Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Article 20(2) of the Indian Constitution protects individuals against which of the following?
A)
Arbitrary detention
B)
Retrospective taxation
C)
Being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
D)
Denial of legal counsel
Option C is correct: Being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What is the procedure under Section 66 if the person summoned cannot be found?
A)
Summons is cancelled
B)
Summons is served by leaving a duplicate with some adult member of his family residing with him
C)
Summons is sent for publication in newspapers
D)
Summons is not served at all
Option B is correct: Summons is served by leaving a duplicate with some adult member of his family residing with him.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution, which of the following persons is not entitled to the protections of Article 22(1) and 22(2)?
A)
A person arrested for theft
B)
A person detained under preventive detention laws
C)
A person detained under orders of a court-martial
D)
Both (a) and (c)
Option C is correct: A person detained under orders of a court-martial.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What is the maximum punishment for intentionally giving or fabricating false evidence in a judicial proceeding under Section 229(1)?
A)
Two years
B)
Five years
C)
Seven years
D)
Ten years
Option C is correct: Seven years.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 521 BNSS, who has the authority to condone the delay in filing a complaint after the prescribed limitation period?
A)
The Police Officer
B)
The Magistrate
C)
The Public Prosecutor
D)
The Complainant
Option B is correct: The Magistrate.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 343, who may tender pardon to an accomplice in a case triable by the Court of Session?
A)
District Magistrate
B)
Chief Judicial Magistrate
C)
The accused
D)
Any police officer
Option B is correct: Chief Judicial Magistrate.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 239, who may alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced?
A)
Only the High Court
B)
The Court trying the case
C)
The Public Prosecutor
D)
The Police
Option B is correct: The Court trying the case.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 483 requires the accused to execute a bond to appear before which Court?
A)
The Magistrate only
B)
The next Appellate Court
C)
The Supreme Court
D)
The District Court
Option B is correct: The next Appellate Court.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 482, a person accused of a non-bailable offence may be released on bail except when:
A)
The offence is bailable
B)
There are reasonable grounds to believe he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment
C)
The accused is a woman
D)
The accused is over 60 years
Option B is correct: There are reasonable grounds to believe he is guilty of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 246 lists who may be charged and tried together. Which of the following is not included?
A)
Persons accused of the same offence in the same transaction
B)
Persons accused of abetment of the same offence
C)
Persons accused of unrelated offences
D)
Persons accused of offences under Chapter XII relating to counterfeit coin
Option C is correct: Persons accused of unrelated offences.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Section 2 of BNSS 2023, what does “bailable offence” mean?
A)
An offence triable by the High Court
B)
An offence punishable with death
C)
An offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule
D)
An offence which is always non-cognizable
Option C is correct: An offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Who has the power to regulate recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving under the Union or a State, as per Article 309?
A)
President of India
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Parliament or State Legislature
D)
Supreme Court
Option C is correct: Parliament or State Legislature.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Under Article 22, within how many hours must a person arrested be produced before a magistrate?
A)
12 hours
B)
48 hours
C)
24 hours
D)
36 hours
Option C is correct: 24 hours.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which of the following is a safeguard provided under Article 22?
A)
Right to form associations
B)
Right to free legal aid in civil cases
C)
Right to be informed of grounds of arrest
D)
Right to privacy
Option C is correct: Right to be informed of grounds of arrest.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Article 309 is found in which part of the Constitution of India?
A)
Part III (Fundamental Rights)
B)
Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)
C)
Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States)
D)
Part X (The Scheduled and Tribal Areas)
Option C is correct: Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States).
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
As per Section 19, who may be appointed as Assistant Public Prosecutor if none is available for a particular case?
A)
Any police officer
B)
Any District Judge
C)
Any other person after giving notice to the State Government
D)
The accused
Option C is correct: Any other person after giving notice to the State Government.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What does Section 64(2) require regarding personal service of summons?
A)
Service by email only
B)
Service by public notice
C)
Service personally by delivering or tendering one of the duplicates to the person summoned
D)
Service by publishing in newspapers
Option C is correct: Service personally by delivering or tendering one of the duplicates to the person summoned.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
“Non-bailable offence” as per Section 2 means:
A)
Any offence punishable with fine only
B)
Any other offence except those shown as bailable
C)
Any offence shown as bailable in the First Schedule
D)
Petty offences
Option B is correct: Any other offence except those shown as bailable.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
In BNSS, “summons-case” is defined as:
A)
A case punishable with death
B)
A case relating to an offence not being a warrant-case
C)
A civil case
D)
A case triable by High Court only
Option B is correct: A case relating to an offence not being a warrant-case.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which landmark case expanded the scope of Article 21 to include the right to privacy?
A)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B)
Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C)
Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D)
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
Option D is correct: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
If a charge is altered under Section 239, who must be allowed to recall witnesses?
A)
Only the Judge
B)
Police
C)
Prosecutor and the accused
D)
None of the above
Option C is correct: Prosecutor and the accused.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Which of the following is prohibited by Article 20(1) of the Constitution of India?
A)
Retrospective civil laws
B)
Retrospective taxation
C)
Conviction for an act that was not an offence when committed
D)
Retrospective administrative orders
Option C is correct: Conviction for an act that was not an offence when committed.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Section 339 allows prosecution to be conducted by which of the following with permission of the Magistrate?
A)
Any police officer below Inspector
B)
Any person other than a police officer below Inspector
C)
Only the Public Prosecutor
D)
Only the accused
Option B is correct: Any person other than a police officer below Inspector.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
What does Article 50 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
A)
Uniform civil code
B)
Abolition of titles
C)
Separation of judiciary from executive
D)
Freedom of trade
Option C is correct: Separation of judiciary from executive.
Departmental (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution protects which fundamental right?
A)
Right to property
B)
Right to freedom of religion
C)
Right to life and personal liberty
D)
Right to education
Option C is correct: Right to life and personal liberty.
