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Past Questions — 2024

Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

In geographical term, a body of land that is bordered on three sides by water, including the southern parts of India, is termed as -

A) Peninsula
B) Archipelago
C) Strait
D) Island
A peninsula is a piece of land that is almost entirely surrounded by water but is connected to a larger landmass on one side. The southern part of India is a classic example of a peninsula (the Indian Peninsula), as it is bordered by the Arabian Sea to the west, the Bay of Bengal to the east, and the Indian Ocean to the south. Why other options are incorrect: - b. Archipelago: This refers to a group or chain of islands (e.g., Indonesia or the Lakshadweep islands). - c. Strait: A strait is a narrow passage of water connecting two larger bodies of water (e.g., the Palk Strait). - d. Island: An island is a piece of land completely surrounded by water on all sides.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The Silent Valley which is home to rare plants and animals is located in which of the following State?

A) Meghalaya
B) Jammu and Kashmir
C) Kerala
D) Gujarat
The Silent Valley National Park is located in the Nilgiri Hills of the state of Kerala, India. It is renowned for its untouched tropical evergreen rainforests and is a critical habitat for the endangered Lion-tailed Macaque. The area is called 'Silent Valley' because of the perceived absence of noisy cicadas, which are common in other forests of the region. Analysis of other options: - Meghalaya: Known for its living root bridges and high rainfall, but not the location of Silent Valley. - Jammu and Kashmir: Characterized by alpine and coniferous forests in the Himalayas. - Gujarat: Known for the Gir National Park (home to Asiatic lions) and arid/coastal ecosystems, not tropical rainforests like Silent Valley.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The nomenclature often used in Judicial Review ‘ultra vires ‘refer to -

A) Against the law
B) Equivalent to law
C) Found to be violative of the Constitution
D) Found to be acceptable with the case
The term 'ultra vires' is a Latin phrase meaning 'beyond the powers'. In the context of Judicial Review in Indian Polity and Administrative Law, it refers to an act, law, or regulation that exceeds the legal authority granted to the body that created it. Specifically, when a court declares a law 'ultra vires' the Constitution, it means the law has been found to be violative of the Constitution (e.g., it infringes upon Fundamental Rights or exceeds the legislative competence of the Parliament/State Legislature). Analysis of options: - Option (a) 'Against the law' is too general; while ultra vires acts are illegal, the specific nomenclature in Judicial Review usually refers to the lack of authority or constitutional violation. - Option (b) 'Equivalent to law' is incorrect as ultra vires implies a lack of legal validity. - Option (c) 'Found to be violative of the Constitution' is the precise application of the term in the context of constitutional judicial review. - Option (d) 'Found to be acceptable with the case' is the opposite of the meaning of ultra vires.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The slogan of which Five-Year Plan in India is “Faster, More inclusive and Sustainable Growth”?

A) Eight
B) Ninth
C) Eleventh
D) Twelfth
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) was the last five-year plan implemented in India before the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog. Its primary objective and slogan was 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth'. Breakdown of the slogan: 1. Faster: Aiming for a higher GDP growth rate. 2. More Inclusive: Ensuring that the benefits of growth reach all sections of society, reducing poverty and inequality. 3. Sustainable: Ensuring that economic growth does not compromise the environment or the needs of future generations. Why other options are incorrect: - The Eighth Plan (1992-97) focused on 'Human Resource Development'. - The Ninth Plan (1997-2002) focused on 'Growth with Social Justice and Equity'. - The Eleventh Plan (2007-12) had the theme 'Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth' (it lacked the 'Sustainable' component which was added in the Twelfth Plan).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

To be officially recognised by the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an Opposition Group, a party or coalition of parties must have at least:

A) 50 members
B) 60 members
C) 55 members
D) 1/3 of total members of the Lok Sabha
In the Indian Parliamentary system, for a political party or a coalition of parties to be officially recognized as an 'Opposition Group' (and for its leader to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition), it must command at least 10% of the total strength of the House. The Lok Sabha has a maximum strength of 543 elected members. 10% of 543 is 54.3, which is rounded up to 55 members. - Option (a) 50 members: This does not meet the 10% threshold. - Option (b) 60 members: While this exceeds the threshold, the minimum requirement is 55. - Option (d) 1/3 of total members: This is far higher than the required 10% threshold and is not a rule for recognition as an opposition group.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which State is greatly benefitted from Indira Gandhi Canal Irrigation?

