← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2025
Crazy chick disease in poultry is caused due to the deficiency of _______.
A)
Vitamin D
B)
Vitamin A
C)
Thiamine
D)
Vitamin E
Crazy chick disease, also known as polyneuritis, is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in poultry. Thiamine is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and the proper functioning of the nervous system. A deficiency leads to neurological symptoms, including ataxia, tremors, twisting of the neck (opisthotonos), and convulsions, which gives the disease its common name 'Crazy Chick Disease'.
Analysis of other options:
- Vitamin D deficiency typically leads to Rickets in young birds or Osteomalacia in adults, affecting bone mineralization.
- Vitamin A deficiency leads to issues like Curvaceousness (twisted neck) or Xerophthalmia (eye issues), but not the acute neurological 'crazy' symptoms associated with B1.
- Vitamin E deficiency is associated with 'Crazy Chick Disease' in some contexts (Encephalomalacia), but in standard veterinary nutrition and competitive exams for poultry, 'Crazy Chick Disease' specifically refers to the Thiamine (B1) deficiency causing polyneuritis.
Ovulation in cattle occurs during _______.
A)
proestrus
B)
estrus
C)
metestrus
D)
diestrus
In cattle (cows), the estrous cycle is divided into four stages: proestrus, estrus, metestrus, and diestrus. While 'estrus' is the period of sexual receptivity (heat), ovulation actually occurs after the period of heat has ended. Specifically, in cattle, ovulation occurs during the early stage of metestrus, typically 10 to 15 hours after the end of estrus.
Breakdown of options:
- a. Proestrus: The period of follicular growth and increasing estrogen levels leading up to heat.
- b. Estrus: The period of behavioral heat/receptivity; however, the egg is not released until this phase concludes.
- c. Metestrus: The transition phase where ovulation occurs and the corpus luteum begins to form.
- d. Diestrus: The longest phase, dominated by progesterone from the corpus luteum to maintain a potential pregnancy.
The most potent local anaesthetic among the following is _______.
A)
lidocaine
B)
procaine
C)
bupivacaine
D)
prilocaine
Potency of local anesthetics is primarily determined by their lipid solubility. The more lipid-soluble a drug is, the more easily it can penetrate the nerve sheath and the cell membrane, resulting in higher potency. Among the options provided:
1. Bupivacaine is highly lipid-soluble, making it one of the most potent and longest-acting local anesthetics available. It is significantly more potent than lidocaine.
2. Lidocaine is an intermediate-potency, medium-duration anesthetic used widely for its fast onset.
3. Procaine is an ester-type anesthetic with low lipid solubility, making it one of the least potent local anesthetics.
4. Prilocaine is similar in potency to lidocaine but generally less potent than bupivacaine.
Therefore, bupivacaine is the most potent of the listed options.
_______ is the best incision site for removing foetus from uterus during caesarean section in dogs.
A)
Body of uterus
B)
Tip of uterine horn
C)
Centre of uterine horn
D)
Cervix
In canine caesarean sections (C-sections), the goal is to remove the fetuses with minimal trauma to the uterus and the pups, while ensuring the incision can be closed securely.
1. **Centre of uterine horn (Correct):** The uterine horns in dogs are bicornuate. The center of the horn is generally the most accessible area, providing a wide enough space to deliver the fetuses safely. It avoids the highly vascularized areas near the body and the narrower, more fragile tips of the horns.
2. **Body of uterus (Incorrect):** Incising the uterine body is generally avoided because it is a critical area for structural integrity and is often more difficult to close securely without risking stenosis or leakage.
3. **Tip of uterine horn (Incorrect):** The tips of the horns are often too narrow, and making an incision here increases the risk of tearing the uterine wall or failing to provide a large enough opening for the fetuses to pass through easily.
4. **Cervix (Incorrect):** The cervix is a thick, muscular sphincter. Incising the cervix is surgically contraindicated during a C-section as it would cause severe trauma and compromise the reproductive tract's future functionality.
