Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
According to Article 141, the law declared by the Supreme Court of India is:
A)
Binding only on the Parliament
B)
Not binding on lower courts
C)
Binding on all courts within the territory of India
D)
Binding only on High Courts
Option C is correct: Binding on all courts within the territory of India.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 67 states that if service cannot be affected as provided in Sections 64-66, the serving officer must:
A)
Destroy the summons
B)
Affix one of the duplicates to a conspicuous part of the house where the person resides
C)
Hand it to a neighbour
D)
Return the summons to the Court
Option B is correct: Affix one of the duplicates to a conspicuous part of the house where the person resides.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What is a “cognizable offence” as per Section 2?
A)
An offence investigated by the Supreme Court
B)
An offence for which a police officer may arrest without warrant
C)
An offence punishable with fine only
D)
An offence tried by Civil Courts
Option B is correct: An offence for which a police officer may arrest without warrant.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 521, when can a court take cognizance after the period of limitation?
A)
Never
B)
If delay is properly explained or necessary in the interests of justice
C)
Only with permission of the High Court
D)
Only for bailable offences
Option B is correct: If delay is properly explained or necessary in the interests of justice.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What does Article 50 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
A)
Uniform civil code
B)
Abolition of titles
C)
Separation of judiciary from executive
D)
Freedom of trade
Option C is correct: Separation of judiciary from executive.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
If a charge is altered under Section 239, who must be allowed to recall witnesses?
A)
Only the Judge
B)
Police
C)
Prosecutor and the accused
D)
None of the above
Option C is correct: Prosecutor and the accused.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which landmark case expanded the scope of Article 21 to include the right to privacy?
A)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B)
Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C)
Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D)
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
Option D is correct: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What does Section 64(2) require regarding personal service of summons?
A)
Service by email only
B)
Service by public notice
C)
Service personally by delivering or tendering one of the duplicates to the person summoned
D)
Service by publishing in newspapers
Option C is correct: Service personally by delivering or tendering one of the duplicates to the person summoned.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Article 309 is found in which part of the Constitution of India?
A)
Part III (Fundamental Rights)
B)
Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)
C)
Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States)
D)
Part X (The Scheduled and Tribal Areas)
Option C is correct: Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States).
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 482, a person accused of a non-bailable offence may be released on bail except when:
A)
The offence is bailable
B)
There are reasonable grounds to believe he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment
C)
The accused is a woman
D)
The accused is over 60 years
Option B is correct: There are reasonable grounds to believe he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 483 requires the accused to execute a bond to appear before which Court?
A)
The Magistrate only
B)
The next Appellate Court
C)
The Supreme Court
D)
The District Court
Option B is correct: The next Appellate Court.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 239, who may alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced?
A)
Only the High Court
B)
The Court trying the case
C)
The Public Prosecutor
D)
The Police
Option B is correct: The Court trying the case.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Article 20(2) of the Indian Constitution protects individuals against which of the following?
A)
Arbitrary detention
B)
Retrospective taxation
C)
Being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
D)
Denial of legal counsel
Option C is correct: Being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 480 provides that bail must be taken in which type of cases?
A)
Only non-bailable offences
B)
Any person other than accused of a non-bailable offence arrested without warrant
C)
Only cases triable by High Court
D)
None of the above
Option B is correct: Any person other than accused of a non-bailable offence arrested without warrant.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The term “house-trespass” as per Section 332 means:
A)
Entering any property
B)
Entering a house to commit an offence
C)
Entering public land
D)
Remaining in a building as a guest
Option B is correct: Entering a house to commit an offence.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which of the following is a protection for civil servants under Article 311?
A)
Protection from transfer
B)
Protection from suspension
C)
Protection from dismissal by a subordinate authority
D)
Protection from salary reduction
Option C is correct: Protection from dismissal by a subordinate authority.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which protection is guaranteed by Article 20 (3) of the Indian Constitution?
A)
Right to equality
B)
Right against double jeopardy
C)
Right against self-incrimination
D)
Right to constitutional remedies
Option C is correct: Right against self-incrimination.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 521 BNSS, who has the authority to condone the delay in filing a complaint after the prescribed limitation period?
A)
The Police Officer
B)
The Magistrate
C)
The Public Prosecutor
D)
The Complainant
Option B is correct: The Magistrate.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which of the following is a safeguard provided under Article 22?
A)
Right to form associations
B)
Right to free legal aid in civil cases
C)
Right to be informed of grounds of arrest
D)
Right to privacy
Option C is correct: Right to be informed of grounds of arrest.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 100 of CrPc talk about-
A)
Arrest by Magistrate.
B)
Power of police officer to seize certain property.
C)
A person in charge of close place to allow search
D)
Reciprocal arrangements regarding processes.
Option C is correct: A person in charge of close place to allow search.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
As per section 190 (2), The Chief Judicial Magistrate may empower any Magistrate of the ________ to take cognizance under Sub-Section (1) of such offences as are within his competence to inquire into or try.
A)
First class
B)
Second class
C)
First class & Second Class
D)
First class with executive magistrate
Option C is correct: First class & Second Class.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Whoever, knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed, gives any information respecting that offence which he knows or believes to be false, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may________.
A)
extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
B)
extend to five years, or with fine, or with both.
C)
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
D)
extend to two years and with fine
Option C is correct: extend to two years, or with fine, or with both..
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Any person who, without reasonable cause, refuses or neglects to attend and witness a search under section 100, when called upon to do so by an order in writing delivered or tendered to him, shall be deemed to have committed an offence under ________ of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
A)
Section 188
B)
Section 189
C)
section 187
D)
Section 190
Option C is correct: section 187.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which of the following is an exception to the requirement of an inquiry before dismissal under Article 311?
A)
The employee is involved in corruption
B)
It is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry, and the reason is recorded in writing
C)
The employee has been suspended
D)
The employee has been promoted
Option B is correct: It is not reasonably practicable to hold an inquiry, and the reason is recorded in writing.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Report of Police Officer on completion of investigation is given under ________.
A)
Section 172
B)
Section 173
C)
Section 174
D)
Section 175
Option B is correct: Section 173.