A) Orissa
B) Assam
C) Rajasthan
D) Tamil Nadu
The Indira Gandhi Canal (formerly known as the Rajasthan Canal) is one of the largest canal projects in India. It was designed to bring water from the Harike Barrage (at the confluence of the Satluj and Beas rivers in Punjab) to the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan. The primary objective of the canal is to provide irrigation to the Thar Desert, transforming vast stretches of wasteland into productive agricultural land and improving the socio-economic conditions of the people in western Rajasthan. Why other options are incorrect: - Orissa (Odisha): Located on the eastern coast, it relies on different river systems (like the Mahanadi) and monsoon rainfall. - Assam: Located in the Northeast, it is one of the highest rainfall regions in India and relies on the Brahmaputra river system. - Tamil Nadu: Located in the south, it utilizes different irrigation systems and river basins (like the Kaveri) and is not the target area for the Indira Gandhi Canal.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

‘Base year’ in National Income accounting means -

A) The year whose income is being used to calculate the nominal GDP
B) The year whose prices are being used to calculate the nominal GDP
C) The year whose prices are being used to calculate the real GDP
D) The year whose income are being used to calculate the real GDP
In National Income accounting, the 'Base Year' is a benchmark year used as a reference point to compare economic data over time. 1. **Nominal GDP** is calculated using current market prices (the prices of the year being measured). Therefore, it does not require a base year. 2. **Real GDP** is adjusted for inflation. To remove the effect of price changes and measure the actual growth in production/volume, economists use the prices of a fixed 'Base Year'. 3. By keeping prices constant (using the base year's prices), any change in the GDP value reflects a change in the quantity of goods and services produced, rather than just a change in prices. Analysis of options: - Option (a) and (d) are incorrect because GDP is calculated based on the value of output (Price × Quantity), not by using the 'income' of a specific year as a multiplier. - Option (b) is incorrect because Nominal GDP uses current prices, not base year prices. - Option (c) is correct because Real GDP is specifically defined as GDP calculated at constant prices (base year prices).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right by the -

A) 76th Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act
C) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
D) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act
The Right to Education was made a Fundamental Right through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India, which declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. Additionally, it changed the subject matter of Article 45 (Directive Principles of State Policy) and inserted a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) requiring parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children. Analysis of other options: - 76th Amendment Act (1976): Related to the Ninth Schedule and the protection of certain laws from judicial review. - 83rd Amendment Act (2000): Related to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. - 93rd Amendment Act (2005): Related to the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

AGMARK Act was implemented in India in the year -

A) 1936
B) 1937
C) 1938
D) 1939
The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, commonly known as the AGMARK Act, was enacted in India in 1937. The purpose of this act is to provide a mechanism for the grading and marking of agricultural produce to ensure quality and protect consumers from fraud. AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI). - Option (a) 1936: Incorrect. - Option (b) 1937: Correct. This is the year the Act was implemented. - Option (c) 1938: Incorrect. - Option (d) 1939: Incorrect.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Read the following points and choose the correct answer: 1. The doctrine of judicial review is originated and developed in the USA. 2. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both central and state governments. 3. Judicial Review is needed to uphold the principle of the supremacy of the Constitution. 4. Judicial Review power can also be exercise by both Union and State minister. Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A) 1,2 and 4
B) Only 3
C) 1,2 and 3
D) 1,3 and 4
Let's analyze each statement individually: 1. **Statement 1 is correct**: The doctrine of judicial review originated in the United States, specifically established in the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803), where the US Supreme Court asserted its power to strike down laws that violate the Constitution. 2. **Statement 2 is correct**: Judicial Review is defined as the power of the judiciary (courts) to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts (laws passed by Parliament or State Legislatures) and executive orders. If these are found to be in violation of the Constitution, the court can declare them null and void. 3. **Statement 3 is correct**: In countries with a written constitution (like India and the USA), the Constitution is the supreme law of the land. Judicial review is the mechanism used to ensure that no law or government action contradicts the Constitution, thereby upholding the principle of Constitutional Supremacy. 4. **Statement 4 is incorrect**: Judicial Review is a judicial function. It is the exclusive power of the Judiciary (the Courts). Union and State ministers belong to the Executive branch; they cannot exercise the power of judicial review, as that would violate the principle of Separation of Powers. Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct and statement 4 is incorrect, the correct option is (c).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which of the following reflects the standard of living in a country?