Weaver finch feather test is done for _______.
A)
luteinizing hormone
B)
progesterone
C)
follicle stimulating hormone
D)
prolactin
The Weaver finch feather test is a biological assay used to measure the concentration of prolactin in a sample. In Weaver finches (Ploceus species), prolactin is the primary hormone responsible for the development of the 'crop patch' (a brood patch)—a featherless area of skin on the breast that is highly vascularized to facilitate heat transfer to eggs. When prolactin is administered or present in high levels, it causes the regression of feathers in this specific area. Therefore, by observing the degree of feather loss in the crop patch of a Weaver finch, researchers can quantify the amount of prolactin in the tested substance.
Other options are incorrect because:
- Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) are gonadotropins involved in reproductive cycle regulation and gametogenesis, not feather regression.
- Progesterone is a steroid hormone involved in maintaining pregnancy and the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, not the induction of brood patches.
Castration cells are present in _______.
A)
testes
B)
anterior pituitary
C)
hypothalamus
D)
uterus
Castration cells are specialized gonadotroph cells located in the anterior pituitary gland. They are named 'castration cells' because they undergo hypertrophy (increase in size) and hyperplasia (increase in number) following the removal of the gonads (castration). This occurs because the negative feedback loop—where sex steroids (testosterone or estrogen) inhibit the release of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone (GnRH) and gonadotropins—is broken. In the absence of these steroids, the anterior pituitary increases the production and secretion of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH) to compensate, leading to the enlargement of these specific cells.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Testes: These are the target organs for the hormones produced by castration cells, not the location of the cells themselves.
- c. Hypothalamus: While the hypothalamus regulates the pituitary via GnRH, the specific cells that hypertrophy in response to castration are located in the pituitary.
- d. Uterus: This is a reproductive organ and does not contain endocrine cells that respond to castration in this manner.
The foramen magnum is present in _______ bone.
A)
occipital
B)
parietal
C)
temporal
D)
frontal
The foramen magnum (Latin for 'great hole') is the largest opening in the skull. It is located in the occipital bone, which forms the posterior and inferior part of the cranium. This opening serves as the critical passage through which the medulla oblongata (the lower part of the brainstem) connects to the spinal cord.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Parietal bone: These are paired bones that form the bulk of the roof and sides of the cranium; they do not contain any large foramina for the spinal cord.
- c. Temporal bone: These bones form the sides and base of the skull (around the ears) and contain smaller openings like the carotid canal and jugular foramen, but not the foramen magnum.
- d. Frontal bone: This bone forms the forehead and the upper part of the eye sockets; it is located at the anterior part of the skull, far from the connection point of the spinal cord.
Scythe-shaped spleen is present in _______.
A)
dog
B)
pig
C)
horse
D)
ox
In veterinary anatomy, the morphology of the spleen varies significantly across species. The spleen of the horse is uniquely characterized as being elongated and curved, resembling a scythe (a curved blade used for cutting crops), which is why it is termed 'scythe-shaped'. In contrast, the spleen in the dog is typically more oval or tongue-shaped; in the pig, it is elongated but more ribbon-like or strap-shaped; and in the ox (cattle), it is generally oval or elliptical. Therefore, the specific description 'scythe-shaped' is a classic anatomical identifier for the equine spleen.
The highest concentration of inositol is found in the semen of _______.
A)
bull
B)
boar
C)
ram
D)
buck
In andrology and livestock reproduction, the composition of seminal plasma varies significantly between species. Inositol is a sugar alcohol (polyol) that serves as an energy source and osmotic regulator for spermatozoa. Among the domestic animals listed, the boar (Sus scrofa) is characterized by having exceptionally high concentrations of inositol in its semen compared to bulls, rams, or bucks. This high concentration is a distinctive biochemical marker of boar seminal plasma and is thought to play a role in the survival and maturation of boar sperm during the transit through the female reproductive tract. In contrast, bulls and rams have lower levels of inositol, relying more on other substrates like fructose for energy.
