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Past Questions
The minimum vertical reinforcement in RCC tank shall be ___________ for deformed bars of the concrete area of the section under consideration.
A)
0.1 %
B)
0.25 %
C)
0.8 %
D)
1 %
In the design of reinforced concrete (RCC) water tanks, minimum reinforcement is provided to control cracking caused by temperature changes and shrinkage, as water-tightness is a critical requirement. According to standard codes of practice for liquid retaining structures (such as IS 3370), the minimum reinforcement for deformed bars (high-strength deformed bars) is specified to ensure structural integrity and crack control. For deformed bars, the minimum reinforcement is typically 0.25% of the cross-sectional area of the concrete. If smooth round bars were used, the requirement would be higher (typically 0.3%). Therefore, option (b) is the correct technical specification for deformed bars in RCC tanks.
The quantity of surface water depends mainly upon:
A)
Permeability of soil
B)
Rainfall
C)
Snow
D)
Climate change
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Surface water refers to water that collects on the ground surface, including rivers, lakes, streams, and runoff. 2. The primary source of input for the hydrological cycle on land is precipitation. 3. Among the given options, rainfall is the most direct and primary source of water that feeds surface water bodies. 4. While 'Permeability of soil' (Option a) determines how much of that rainfall becomes surface runoff versus infiltration, it does not provide the water itself. 5. 'Snow' (Option c) is a form of precipitation, but rainfall is the more general and dominant driver of surface water quantity globally. 6. 'Climate change' (Option d) is a long-term driver that affects patterns of rainfall, but it is not the immediate source of the water quantity. Therefore, the quantity of surface water depends mainly upon the amount of rainfall received in a catchment area.
The maximum permissible shear stress is given in IS : 456-2000 is based on:
A)
Diagonal tension failure
B)
Diagonal compression failure
C)
Flexural tension failure
D)
Uniaxial compression
In reinforced concrete beams, shear forces create principal stresses. The combination of shear stress and longitudinal bending stress results in principal tensile stresses acting diagonally (typically at 45 degrees to the beam axis). Since concrete is weak in tension, it cracks perpendicular to these principal tensile stresses, leading to 'diagonal tension' cracks. IS 456:2000 defines the maximum permissible shear stress ($ au_{c,max}$) to ensure that the concrete does not fail by crushing of the 'compression struts' formed between the diagonal cracks, but the fundamental mechanism that governs the need for shear reinforcement and the limit of shear capacity in RCC is the prevention of diagonal tension failure. Specifically, the limit $ au_{c,max}$ is set to prevent the concrete from crushing in the compression zone (diagonal compression), but the overall shear design philosophy in IS 456 is based on the fact that shear failure in beams is essentially a diagonal tension failure.
The weight of footings is assumed as ___________ of the weight transferred to the column.
A)
5 %
B)
10 %
C)
15 %
D)
20 %
In foundation engineering, when calculating the total load acting on the soil (the bearing pressure), the total load consists of the dead load and live load transferred from the column plus the self-weight of the footing and the weight of the soil overburden resting on the footing. Since the exact dimensions and volume of the footing are often not finalized during the preliminary design phase, a standard empirical value is used to account for the self-weight of the concrete footing and the soil above it. It is a widely accepted engineering convention to assume the weight of the footing and the soil surcharge to be approximately 10% of the axial load transferred from the column. This provides a reasonable safety margin for the bearing capacity calculations without requiring iterative calculations for every minor change in footing size.
For large sewers , the maximum distance between manholes should be:
A)
75 m
B)
100 m
C)
200 m
D)
300 m
In environmental engineering and sewage system design, manholes are provided at regular intervals to allow for inspection, cleaning, and removal of obstructions. The spacing of manholes depends primarily on the diameter of the sewer pipe. For small sewers (typically diameters up to 600mm or 900mm), the spacing is shorter (often 30m to 100m). However, for large sewers (trunk sewers or intercepting sewers), the distance can be increased because they are less prone to frequent localized blockages and are often constructed with materials and gradients that facilitate easier flow. According to standard engineering practice and various municipal codes (such as CPHEEO manuals), the maximum distance between manholes for large sewers is generally taken as 300 meters. Options a, b, and c are typical spacings for smaller diameter lateral or branch sewers.
The natural processed in which the oxygen of water of streams is consumed by sewage and at the same time, it is replenish by the atmosphere this process is known as:
A)
Oxidation
B)
Deoxidation
C)
Self purification
D)
Sedimentation
The process described is known as 'Self Purification' of a stream. When sewage is discharged into a water body, aerobic bacteria decompose the organic matter, which consumes the dissolved oxygen (DO) in the water (a process called deoxygenation). Simultaneously, oxygen from the atmosphere is absorbed into the water through the surface (a process called reaeration). The balance between the rate of deoxygenation and the rate of reaeration allows the stream to naturally recover its quality over time and distance. This overall cycle is termed self-purification.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Oxidation (a): This is a chemical reaction part of the process, but not the name of the overall natural cycle of recovery.
