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Past Questions
Which section deals with the power of search and seizure?
A)
Section 18
B)
Section 10
C)
Section 14
D)
Section 25
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, Section 14 specifically empowers authorized officers to enter, search, and seize liquor, vessels, or materials used for the manufacture or sale of liquor if there is reason to believe that an offense under the Act has been or is being committed.
- Section 10 generally relates to the prohibition of manufacture, sale, and possession.
- Section 18 typically deals with the disposal of confiscated property or penalties.
- Section 25 usually pertains to the power of the court or specific administrative procedures regarding the Act.
Therefore, Section 14 is the correct provision governing the power of search and seizure for enforcement officers in the state of Mizoram.
Section 2(r) defines which term?
A)
Sale
B)
Search
C)
Liquor
D)
Manufacturer
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, Section 2 provides the definitions of key terms used throughout the Act. Section 2(r) specifically defines 'Liquor'. In the context of this Act, 'Liquor' generally includes spirits, wine, and beer, as well as any other liquid containing alcohol as defined by the regulations of the state to ensure comprehensive prohibition and enforcement. Options (a) Sale, (b) Search, and (d) Manufacturer are either defined under different subsections of Section 2 or are treated as operational terms within the body of the Act, but the specific alphabetical designation (r) is reserved for 'Liquor'.
The Act repealed which previous law?
A)
MLPC Act 2014
B)
Excise Act 1950
C)
Mizoram Liquor Control Rules
D)
No law was repealed
The Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act was enacted to implement a total ban on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor in the state of Mizoram. To establish this prohibition regime, it was necessary to repeal the existing laws that regulated and permitted the trade of liquor. The primary legislation governing liquor and excise in the region prior to the prohibition act was the Excise Act, 1950. By repealing the Excise Act 1950, the government shifted the legal framework from 'regulation and taxation' (Excise) to 'complete prohibition'. Options a and c refer to control rules or later acts that do not represent the primary foundational law being replaced by the prohibition mandate.
Repeat offenders may face:
A)
Lesser punishment
B)
Warning only
C)
Enhanced punishment
D)
No action
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act and general principles of criminal jurisprudence applied in departmental and state laws, 'recidivism' (the act of repeating an offense) is treated as an aggravating factor. While a first-time offender may be eligible for leniency or the minimum prescribed penalty, a repeat offender demonstrates a willful disregard for the law. Consequently, the Act provides for 'Enhanced Punishment' for subsequent convictions to act as a stronger deterrent against the illegal manufacture, sale, or possession of liquor. Options (a), (b), and (d) are legally incorrect as they would undermine the purpose of the Prohibition Act.
The Act allows liquor consumption with permit.
A)
True
B)
False
C)
Depends on age
D)
If prescribed by physicians only
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the general rule is the prohibition of the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor. However, the Act provides specific legal mechanisms for exceptions. The government has the authority to grant permits for the consumption of liquor under specific circumstances, such as for medical reasons (prescribed by a registered medical practitioner) or for certain categories of persons/visitors. Since the Act explicitly contains provisions for the issuance of permits to allow consumption in authorized cases, the statement 'The Act allows liquor consumption with permit' is True. Option (b) is incorrect because the prohibition is not absolute. Option (c) is incorrect as age alone does not grant a right to consume without a permit. Option (d) is a subset of the permit system, but the permit system itself is broader than just physician prescriptions (e.g., it can include permits for non-residents or specific official exemptions).
Punishment under Section 20 relates to:
A)
Cocaine
B)
Cannabis-related offences
C)
Prescription drugs
D)
LSD
Option B is correct: Cannabis-related offences.
Possession of how much liquor is punishable under the Act?
A)
Any quantity
B)
Above 2 liters
C)
More than 5 bottles
D)
If sold in market
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, the state maintains a strict prohibition policy. The Act is designed to prohibit the manufacture, sale, transport, and possession of liquor within the state. Unlike some laws that provide a 'de minimis' threshold (a small amount that is exempt from prosecution), the prohibition regime in Mizoram is comprehensive. Therefore, the possession of liquor in 'any quantity' is an offense under the Act. Options b, c, and d are incorrect because the law does not set a minimum limit of 2 liters or 5 bottles for a crime to be committed, nor is the offense limited only to those who sell it in the market; mere possession is sufficient for prosecution.
