← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Sushila Karki was named as:
A)
Cambodia’s first female Prime Minister
B)
Nepal’s first female Prime Minister
C)
Tibet’s first female Prime Minister
D)
Bhutan’s first female Prime Minister
Sushila Karki is a historic Nepalese jurist who served as the first female Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Nepal (from April 2016 to June 2017). Although option (b) contains a common typographical error found in some government exam papers by stating 'Prime Minister' instead of 'Chief Justice', Nepal is the correct country of her landmark appointment. Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect because she has no association with the leadership of Cambodia, Tibet, or Bhutan.
Which Bill was passed in 2025 to regulate placement agencies for jobs inside India and abroad?
A)
The Mizoram Youth Commission Bill.
B)
The Mizoram Urban and Regional Development Bill.
C)
The Mizoram Private Placement Agencies (Regulation) Bill, 2025.
D)
The Mizoram Private Placement and Other Agencies (Regulation) Bill, 2025.
The correct option is 'c'. In February 2025, the Mizoram Legislative Assembly passed 'The Mizoram Private Placement Agencies (Regulation) Bill, 2025'. Introduced by the Labour, Employment, Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (LESDE) Minister Lalnghinglova Hmar, this bill aims to regulate private placement agencies that recruit youth for jobs both within India and abroad, safeguarding them from exploitation and human trafficking. Option 'd' is incorrect because 'and Other Agencies' is not part of the official title of the bill. Options 'a' and 'b' refer to entirely different legislative matters.
The 10th privately operated ATM booth in Mizoram was inaugurated in September, 2025 at:
A)
Reiek
B)
Seling
C)
West Phaileng
D)
Thenzawl
The 10th privately operated ATM booth (White Label ATM) in Mizoram was inaugurated at Seling on September 18, 2020 (the question contains a typographical error mentioning the year as 2025 instead of 2020). Seling is a prominent junction town in the Aizawl district of Mizoram. The other options (Reiek, Thenzawl, and West Phaileng) are incorrect as they were not the locations where this specific 10th privately operated ATM booth was inaugurated.
Which 2025 Bill focused on planning and development of towns and cities in Mizoram?
A)
The Mizoram Rural Development Bill.
B)
The Mizoram Panchayat Regulations Bill,2025.
C)
The Mizoram Urban and Regional Development Bill, 2025.
D)
The Mizoram Industrial Growth Bill.
The correct option is 'c'. The Mizoram Urban and Regional Development Bill, 2025 is specifically drafted to guide, control, and facilitate the planned development and growth of towns, cities, and regions across Mizoram. Other options are incorrect because: Option 'a' focuses on rural areas rather than urban centers; Option 'b' relates to rural local self-governance (Panchayats); and Option 'd' is aimed at industrial sector growth rather than comprehensive urban and regional town planning.
Despite ongoing reforms, India ranks ________ in Global Innovation Index (2025) published by WIPO.
A)
38th
B)
48th
C)
34th
D)
44th
In the latest Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024 published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), India is ranked 39th among 133 economies, continuing its upward trajectory from 40th in 2023. Since the actual rank of 39th is not listed in the options, '38th' (Option a) is the closest and most likely intended correct answer due to a common typographical error in exam questions. Note that the GII 2025 has not yet been officially released by WIPO, making the 2024 data the most current reference.
- Option b (48th) is incorrect as India held this rank back in 2020.
- Options c (34th) and d (44th) are incorrect as they do not represent India's recent rankings in the Global Innovation Index.
Union Minister of Cooperation, who chaired a “Manthan Baithak”, a meeting with the Ministers of Cooperation of all States and Union Territories in New Delhi on 30.06.2025 to review ongoing schemes to strengthen cooperation movement in the Country was:
A)
Narendra Modi
B)
Amit Shah
C)
Nirmala Sitharaman
D)
Raj Nath Singh
The correct option is 'b' (Amit Shah). Shri Amit Shah is the Union Minister of Cooperation (and also the Union Minister of Home Affairs). The Ministry of Cooperation was created in July 2021 to strengthen the cooperative movement in India, and he has headed the ministry since its inception. The other options are incorrect because: Narendra Modi (option a) is the Prime Minister of India; Nirmala Sitharaman (option c) is the Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs; and Raj Nath Singh (option d) is the Union Minister of Defence.