A) Poverty ratio
B) Per Capita Income
C) National Income
D) Unemployment rate
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. **Definition of Standard of Living**: The standard of living refers to the level of wealth, comfort, material goods, and necessities available to a certain socioeconomic class or a geographic area. In economic terms, it is often measured by the average income available to each person in a country. 2. **Analyzing Per Capita Income (Option b)**: Per Capita Income is calculated by dividing the total National Income of a country by its total population. It provides an average measure of the income earned per person, which serves as a primary proxy for the average material well-being and purchasing power of the citizens, thus reflecting the general standard of living. 3. **Analyzing National Income (Option c)**: National Income is the total value of all goods and services produced by a country. While it indicates the size of the economy, it does not reflect the standard of living because a country could have a very high National Income but a very small population (leading to high living standards) or a very large population (leading to low living standards per person). 4. **Analyzing Poverty Ratio (Option a)**: The poverty ratio measures the proportion of the population living below the poverty line. While it indicates the extent of deprivation, it does not reflect the overall average standard of living for the entire population. 5. **Analyzing Unemployment Rate (Option d)**: This measures the percentage of the labor force that is jobless. While unemployment affects the standard of living, the rate itself is a measure of labor market efficiency, not a direct measure of the overall standard of living. Conclusion: Per Capita Income is the most appropriate indicator among the choices to reflect the general standard of living.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which agency is responsible for procurement, distribution, and storage of foodgrains production in India?

A) Food Corporation of India
B) Ministry of Agriculture
C) NAFED
D) TRIFED
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a statutory body established under the Food Corporations Act, 1964. Its primary mandate is to ensure food security in India by managing the procurement of foodgrains (primarily wheat and rice) from farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP), storing these grains in warehouses to maintain a buffer stock, and distributing them through the Public Distribution System (PDS) to ensure food availability for the underprivileged. Why other options are incorrect: - b. Ministry of Agriculture: This is a government ministry responsible for policy formulation, agricultural research, and overall governance of the sector, but it does not handle the physical procurement and storage operations of foodgrains. - c. NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India): While NAFED is involved in the procurement of certain crops (like pulses and oilseeds) to stabilize prices, it is not the primary agency responsible for the nationwide storage and distribution of staple foodgrains. - d. TRIFED (Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India): TRIFED focuses specifically on the marketing and development of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and products from tribal artisans, not the general procurement and distribution of foodgrains.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The Simon Commission was boycotted in India because -

A) there was no Indian member in the Commission
B) it supported the Muslim League
C) Congress felt that people deserved Swaraj
D) there were differences among the members
The Simon Commission (officially the Indian Statutory Commission) was appointed by the British government in 1927 to review the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest further constitutional reforms. The primary reason for the widespread boycott across India was that the commission consisted of seven British Members of Parliament, and not a single Indian was included. This was seen as a profound insult to the Indians, as it implied that Indians were unfit to determine their own constitutional future. Consequently, the Indian National Congress, the Muslim League, and other political groups adopted a policy of total boycott, leading to the famous 'Simon Go Back' protests. Analysis of other options: - Option b is incorrect because the boycott was a unified front involving both the Congress and the Muslim League; the commission did not specifically 'support' the League over others. - Option c is a general political goal of the time, but the specific trigger for the boycott of this particular commission was its composition. - Option d is incorrect as the internal dynamics of the British members were not the cause of the Indian boycott.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which session of the Congress?

A) Karachi
B) Haripur
C) Lahore
D) Lucknow
The resolution of 'Poorna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) was formally adopted by the Indian National Congress during its session held in Lahore in December 1929. The session was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. This was a pivotal moment in the Indian independence movement, as the Congress shifted its demand from 'Dominion Status' to full independence from British rule. Consequently, January 26, 1930, was declared as Independence Day, and the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched shortly after with the Dandi March. Why other options are incorrect: - Karachi (1931): This session is famous for adopting resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. - Haripur (1938): This session was presided over by Subhash Chandra Bose and focused on agrarian and labor issues. - Lucknow (1916): This session is known for the 'Lucknow Pact', which saw a temporary alliance between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The key characteristic of Nehru’s democracy is -

A) Marxism
B) Capitalism
C) Socialism
D) Totalitarianism
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, envisioned a 'Democratic Socialism'. His approach was to combine the political freedom and democratic processes of a liberal democracy with the socio-economic goals of socialism to ensure equitable distribution of wealth and the removal of poverty. - Option (a) Marxism: While Nehru was influenced by Marxist analysis of history and economics, he rejected the Marxist concept of 'class struggle' and the 'dictatorship of the proletariat' in favor of parliamentary democracy. - Option (b) Capitalism: Nehru was critical of unrestrained capitalism, believing it led to extreme inequality and exploitation, which is why he advocated for a 'mixed economy' with a strong public sector. - Option (d) Totalitarianism: This is the opposite of Nehru's ideology; he was a staunch advocate for individual liberties, civil rights, and democratic governance.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The slogan “Garibi Hatao” was introduced in which Five-Year Plan?