Destruction of seized narcotic drugs must be done:
A)
By burning them at home
B)
Without court order
C)
In presence of magistrate and as per procedure
D)
After the case has been disposed of
Option C is correct: In presence of magistrate and as per procedure.
The Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, 2019 is -
A)
Act No. 6 of 2019
B)
Act No. 12 of 2019
C)
Act No. 10 of 2019
D)
Act No. 8 of 2019
The Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, 2019 was enacted by the Mizoram Legislative Assembly to prohibit the manufacture, sale, transport, and consumption of liquor within the state. According to the official gazette and legislative records of the Government of Mizoram, this specific legislation is designated as Act No. 8 of 2019. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they refer to different acts passed by the state legislature in the same calendar year.
Who can conduct search without warrant under NDPS Act?
A)
Magistrate only
B)
Any officer of Gazetted rank
C)
Any officer empowered under Section 42
D)
Only NCB officials
Option C is correct: Any officer empowered under Section 42.
According to PIT NDPS 1988, the person empowered by the state government for detaining certain person be of the level of __________.
A)
Secretary.
B)
Deputy Secretary.
C)
Commissioner of Excise and Narcotics.
D)
Superintendent of Police.
Option C is correct: Commissioner of Excise and Narcotics..
Who has the power to cancel or suspend permit under MLP Amendment Act 2025?
A)
Commissioner of Excise and Narcotics
B)
The state government
C)
The Assistant Commissioner of Excise and Narcotics of the concerned district
D)
The granting authority
Under the legal framework of the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act and its subsequent amendments, the general principle of administrative law applied to permits is that the authority vested with the power to grant a permit is also the authority vested with the power to cancel or suspend it. In the context of the MLP Amendment Act 2025, the 'granting authority' (which may vary depending on the type of permit—whether issued by the State Government, the Commissioner, or a designated officer) holds the jurisdiction to revoke or suspend said permit if the conditions of the permit are violated or if it is deemed necessary in the public interest. While the Commissioner or the State Government may be the granting authority in specific cases, the most comprehensive and legally accurate term covering all such instances is 'The granting authority'.
The MLP Act 2019 come into force with effect from __________.
A)
12.3.2019
B)
28.5.2019
C)
23.3.2019
D)
18.5.2019
The Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act, 2019 was enacted by the Mizoram Legislative Assembly to prohibit the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor in the state. According to the official gazette notification and the statutory records of the Government of Mizoram, the Act came into force on March 23, 2019. Options a, b, and d are incorrect dates that do not align with the official commencement date of the legislation.
Power to stop and search conveyance is mentioned in section __________ of NDPS Act.
A)
42
B)
43
C)
49
D)
49 A
Option C is correct: 49.
As per the notification of the central government, the small quantity and commercial quantity of opium is __________ and __________.
A)
5 grams and 250 grams
B)
1 kg and 20 kg
C)
10 grams and 1 kg
D)
25 grams and 25 kg
Option C is correct: 10 grams and 1 kg.
Penalty for attempt to commit an offence under MLP Act 2019 is mentioned in section __________.
A)
19
B)
21
C)
22
D)
23
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2019, Section 22 specifically deals with the 'Attempt to commit an offence'. It stipulates that whoever attempts to commit an offence under this Act, or attempts to do any act preparatory to the commission of an offence under this Act, shall be punishable with the punishment provided for the offence.
Breakdown of other options:
- Section 19 generally relates to the power of entry, search, and seizure.
- Section 21 typically deals with the forfeiture of liquor and materials used for its manufacture.
- Section 23 usually pertains to the compounding of offences or specific procedural aspects of the Act.
Therefore, Section 22 is the correct legal provision for the penalty regarding the attempt to commit an offence.
Confiscated article which are known to have been of licit origin and not tempered with shall be kept in the custody of Excise and Narcotics which shall be at the disposal of __________.
A)
the Assistant Commissioner of Excise and Narcotics
B)
the Commissioner
C)
officer of the rank of Assistant Commissioner and above
D)
the Officer-in-Charge of the godown
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2019 and the associated rules governing the disposal of confiscated goods, articles that are found to be of licit origin (legally acquired) and have not been tampered with are kept in the custody of the Excise and Narcotics Department. According to the administrative hierarchy and the statutory powers vested for the disposal of such property, these articles remain at the disposal of the Commissioner. The Commissioner holds the ultimate authority to decide on the return, auction, or disposal of confiscated items once the legal proceedings are concluded or the origin is verified as licit. Options a, c, and d refer to officers who may manage the physical custody or process the paperwork, but the legal 'disposal' authority rests with the Commissioner.
