← Combined Technical (NG)
Past Questions — 2026
When should a new consent form be completed for a repeat radiology procedure?
A)
When the patient expresses any confusion about the procedure.
B)
If any new or changed risks are identified.
C)
For every follow-up appointment.
D)
Never, a single signed form is valid for all future procedures.
A new consent form should be obtained when the repeat radiology procedure involves any new information that could affect the patient's decision, especially new or changed risks. Consent must reflect the current procedure and current risks, so an earlier form may not be sufficient. Option (a) may prompt further explanation, but confusion alone is not the rule for needing a new form. Option (c) is too broad because not every follow-up appointment needs fresh consent. Option (d) is incorrect because consent is not automatically valid for all future procedures.
The outermost meningeal layer is the:
A)
Arachnoid
B)
Pia mater
C)
Dura mater
D)
Tentorium
The meninges are the three protective layers around the brain and spinal cord: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The outermost layer is the dura mater, which is tough and fibrous. Arachnoid is the middle layer, pia mater is the innermost layer, and tentorium is a dural fold, not a meningeal layer.
The carpal bones are___________ in number.
A)
6
B)
7
C)
8
D)
9
The carpal bones are the small bones of the wrist, and there are 8 in each hand. They are arranged in two rows of four bones each. So the correct answer is 8. Options 6, 7, and 9 are incorrect because the standard anatomical number of carpal bones is eight.
What is the most effective shielding accessory for protecting the operator’s thyroid during a fluoroscopy procedure?
A)
Lead apron
B)
Lead glasses
C)
Lead thyroid collar
D)
Ceiling-suspended shield
The thyroid is best protected by a dedicated lead thyroid collar, which is designed specifically to shield the neck and thyroid region from scattered radiation during fluoroscopy. A lead apron protects the torso, lead glasses protect the eyes, and a ceiling-suspended shield mainly reduces exposure to the head and upper body but does not provide the most direct thyroid protection.
The spine has____________ number of vertebrae:
A)
32
B)
33
C)
34
D)
35
The human spine is made up of 33 vertebrae in total: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused), and 4 coccygeal (fused). Therefore, the correct answer is 33. The other options 32, 34, and 35 are incorrect.
Which part of the respiratory system is also known as the “voice box”?
A)
Pharynx
B)
Trachea
C)
Bronchioles
D)
Larynx
The larynx is called the "voice box" because it contains the vocal cords and is responsible for sound production. The pharynx is the throat passage, the trachea is the windpipe, and bronchioles are smaller air passages in the lungs.
What do the two numbers in a blood pressure reading, like 120/80 mmHg, represent?
A)
Systolic pressure / Diastolic pressure
B)
Diastolic pressure / Systolic pressure
C)
Arterial pressure / Venous pressure
D)
Heart rate / Stroke volume
A blood pressure reading has two values. The first number (e.g., 120) is the systolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts. The second number (e.g., 80) is the diastolic pressure, which is the pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes between beats. So 120/80 mmHg means systolic pressure / diastolic pressure. The other options are incorrect because blood pressure is not given as diastolic/systolic, arterial/venous, or heart rate/stroke volume.
The main arterial supply to the lower limb is a continuation of which artery?
A)
Common iliac artery
B)
Internal iliac artery
C)
External iliac artery
D)
Common femoral artery
The main arterial supply to the lower limb is the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery after it passes beneath the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the artery from which the lower limb arterial supply continues is the external iliac artery. Common iliac artery divides into internal and external iliac arteries, internal iliac supplies the pelvis, and common femoral artery is actually the continuation of the external iliac artery, not the source.
The best view for patella is:
A)
AP knee
B)
Lateral knee
C)
Skyline [tangential] view
D)
Oblique knee
The patella is best demonstrated on the skyline (tangential/sunrise/merchant) view because this projection shows the patellofemoral joint and the articular surface of the patella clearly. AP knee and lateral knee are routine views, but they do not show the patella as optimally. Oblique knee is useful for other joint-space or bone detail, not the best for patella.
All X-ray machines have three principal parts. These are the:
A)
Control console, high-voltage generator, and X-ray tube.
B)
Filament circuit, rectifier, and timer.
C)
Anode, cathode, and glass envelope.
D)
Step-up transformer, step-down transformer, and autotransformer.
An X-ray machine is commonly described as having three principal parts: (1) the control console, which allows the operator to set exposure factors; (2) the high-voltage generator, which provides the electrical power needed to produce X-rays; and (3) the X-ray tube, where X-rays are actually produced. The other options list only subcomponents or transformer parts, not the three main parts of the machine.
The K-edge energy /absorption energy of Iodine is:
A)
33keV
B)
33K
C)
33KV
D)
33eV
The K-edge (absorption edge) of iodine is about 33 keV. This is the photon energy required to eject a K-shell electron from iodine, after which absorption rises sharply. The other options are incorrect because K-edge is an energy value in keV, not K (Kelvin), KV (voltage), or eV (too small by a factor of 1000).
The shaft of a long bone is known as the:
A)
Epiphysis
B)
Diaphysis
C)
Periosteum
D)
Medullary cavity
The shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis. The epiphysis refers to the ends of the bone, the periosteum is the outer covering of the bone, and the medullary cavity is the hollow space inside the shaft that contains bone marrow.
The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at the level of which cervical vertebra?