A) 1st Five-Year Plan
B) 3rd Five-Year Plan
C) 5th Five-Year Plan
D) 7th Five-Year Plan
The slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was a central theme of Indira Gandhi's political campaign during the 1971 general elections. This objective was formally integrated into the 5th Five-Year Plan (1974–1978). The plan focused on poverty alleviation, employment generation, and social justice, marking a shift toward more direct intervention in poverty reduction. Analysis of other options: - a. 1st Five-Year Plan (1951–1956): Focused primarily on agricultural development and irrigation to ensure food security. - b. 3rd Five-Year Plan (1961–1966): Aimed at making the economy 'self-reliant' and self-generating, but was disrupted by wars with China and Pakistan. - d. 7th Five-Year Plan (1985–1990): Focused on food grain production, employment, and productivity, but the 'Garibi Hatao' slogan originated much earlier in the 5th Plan.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which of the following statements pertaining to the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 is correct?

A) It contends that it will consider a constitutional status for Panchayat Raj institutions in future.
B) It does not provide a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions.
C) It undid the constitutional status that was provided to Panchayat Raj institutions earlier.
D) It provides a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is a landmark piece of legislation in India that institutionalized Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). 1. **Constitutional Status**: Before 1992, Panchayats existed based on state laws and were not mandatory or uniform. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution of India (Articles 243 to 243-O), thereby granting them a formal constitutional status. This meant that the establishment of Panchayats became a constitutional mandate rather than a discretionary policy of state governments. 2. **Analysis of Options**: - **Option (a)** is incorrect because the Act did not 'consider' status for the future; it implemented it immediately upon enactment. - **Option (b)** is incorrect because the primary purpose of the Act was specifically to provide constitutional status. - **Option (c)** is incorrect because there was no prior constitutional status for Panchayats to 'undo'; previous efforts (like the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommendations) were implemented through administrative orders and state legislation, not constitutional amendments. - **Option (d)** is correct as it accurately describes the core outcome of the 73rd Amendment Act.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Who first estimated the National Income in India?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) RC Dutta
C) VK RV Rao
D) DR Gadgil
Dadabhai Naoroji is credited as the first person to estimate the National Income of India. In 1867-68, he published his findings in his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', where he estimated the per capita income of Indians to be approximately ₹20 per annum. His work was pioneering in using statistical data to critique the economic impact of British colonial rule (the 'Drain of Wealth' theory). Why other options are incorrect: - RC Dutta: While he was a contemporary nationalist and economist who wrote extensively on the economic history of India, he was not the first to estimate national income. - VK RV Rao: V.K.R.V. Rao is known for providing the first *scientific* and more accurate estimate of India's national income in 1931-32, but he was not the first overall. - DR Gadgil: D.R. Gadgil was a prominent economist and planner in post-independence India, far later than the initial attempts by Naoroji.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The Policy of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization was announced as New Economic Policy (NEP) by the Prime Minister -

A) Indira Gandhi
B) Narendra Modi
C) Narasimha Rao
D) Manmohan Singh
The New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991, characterized by Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), was introduced in July 1991. At that time, P. V. Narasimha Rao was the Prime Minister of India. While Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Finance Minister and is widely credited as the architect of these reforms, the policy was announced and implemented under the leadership of Prime Minister Narasimha Rao. Analysis of other options: - Indira Gandhi: Served as PM during the 1970s and 80s; her tenure was marked by nationalization (e.g., banks in 1969), which is the opposite of privatization. - Narendra Modi: Current PM (since 2014), long after the 1991 reforms. - Manmohan Singh: He was the Finance Minister in 1991 who designed the policy, but he was not the Prime Minister at the time of the announcement (he became PM later in 2004).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

In ancient Indian literature ‘Himadri’ is a name given to the -

A) Karakoram Range
B) Greater Himalaya
C) Kailash Range
D) Ajanta Range
The term 'Himadri' is derived from the Sanskrit words 'Hima' (snow) and 'Adri' (mountain), literally meaning 'the mountain of snow'. In Indian geography and ancient literature, it specifically refers to the Great Himalayas or the Greater Himalayas. This is the northernmost and highest range of the Himalayan system, containing the highest peaks including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga. Why other options are incorrect: - a. Karakoram Range: While it is a high mountain range in the Trans-Himalayan region, it is not referred to as Himadri. - c. Kailash Range: This is part of the Tibetan plateau/Trans-Himalayan region and is distinct from the main Himadri range. - d. Ajanta Range: These are hills located in the Western Ghats (Maharashtra), far south of the Himalayan system.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which sector makes the largest contributions to India’s GDP?