A non-selective H1 anti-histamine among the following is _______.
A)
Chlorpheniramine
B)
Promethazine
C)
Cetirizine
D)
Diphenhydramine
H1 anti-histamines are divided into two main generations: First-generation (non-selective) and Second-generation (selective).
1. First-generation H1 blockers (Non-selective): These drugs cross the blood-brain barrier and lack selectivity, meaning they also block muscarinic, alpha-adrenergic, and serotonergic receptors. This leads to side effects like sedation and dry mouth. Examples include Diphenhydramine, Promethazine, and Chlorpheniramine.
2. Second-generation H1 blockers (Selective): These are more selective for peripheral H1 receptors and do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier, resulting in significantly less sedation. Examples include Cetirizine, Loratadine, and Fexofenadine.
Analysis of options:
- Cetirizine (c) is a second-generation selective H1 blocker.
- Chlorpheniramine (a), Promethazine (b), and Diphenhydramine (d) are all first-generation non-selective blockers.
However, in standard pharmacology textbooks (such as K.D. Tripathi), Diphenhydramine is often cited as the prototypical first-generation, non-selective H1 antagonist. While a, b, and d are all technically non-selective, in the context of multiple-choice questions for medical exams, Diphenhydramine is the most classic example of a non-selective H1 blocker. Note: If the question allows for multiple correct answers, a, b, and d would fit, but as a single-choice question, Diphenhydramine is the gold standard representative of this class.
Enzootic ataxia in sheep is mainly noticed in _______.
A)
Weaned lambs
B)
Unweaned lambs
C)
Adult animals
D)
Pregnant animals
Enzootic ataxia, also known as 'staggers' in sheep, is a degenerative neurological disease of the spinal cord caused by a deficiency of copper (Cu). The disease typically manifests in lambs between 3 to 6 months of age. This specific age range corresponds to the period after they have been weaned from their mothers' milk, as they no longer receive the copper transferred via colostrum and milk, and the pasture they graze on is copper-deficient. The deficiency leads to the degeneration of the posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord, resulting in characteristic ataxia (uncoordinated movement). Adult animals and pregnant animals are generally not the primary group affected by the clinical signs of this specific deficiency, and unweaned lambs are protected by maternal antibodies and nutrients provided through milk.
Radiographic confirmation of pregnancy in bitch is possible as early as _______.
A)
20-25 days of gestation
B)
55-60 days of gestation
C)
42-45 days of gestation
D)
10-20 days of gestation
In canine pregnancy diagnostics, radiography is used to identify fetal skeletons. For fetal skeletons to be visible on an X-ray, the fetal bones must have undergone sufficient mineralization (ossification). In the bitch, the mineralization of the fetal skeleton typically begins around day 35-40, but it becomes radiographically apparent and reliable for confirmation and fetal counting between 42 and 45 days of gestation.
- Option (a) 20-25 days: Too early; fetal skeletons are not yet mineralized. Ultrasound is the preferred method for this stage.
- Option (b) 55-60 days: While pregnancy is clearly visible here, this is late in the gestation period (which averages 63 days) and not the 'earliest' possible time for confirmation.
- Option (d) 10-20 days: Far too early for any radiographic detection; the embryos are not yet developed enough to be seen on X-ray.
_______ pin is used most frequently in veterinary orthopaedics.
A)
Sherman
B)
Threaded
C)
Steinman
D)
Rush
In veterinary orthopaedics, the Steinman pin is the most frequently used pin for skeletal fixation. These are smooth, stainless steel pins used for various purposes, including as temporary fixation during surgery, for percutaneous pinning of fractures, or as part of external skeletal fixation.
Reasoning for other options:
- Sherman pins are not a standard classification of orthopedic pins used in veterinary medicine.
