Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

As per section 480, When any person other than a person accused of a non-bailable offence is arrested without warrant by an officer in charge of a police station, or appears or is brought before a Court, and is prepared at any time while in the custody of such officer or at any stage of the proceeding before such Court to give bail, such person shall be released on bail: Provided that such _________, if he or it thinks fit, may, and shall, if such person is indigent and is unable to furnish surety, instead of taking bail bond from such person, discharge him on his executing a bond for his appearance as hereinafter provided.

A) Officer
B) Court
C) Officer or court
D) Officer or Prosecutor
Option C is correct: Officer or court.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

The rights under Article 20 and Article 21 are unique because they cannot be suspended even during a:

A) State Emergency
B) Financial Emergency
C) National Emergency
D) None of the above
Option C is correct: National Emergency.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

A, in support of a just claim which B has against Z for one thousand rupees, falsely swears on a trial that he heard Z admit the justice of B’s claim. A has given false evidence under _________.

A) Section 226 of BNS
B) Section 227 of BNS
C) Section 228 of BNS
D) Section 229 of BNS
Option B is correct: Section 227 of BNS.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are:

A) Accused of an offence
B) Detained under preventive detention laws
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of the above
Option C is correct: Both (a) and (b).
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Section 482 (3) states that, When a person accused or suspected of the commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or more or of an offence under Chapter VI, Chapter XVI or Chapter XVII of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 or abatement of, or conspiracy or attempt to commit, any such offence, is released on bail under sub-section (1), the Court shall impose the conditions,β€” (A) that such person shall attend in accordance with the conditions of the bond executed under this Chapter; (B) that such person shall not commit an offence similar to the offence of which he is accused, or suspected, of the commission of which he is suspected; and (C) that such person shall not directly or indirectly make any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with the facts of the case so as to dissuade him from disclosing such facts to the Court or to any police officer or tamper with the evidence,

A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B are correct
D) A, B & C are correct
Option D is correct: A, B & C are correct.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases?

A) Article 20
B) Article 21
C) Article 22
D) Article 23
Option C is correct: Article 22.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

If service cannot by the exercise of due diligence be effected as provided in section 64, section 65 or section 66, the serving officer shall affix one of the duplicates of the summons to some conspicuous part of _________ in which the person summoned ordinarily resides; and thereupon the Court, after making such inquiries as it thinks fit, may either declare that the summons has been duly served or order fresh service in such manner as it considers proper.

A) the house or premises of trial court
B) the homestead
C) the house or homestead
D) the premises of trial court
Option C is correct: the house or homestead.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Article 50 of the Indian Constitution mandates the separation of the judiciary from the:

A) Legislature
B) Executive
C) Police
D) Military
Option B is correct: Executive.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Resistance or obstruction by a person to his lawful apprehension is given under _________.

A) Section 262
B) Section 239
C) Section 240
D) Section 263
Option A is correct: Section 262.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

A gives false evidence before a Court, intending thereby to cause Z to be convicted of a dacoity. The punishment of dacoity is imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, with or without fine. A, therefore, is liable to imprisonment for life or imprisonment, with or without fine under _________.

A) Section 231
B) Section 232
C) Section 234
D) Section 233
Option B is correct: Section 232.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Giving or fabricating false evidence with intent to procure conviction of offence punishable with imprisonment for life or imprisonment is given under _________.

A) Section 230
B) Section 231
C) Section 232
D) Section 233
Option B is correct: Section 231.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Whoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding, or fabricates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to _________.

A) two thousand rupees.
B) five thousand rupees.
C) one thousand rupees.
D) ten thousand rupees.
Option D is correct: ten thousand rupees..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Section 343 (3) state that - Every Magistrate who tenders a pardon under sub-section (1) shall recordβ€” (A) his reasons for so doing; (B) whether the tender was or was not accepted by the person to whom it was made, and shall, on application made by the accused, furnish him with a copy of such record free of cost.

A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B is correct
D) Both A & B is not correct
Option C is correct: Both A & B is correct.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-II

Section 343 applies to: (A) any offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session appointed under any other law for the time being in force; (B) any offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years or with a more severe sentence.

A) Only A is correct
B) Only B is correct
C) Both A & B is correct
D) Both A & B is not correct
Option C is correct: Both A & B is correct.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Unauthorised leave of absence entails forfeiture of past service.

A) True
B) False
C) Entails forfeiture if the period is not regularised as leave of any kind.
D) None of the above.
Option C is correct: Entails forfeiture if the period is not regularised as leave of any kind..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Medical Certificate is necessary for commuted leave in continuation of maternity leave.

A) Yes, it is necessary.
B) No, it is not necessary.
C) Necessary if the competent authority demands medical justification.
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: No, it is not necessary..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

The amount of Retirement Gratuity or Death Gratuity:

A) shall not exceed Rs.20 lakh
B) shall not exceed Rs. 15 lakh.
C) has no limit.
D) None of the above.
Option A is correct: shall not exceed Rs.20 lakh.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Earned leave shall be credited to leave account at the rate of:

A) 3 days for each completed calendar month.
B) 2.5 days for each completed calendar month.
C) 10 days for each completed six months
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: 2.5 days for each completed calendar month..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

No Government servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of:

A) two years
B) three years
C) five years.
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: three years.
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Amount of family pension after retirement shall be determined at uniform rate of:

A) 40 % of basic pay.
B) 30% of basic pay.
C) 50 % of basic pay.
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: 30% of basic pay..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

In calculating length of qualifying service, fraction of a year which is:

A) equal to nine months and above shall be treated as a completed one year.
B) equal to six months and above shall be treated as a completed one year.
C) equal to three months and above shall be treated as a completed one year.
D) None of the above.
Option A is correct: equal to nine months and above shall be treated as a completed one year..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Casual leave is:

A) recognised under Leave Rules
B) not recognised under Leave Rules.
C) recognised under Leave Rules depending upon the purpose.
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: not recognised under Leave Rules..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Additional pension from 80 years to less than 85 years is:

A) 20% of basic pension
B) 25% of basic pension.
C) 30 % of basic pension.
D) None of the above.
Option B is correct: 25% of basic pension..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Leave ordinarily ends:

A) on the day preceding the day on which the charge is resumed.
B) on the day succeeding the day on which the charge is resumed.
C) on the actual date on which the Government servant reports for duty.
D) on the date specified by the leave sanctioning authority.
Option C is correct: on the actual date on which the Government servant reports for duty..
Departmental (other) β€’ 2025 β€’ Paper-I

Pension Rules do not prohibit grant of family pension to family of Government servant who commits suicide.

A) True.
B) False.
C) Family pension is admissible only to minor children.
D) None of the above.
Option A is correct: True..