A) Primary Sector
B) Quaternary Sector
C) Secondary Sector
D) Tertiary Sector
The Indian economy is divided into three main sectors: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary. 1. **Tertiary Sector (Service Sector):** This sector includes services such as banking, insurance, IT, tourism, transport, and healthcare. Over the last few decades, India has experienced a structural shift where the Tertiary sector has grown disproportionately faster than the others. It currently contributes more than 50% to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP), making it the largest contributor. 2. **Primary Sector:** This involves the extraction of raw materials (Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, and Mining). While it employs a significant portion of the population, its contribution to the GDP has steadily declined over time. 3. **Secondary Sector:** This involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (Manufacturing, Construction, and Electricity). While vital for growth, its contribution is lower than that of the service sector. 4. **Quaternary Sector:** This is a specialized subset of the tertiary sector focusing on knowledge-based activities (R&D, Information Technology). While high-value, it is not categorized as a standalone primary driver of GDP in the same way the broad Tertiary sector is.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Satyagraha is a philosophy of action based on -

A) violence
B) kindness
C) love
D) truth, tolerance, non-violence and peaceful protests
Satyagraha, a term coined by Mahatma Gandhi, is derived from the Sanskrit words 'Satya' (truth) and 'Agraha' (holding firmly to). It is a philosophy of non-violent resistance to injustice. 1. Why option (d) is correct: Satyagraha is fundamentally based on the pursuit of Truth (Satya) and the practice of Non-violence (Ahimsa). It involves the use of peaceful protests, civil disobedience, and tolerance to appeal to the conscience of the oppressor to bring about a change of heart. 2. Why option (a) is incorrect: Satyagraha is the antithesis of violence; it explicitly rejects physical force. 3. Why option (b) and (c) are incorrect: While kindness and love are inherent qualities of a Satyagrahi, they are emotional attributes rather than the comprehensive philosophical framework of 'action' that defines Satyagraha. The philosophy is specifically structured around Truth and Non-violence as tools for political and social change.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?

A) 9th Schedule
B) 10 Schedule
C) 11 Schedule
D) 12th Schedule
The Anti-Defection Law in India is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to prevent political defections (switching parties) by elected members of Parliament or State Legislatures, thereby ensuring stability in the government. Analysis of other options: - 9th Schedule: Originally added to protect land reform laws from judicial review. - 11th Schedule: Contains the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats (added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992). - 12th Schedule: Contains the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities (added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Who is known as the Humanistic critique of Marxism?

A) Subhash Chandra Bose
B) MLN. Roy
C) Lohia
D) E.M.S
M.N. Roy (Manabendra Nath Roy) is widely recognized for his 'Humanistic' critique of Marxism. While he began his political career as a staunch Marxist and a leader in the Communist International (Comintern), he later evolved his philosophy into 'Radical Humanism'. He critiqued the orthodox Marxist view of historical materialism and economic determinism, arguing that it reduced human beings to mere products of social and economic forces. Roy emphasized the primacy of the individual, human reason, and freedom, asserting that a social revolution must be preceded by a mental or intellectual revolution. Analysis of other options: - Subhash Chandra Bose: While he integrated socialist ideas into his struggle for independence, he is not known as a theoretical 'Humanistic critique' of Marxism. - Lohia (Ram Manohar Lohia): He developed 'Socialist' theories tailored to the Indian context (focusing on caste and decentralization), but his work is categorized as Socialist/Gandhian rather than a specific 'Humanistic critique' of Marxism in the philosophical sense Roy provided. - E.M.S (E.M.S. Namboodiripad): He was a prominent Marxist leader and theoretician who largely adhered to and propagated Marxist-Leninist ideology in India, rather than critiquing it from a humanistic perspective.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) includes - 1. Health 2. Education 3. Living standard

A) Only 1
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 1,2 and 3
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), measures poverty not just by income, but by overlapping deprivations. It uses three equally weighted dimensions: 1. Health: This includes indicators such as nutrition and child mortality. 2. Education: This includes indicators such as years of schooling and school attendance. 3. Living Standards: This includes indicators such as access to cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets. Since all three listed components (Health, Education, and Living Standard) are the core dimensions of the MPI, option 'd' is the correct choice.
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