- Threaded pins (like Herbert screws) are used for specific applications (like joint compression) but are not as 'frequently' used as the versatile Steinman pin.
- Rush pins are actually intramedullary nails (not simple pins) used for stabilizing long bone fractures; while common, they are a specific type of implant rather than the general-purpose pin used most frequently across all orthopedic procedures.
_______ is considered as gold standard treatment for urethral obstruction in Veterinary case.
A)
Perineal urethrostomy
B)
Tube cystotomy
C)
Urethrotomy
D)
Urinary bladder marsupialisation
In veterinary medicine, particularly in male cats and dogs, urethral obstruction (often due to urethroliths or plug formation) requires a permanent solution if medical management fails or if the obstruction is recurrent.
1. **Perineal Urethrostomy (PU)**: This is considered the gold standard surgical treatment for chronic or recurrent urethral obstruction. It involves creating a permanent wide opening between the urethra and the perineum, effectively bypassing the narrowest part of the urethra (the penile urethra) to prevent future blockages.
2. **Tube Cystotomy**: This is a temporary measure where a tube is placed in the bladder to allow drainage. It is not a definitive treatment for urethral obstruction.
3. **Urethrotomy**: This involves an incision into the urethra to remove a stone. While it solves the immediate problem, it does not prevent recurrence and often leads to strictures, making it inferior to PU for long-term management.
4. **Urinary Bladder Marsupialisation**: This is the creation of a permanent opening of the bladder to the skin (usually on the ventral abdomen). This is a salvage procedure used only when PU is not possible or has failed, as it carries a high risk of ascending urinary tract infections and leakage.
Describe etiology and classification of fracture along with fracture healing process and various methods of immobilization.
The rate of fluid administration of isotonic crystalloid fluids during hypovolemic shock in dogs is _______.
A)
10-20 mL/kg/hr
B)
40 mL/kg/hr
C)
90 mL/kg/hr
D)
60 mL/kg/hr
In veterinary emergency medicine, specifically for the management of hypovolemic shock in dogs, the standard approach for 'shock-dose' fluid therapy using isotonic crystalloids involves calculating the total shock volume and administering it over a specific timeframe. The standard shock dose for a dog is approximately 80-90 mL/kg. In an acute shock scenario, the goal is to restore perfusion rapidly. While the total volume is 90 mL/kg, the initial 'bolus' or rapid administration rate often targets a significant portion of this volume quickly. According to standard veterinary anesthesia and emergency manuals (such as the AAHA or Merck Veterinary Manual), the calculated shock rate for isotonic crystalloids in dogs is typically cited as 90 mL/kg (total shock volume), and when administered as a rapid infusion to stabilize a patient in hypovolemic shock, the target rate is often aligned with this volume calculation. Options a, b, and d represent maintenance or mild dehydration rates, whereas 90 mL/kg/hr (or the total shock volume of 90 mL/kg) is the recognized benchmark for aggressive shock resuscitation in canines.
The dose rate of vincristine for the management of canine transmissible veneral tumor is _______.
A)
0.25 mg/kg
B)
0.025 mg/kg
C)
2.5 mg/kg
D)
25 mg/kg
Vincristine is a vinca alkaloid used in veterinary oncology for the treatment of various neoplasms, including Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor (TVT). The standard therapeutic dose for vincristine in dogs is typically administered as a single intravenous injection every 2 to 3 weeks. The established clinical dose rate is 0.025 mg/kg (or 0.025 mg/kg body weight).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 0.25 mg/kg is 10 times the therapeutic dose and would likely cause severe neurotoxicity.
- Option (b) 0.025 mg/kg is the standard pharmacological dose used in veterinary medicine for TVT.
- Option (c) 2.5 mg/kg and Option (d) 25 mg/kg are lethal doses and far exceed the safety profile of this potent cytotoxic agent.
Traumatic suture needles are used for suturing _______.