A)
C1
B)
C4
C)
C7
D)
C3
The common carotid artery typically bifurcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, which corresponds to the C4 vertebral level. Option (b) is therefore correct. C1, C3, and C7 are not the usual anatomical level of bifurcation.
The SA node is located in the:
A)
Left atrium
B)
Right atrium
C)
Interventricular septum
D)
Left ventricle
The SA (sinoatrial) node is the natural pacemaker of the heart and is located in the right atrium, near the opening of the superior vena cava. It initiates the electrical impulse that spreads through the atria. The left atrium, interventricular septum, and left ventricle do not contain the SA node.
Hypertension is defined as BP more than:
A)
110/70
B)
130/80
C)
140/90
D)
150/100
Hypertension is classically defined as blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90 mmHg in standard exam context. Among the given options, 140/90 is the accepted threshold. 110/70 and 130/80 are normal or prehypertensive/raised levels in some newer classifications, while 150/100 is too high and not the standard definition.
The thyroid gland consists of two lobes with:
A)
Frenulum
B)
Uvula
C)
Isthmus
D)
Hilum
The thyroid gland has two lateral lobes, which are connected in the middle by a narrow band of tissue called the isthmus. Frenulum and uvula are parts of the mouth/throat, and hilum is a term used for the point of entry/exit of vessels in organs like the kidney or lymph nodes, not the thyroid connection.
The anatomical term that means ‘closer to the point of attachment’ is:
A)
Lateral
B)
Distal
C)
Proximal
D)
Inferior
In anatomy, **proximal** means nearer to the point of attachment or nearer to the trunk of the body. For example, the elbow is proximal to the wrist.
- **Lateral** means away from the midline.
- **Distal** means farther from the point of attachment.
- **Inferior** means lower or below another structure.
Therefore, the correct answer is **Proximal**.
The largest sesamoid bone in the human body is the:
A)
Pisiform
B)
Patella
C)
Hyoid
D)
Calcaneus
The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body. Sesamoid bones develop within tendons, and the patella is embedded in the quadriceps tendon. Pisiform is also a sesamoid bone but much smaller. Hyoid is not a sesamoid bone, and calcaneus is the heel bone, not a sesamoid bone.
Why is good personal and community hygiene crucial for preventing disease outbreaks?
A)
It improves a community’s economic status.
B)
It strengthens individual immunity alone.
C)
It stops the cycle of disease transmission from one person to another and throughout the environment.
D)
It makes it easier to track disease patterns.
Good personal and community hygiene helps prevent the spread of infectious agents by breaking the chain of transmission. Clean hands, safe sanitation, proper waste disposal, and hygienic surroundings reduce how germs move from person to person and via the environment. Option (a) is unrelated, (b) is incorrect because hygiene does not strengthen immunity alone, and (d) may help surveillance but is not the main reason hygiene prevents outbreaks.
The term used to describe a structure located closer to the midline of the body is:
A)
Lateral
B)
Proximal
C)
Medial
D)
Distal
In anatomical terminology, a structure closer to the midline of the body is called **medial**.
- **Lateral** means farther from the midline.
- **Proximal** means nearer to the point of attachment or origin.
- **Distal** means farther from the point of attachment or origin.
Therefore, the correct answer is **(c) Medial**.
Spermatogenesis (sperm production) occurs in the:
A)
Prostate gland
B)
Epididymis
C)
Vas deferens
D)
Seminiferous tubules
Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperm cells, and it takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. The prostate gland adds fluid to semen, the epididymis stores and matures sperm, and the vas deferens transports sperm.
Haemodialysis is a medical procedure used to treat patients with kidney failure by:
A)
Filtering the blood artificially to remove waste products.
B)
Transplanting a new kidney.
C)
Reabsorbing excess urea.
D)
Increasing the patient’s blood pressure.
Haemodialysis is an artificial blood-cleaning process used in kidney failure. It removes waste products, excess salts, and extra water from the blood using a dialyser. Option (b) is kidney transplantation, not dialysis. Option (c) is incorrect because dialysis removes urea rather than reabsorbing it. Option (d) is unrelated to the purpose of haemodialysis.
Hyperbilirubinemia causes:
A)
Hypothermia
B)
Hyperthermia
C)
Pallor
D)
Jaundice
Hyperbilirubinemia means an increased level of bilirubin in the blood. Excess bilirubin deposits in tissues, especially the skin and sclera, producing jaundice (yellow discoloration). The other options are not the typical direct result of hyperbilirubinemia.
The triangular area on the floor of the urinary bladder formed by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the:
A)
Renal pelvis
B)
Trigone
C)
Detrusor
D)
Fundus
The triangular area on the floor of the urinary bladder formed by the two ureteric openings and the internal urethral opening is called the trigone.
- Renal pelvis is part of the kidney, not the bladder.
- Detrusor is the muscular wall of the bladder.
- Fundus refers to a rounded base or upper part of an organ, not this triangular area.
The enzymatic digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth with the action of which enzyme?
A)
Pepsin
B)
Pancreatic lipase
C)
Salivary amylase
D)
Trypsin
Carbohydrate digestion starts in the mouth, where saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase (also called ptyalin). It begins breaking down starch into simpler sugars. Pepsin digests proteins in the stomach, pancreatic lipase digests fats, and trypsin digests proteins in the small intestine.