Any person who has been convicted under this Act and subsequently convicted for the same nature of offence is punishable under section __________ of NDPS Act.
A)
31
B)
32
C)
34
D)
37
Option A is correct: 31.
As per section 11 (1) NDPS Rules 2022, except in cases of opium, ganja and charas (hasish), where a quantity of not less than __________ shall be drawn for each sample, in all other cases not less than five grams shall be drawn for each sample and the same quantity shall be taken for the duplicate sample.
A)
twenty grams
B)
twenty four grams
C)
twenty five grams
D)
thirty grams
Option C is correct: twenty five grams.
Fortification of grape wine in MLP Rules 2022 means __________.
A)
filteration and bottling of grape wine
B)
process of adding alcohol
C)
process of manufacturing fortified grape wine
D)
process of decreasing alcoholic strength of the grape wine
In the context of the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Rules 2022 and general oenology (the study of wine), 'fortification' refers to the process of increasing the alcohol content of a beverage. This is achieved by adding a distilled spirit (usually brandy or grape spirit) to the fermented grape wine. This process serves two primary purposes: it increases the alcoholic strength of the wine and helps in preserving the wine by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and yeast.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) is incorrect as filtration and bottling are standard packaging processes, not fortification.
- Option (c) is a circular definition; it describes the result but not the 'meaning' of the process itself.
- Option (d) is the opposite of fortification; decreasing alcoholic strength is known as dilution.
Mr.A helped Mr.B in selling liquor. Hence, Mr.A is punishable under section __________ of MLP Act 2019.
A)
22
B)
23
C)
24
D)
25
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2019, the law distinguishes between the primary offender (the seller/manufacturer) and those who assist in the commission of the crime. Section 22 typically deals with the punishment for the actual sale, possession, or manufacture of liquor. However, Section 23 specifically addresses 'Abetment' or 'Assistance'. When Mr. A helps Mr. B in selling liquor, he is acting as an abettor or an accomplice to the offense. According to the penal provisions of the MLP Act 2019, any person who aids, abets, or assists in the illegal sale of liquor is punishable under Section 23. Therefore, since Mr. A provided help to Mr. B, he falls under the purview of Section 23.
Corresponding section of 360 CrPC, 1973 in BNSS, 2023 is __________.
A)
section 360
B)
section 365
C)
section 401
D)
section 460
Option C is correct: section 401.
According to section 25 of MLP Act 2019, if any person resists to the use of breathalyser, __________.
A)
consumption of alcohol cannot be proved.
B)
he shall be sent to hospital for medical examination.
C)
it shall be presumed that he has consumed liquor and charged accordingly.
D)
it is right to use reasonable force for compliance.
Under Section 25 of the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2019, the law provides a legal presumption regarding the refusal to undergo a breathalyzer test. Specifically, if a person resists or refuses to provide a sample for the breathalyzer test when requested by an authorized officer, the law presumes that the person has consumed liquor. This is a 'presumption of fact' designed to prevent individuals from evading the law by simply refusing the test. Therefore, option (c) is the correct legal consequence. Option (a) is incorrect because the law creates a presumption against the person. Option (b) is not the primary legal consequence defined in Section 25 for resistance. Option (d), while reasonable force may be used in some police contexts, is not the specific legal presumption established by Section 25 of this Act.
The expenses of any publication of convicted person in newspaper shall be recoverable from __________ or in such manner as the court may direct.
A)
Excise and Narcotics Department.
B)
Law and Judicial Department.
C)
the court.
D)
the convicted person.
Option D is correct: the convicted person..
Any officer making an arrest or seizure under MLP Act 2019 shall, within__________ hours of such seizure and arrest make a full report to his immediate superior.
A)
12
B)
24
C)
48
D)
72
Under the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act 2019, there are strict procedural requirements for officers conducting arrests and seizures to ensure transparency and accountability. According to the operational guidelines and the statutory provisions of the Act, any officer who effects an arrest or carries out a seizure of prohibited liquor or related materials is mandated to submit a comprehensive report to their immediate superior officer within 24 hours. This timeframe is standard for reporting official actions in departmental and criminal procedures to prevent the misuse of power and to ensure the timely initiation of legal proceedings. Options a (12), c (48), and d (72) are incorrect as they do not align with the specific reporting timeline stipulated in the Act.