A)
oesophagus
B)
rumen
C)
peritoneum
D)
skin and fascia
In veterinary and general surgery, suture needles are categorized based on their point design and the type of tissue they are intended to penetrate. Traumatic needles (also known as cutting or reverse-cutting needles) have a triangular cross-section with a sharp cutting edge. This design allows them to slice through tough, dense, and fibrous tissues that would resist a round-bodied needle. Skin and fascia are dense connective tissues that require this cutting action to allow the needle to pass through without tearing the surrounding tissue. In contrast, non-traumatic (tapered) needles are used for delicate or friable organs like the oesophagus, rumen, or peritoneum, where the goal is to push the tissue aside rather than cut through it to prevent leakage or excessive bleeding.
_______ is a nuclear sperm defect.
A)
Distal droplet
B)
Cork screw sperm
C)
Diadem sperm
D)
Dag’s defect
In andrology and veterinary reproductive science, sperm defects are categorized based on the part of the sperm affected: the head (nuclear), the midpiece, or the tail.
1. **Diadem sperm (Option c):** This is a classic nuclear (head) defect. It is characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cytoplasmic material or a 'crown-like' structure around the head of the sperm, often associated with failures in spermiogenesis (the process where spermatids transform into mature spermatozoa). Because it involves the morphology of the head/nucleus region, it is classified as a nuclear defect.
2. **Distal droplet (Option a):** This is a cytoplasmic defect. A droplet is a remnant of cytoplasm that fails to be shed during sperm maturation in the epididymis. A distal droplet is located further down the tail, not in the nucleus.
3. **Cork screw sperm (Option b):** This is a tail/flagellar defect. It refers to the abnormal twisting or spiraling of the sperm tail, affecting motility rather than the nucleus.
4. **Dag’s defect (Option d):** This typically refers to specific midpiece or structural abnormalities (often seen in specific livestock breeds) rather than a primary nuclear defect.
Therefore, among the given options, the Diadem sperm is the one specifically categorized as a nuclear/head defect.
An induced ovulator among the following is _______.
A)
bovine
B)
canine
C)
ovine
D)
feline
In animal physiology, ovulation is categorized based on the trigger that causes the release of the ovum from the follicle.
1. **Induced Ovulators**: These are animals where the act of mating (coitus) or specific tactile stimulation of the vagina/cervix triggers a neuroendocrine reflex. This reflex sends signals to the hypothalamus, causing a surge of GnRH, which leads to an LH (Luteinizing Hormone) surge and subsequent ovulation. Examples include cats (felines), rabbits, and camels.
2. **Spontaneous Ovulators**: These are animals where ovulation occurs regularly as part of the estrous cycle, regardless of whether mating occurs.
Evaluating the options:
- **a. Bovine (Cattle)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **b. Canine (Dogs)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **c. Ovine (Sheep)**: Spontaneous ovulators.
- **d. Feline (Cats)**: Induced ovulators. Without mating or stimulation, a queen cat will typically not ovulate.
Tarsorrhaphy refers to suturing of _______.
A)
eye ball
B)
tarsal gland
C)
eyelid
D)
tendon
Tarsorrhaphy is a surgical procedure where the upper and lower eyelids are sewn together (partially or completely). The term is derived from 'tarsus' (referring to the tarsal plate of the eyelid) and 'rhaphy' (meaning suturing). It is typically performed to protect the cornea from exposure, treat severe eyelid malpositions, or allow the eye to heal after surgery.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Eye ball: Suturing the eyeball itself is generally referred to as a scleral or corneal suture, not tarsorrhaphy.
- b. Tarsal gland: These are meibomian glands located within the tarsal plate; they are not the target of a suturing procedure called tarsorrhaphy.
- d. Tendon: Suturing a tendon is called tenorrhaphy.
‘Papple shaped abdomen’ in bovines is a characteristic of _______.
