Bull Nose.
- d. Bacillus: These are aerobic or facultative anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Bacillus anthracis causing Anthrax) and are not the causative agents of this specific nasal necrosis.
_______ (species) is generally considered as resistant to foot and mouth disease.
A)
Ovine
C)
Equine
D)
Swine
Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) is a highly contagious viral disease caused by the Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus (FMDV), a member of the Picornaviridae family. It primarily affects cloven-hoofed animals (Artiodactyla).
1. **Ovine (Sheep):** These are cloven-hoofed animals and are highly susceptible to FMD.
2. **Swine (Pigs):** These are cloven-hoofed animals and are highly susceptible to FMD; they often act as amplifiers for the virus.
3. **Equine (Horses/Donkeys):** Horses belong to the order Perissodactyla (odd-toed ungulates). They are naturally resistant to the FMD virus and do not develop the clinical disease, although they can act as mechanical carriers of the virus on their hooves or skin.
Therefore, among the given options, Equine is the species considered resistant to FMD.
Testicular descent occurs at last quarter of foetal life in _______.
A)
boar
B)
ram
C)
buck
D)
stallion
Testicular descent is a complex process involving two phases: the transabdominal phase and the inguinoscrotal phase. The timing of this descent varies significantly across domestic species. In the stallion (horse), the testes remain in the abdominal cavity for a large portion of gestation and only undergo the final inguinoscrotal descent during the last quarter of fetal life. In contrast, in boars, rams, and bulls, the descent typically occurs earlier in the fetal development process. Specifically, in the stallion, the descent into the scrotum is a late-gestation event, making 'stallion' the correct answer for this specific embryological timeline.