- Deoxidation (b): This refers only to the removal or consumption of oxygen, not the replenishment part.
- Sedimentation (d): This is a physical process where suspended solids settle at the bottom due to gravity; it does not involve the oxygen exchange cycle described.
Mass abstention from work without permission is often wrongly described as __________.
A)
Mass Earned Leave
B)
Mass Casual Leave
C)
Mass Special Casual Leave
Option B is correct: Mass Casual Leave.
A Government servant is deemed to be under suspension when:
A)
He is transferred
B)
He is charge- sheeted
C)
He is on leave
D)
He is arrested and detained for more than 48 hours
Option D is correct: He is arrested and detained for more than 48 hours.
Which of the following statements is correct under Rule 34 of GFR 2017?
A)
Losses due to natural causes need not be reported
B)
Only theft and fraud need reporting
C)
All significant losses, including accidental, must be reported immediately
D)
Reporting is optional if minor
Option C is correct: All significant losses, including accidental, must be reported immediately.
Which of the following is a minor penalty?
A)
Dismissal
B)
Removal
C)
Censure
D)
Reduction in rank
Option C is correct: Censure.
Under SR 199, which of the following must be recorded in the Service Book?
A)
Personal opinions of the employee
B)
Political activities
C)
Medical history
D)
Official service events
Option D is correct: Official service events.
According to Rule 9(2), when a Government servant applies for another post through proper channel and resigns to take up a new post, such resignation shall result in:
A)
Retention of leave at credit
B)
Lapse of earned leave only
C)
Lapse of all leave
D)
Retention of half-pay leave only
Option A is correct: Retention of leave at credit.
Lien means:
A)
Temporary appointment
B)
Right to hold a permanent post substantively
C)
Acting charge
D)
Deputation
Option B is correct: Right to hold a permanent post substantively.
The Inquiry Officer is appointed by:
A)
Accused employee
B)
Vigilance department
C)
Disciplinary authority
D)
Court
Option C is correct: Disciplinary authority.
After inquiry, the Inquiry Officer submits:
A)
Inquiry report
B)
Charge-sheet
C)
Punishment order
D)
Appeal
Option A is correct: Inquiry report.
Leave Not Due granted under Rule 31 is debited against:
A)
Earned Leave to be earned later
B)
Future Half Pay Leave
C)
Extraordinary Leave
D)
Casual Leave
Option B is correct: Future Half Pay Leave.
A Government servant is prohibited from __________.
A)
paying taxes
B)
voting
C)
expressing political views publicly
Option C is correct: expressing political views publicly.
Communication received from public representatives regarding problems of groups/ categories of Government functionaries must be entertained and dealt with on a __________.
A)
daily basis
B)
time-bound basis
C)
weekly basis
Option B is correct: time-bound basis.
Final penalty is imposed by:
A)
Inquiry Officer
B)
Presenting Officer
C)
Disciplinary authority
D)
Vigilance Commission
Option C is correct: Disciplinary authority.
As per Rule 11 of the CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972, Casual Leave is:
A)
A formal kind of leave
B)
Treated as Earned Leave
C)
Not recognized as “leave” under the rules
D)
A substitute for Half Pay Leave
Option C is correct: Not recognized as “leave” under the rules.
Every Government servant holding a __________ shall take all possible steps to ensure the integrity and devotion to duty of all Government servants for the time being under his control and authority.
A)
supervisory post
B)
immediate superior post
C)
post of head of office
Option A is correct: supervisory post.
Rule 11 classifies penalties into:
A)
Minor and major
B)
Civil and Criminal
C)
Temporary and permanent
D)
Financial and non-financial
Option A is correct: Minor and major.
Rule 21 of GFR, 2017 primarily lays down guidelines relating to:
A)
Delegation of financial powers
B)
Budget preparation
C)
Standards of financial propriety
D)
Procurement procedures
Option C is correct: Standards of financial propriety.
If a loss occurs due to theft or fraud, Rule 34 mandates that the matter should also be reported to:
A)
Police authorities
B)
Departmental inquiry officer
C)
Internal Vigilance Cell only
D)
Comptroller and Auditor General
Option A is correct: Police authorities.
No Government servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding:
A)
Two years
B)
Three years
C)
Four Years
D)
Five years
Option D is correct: Five years.