A)
abomasal displacement
B)
vagus indigestion
C)
ruminal impaction
D)
tympany
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. 'Apple-shaped abdomen' (often referred to as a 'pear-shaped' or 'apple-shaped' appearance) in bovines is a classic clinical sign of Vagus Indigestion. 2. Vagus indigestion occurs due to damage to the vagus nerve, leading to a failure of the abomasum to empty its contents (gastric stasis). 3. This results in the accumulation of food and fluid in the abomasum, causing it to distend significantly. 4. Because the abomasum is located on the right side of the abdominal cavity, this distension causes a characteristic bulging or 'apple-shaped' appearance of the right flank. 5. Comparing other options: (a) Abomasal displacement usually causes a localized bulge or shift rather than a generalized 'apple shape'; (c) Ruminal impaction causes distension of the left paralumbar fossa; (d) Tympany (bloat) causes severe distension of the left side of the abdomen due to gas accumulation in the rumen.
FAMACHA score card is used for the management of _______ infection in sheep and goats.
A)
Haemonchus
B)
Capillaria
C)
Ostertagia
D)
Trichostrongylus
The FAMACHA score card is a diagnostic tool used specifically to identify anemia in sheep and goats, which is a primary clinical sign of infection by Haemonchus contortus (the Barber's Pole worm). Haemonchus is a blood-feeding nematode that attaches to the mucosal lining of the abomasum, leading to significant blood loss and subsequent anemia. The FAMACHA system involves assessing the color of the ocular mucous membranes (conjunctiva); a pale membrane indicates severe anemia and a high parasite burden, signaling the need for anthelmintic treatment. This targeted selective treatment (TST) helps reduce the development of anthelmintic resistance.
Other options are incorrect because:
- Capillaria (and other lungworms/intestinal worms) typically cause respiratory or digestive distress rather than severe blood-loss anemia.
- Ostertagia (Brown stomach worm) primarily causes protein loss and digestive dysfunction (gastritis) rather than the acute anemia characteristic of Haemonchus.
- Trichostrongylus causes scouring (diarrhea) and weight loss, but not the profound anemia that the FAMACHA card is designed to detect.
Damage to _______ nerve causes roaring in equines.
A)
recurrent laryngeal
B)
glossopharyngeal
C)
vagus
D)
accessory
In equines, 'roaring' is the clinical manifestation of Laryngeal Hemiplegia. This condition occurs due to the paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle, which is responsible for abducting (opening) the arytenoid cartilages of the larynx during inspiration. This muscle is innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve (a branch of the vagus nerve). When this nerve is damaged or compressed, the arytenoid cartilage fails to abduct and instead collapses into the airway during heavy breathing, creating a characteristic snoring or 'roaring' sound.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Glossopharyngeal nerve: Primarily involved in taste and sensation of the posterior third of the tongue and pharynx.
- c. Vagus nerve: While the recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus, the specific damage causing roaring is localized to the recurrent laryngeal branch. Selecting 'vagus' is too general, as damage to the main trunk of the vagus would cause systemic autonomic failure rather than isolated laryngeal hemiplegia.
- d. Accessory nerve: Primarily innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck.
Tapetum lucidum of eye is associated with _______.
A)
cornea
B)
scelera
C)
iris
D)
choroid
The tapetum lucidum is a reflective layer found in the eyes of many vertebrates (especially nocturnal animals). Anatomically, it is located within the choroid, which is the vascular layer of the eye situated between the retina and the sclera. Its primary function is to reflect light that has passed through the retina back onto the photoreceptors, thereby increasing the sensitivity of the eye in low-light conditions.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Cornea: This is the transparent front part of the eye that refracts light; it does not contain reflective layers.
- b. Sclera: This is the tough, white outer protective layer of the eye. While the choroid is attached to it, the tapetum lucidum is specifically a modification of the choroid.
- c. Iris: This is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil to regulate light entry; it is not involved in the reflective properties of the tapetum lucidum.