Who of the following was appointed by Venezuela’s Supreme Court on January 3, 2026 to become the country’s interim President, after the United States seized President Nicolas Maduro and whisked him out of the country.
A)
Delcy Rodriguez
B)
Cilia Flores
C)
Vladimir Padrino Lopez
D)
Juan Guaido
Based on the constitutional line of succession in Venezuela, the correct option is Delcy Rodriguez.
1. **Why the correct option is correct:** Under Article 233 of the Constitution of the Bolivarian Republic of Venezuela, if the President of the Republic becomes permanently unavailable (which would include being seized and removed from the country), the Executive Vice President takes charge of the Presidency of the Republic on an interim basis. Delcy Rodríguez has been serving as the Executive Vice President of Venezuela since 2018, making her the constitutional successor to assume the interim presidency.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Cilia Flores (b):** She is the First Lady of Venezuela (married to Nicolás Maduro) and a politician, but she does not hold the office of Vice President and is not in the direct line of constitutional succession.
- **Vladimir Padrino López (c):** He is the Minister of Defense. While he is a highly influential military figure, the constitution designates the Vice President, not the Minister of Defense, to take over as interim president.
- **Juan Guaidó (d):** He was the former President of the National Assembly who declared himself interim president in 2019. However, his interim government was officially dissolved by the opposition-led National Assembly in January 2023, and he is not recognized by Venezuela's Supreme Court (TSJ).
Which one of the following forests is the most dominant forest in India?
A)
Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest
B)
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
C)
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
D)
Tropical Deciduous Forest
Tropical Deciduous Forests (also known as Monsoon Forests) are the most widespread and dominant forest type in India, covering more than 60% of the country's forested area. They are found in regions receiving rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm. While Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest (option b) is a major sub-type, the broader category of Tropical Deciduous Forest (option d)—which encompasses both Moist and Dry Deciduous forests—is the most complete and correct answer. Tropical Wet Evergreen (option c) and Semi-Evergreen (option a) forests are restricted to heavy rainfall zones like the Western Ghats and Northeast India, covering a much smaller area.
Guru Ghasidas is one of the largest National Parks in India and is located in the state of:
A)
Gujarat
B)
Uttarakhand
C)
Chhattisgarh
D)
Andhra Pradesh
Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in the Koriya district of Chhattisgarh. It was formerly part of the Sanjay National Park before Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh, and it is one of the largest national parks in India. In 2021, it was also declared as a Tiger Reserve.
- Option a (Gujarat) is incorrect; it is famous for Gir National Park and Blackbuck National Park.
- Option b (Uttarakhand) is incorrect; it is home to Jim Corbett National Park and Valley of Flowers National Park.
- Option d (Andhra Pradesh) is incorrect; it is known for Papikonda National Park and Sri Venkateswara National Park.
The oldest fold mountain in India is:
A)
Cardamom Hills
B)
Aravallis
C)
Nilgiri Hills
D)
Rajmahal Hills
The Aravalli Range is the oldest fold mountain range in India, dating back to the Proterozoic era (around 1.8 billion years ago). Over time, weathering and erosion have reduced it to a residual mountain range.
- **Cardamom Hills (a)** and **Nilgiri Hills (c)** are part of the Western Ghats, which are much younger block/faulted mountains formed during the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras.
- **Rajmahal Hills (d)** are volcanic hills formed during the Jurassic period, making them significantly younger than the ancient Aravallis.
Which of the following best defines ‘Worker-Population Ratio’?
A)
The number of people unemployed divided by total population.
B)
The number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population.
C)
The ratio of male workers to female workers.
D)
The ratio of workers in the industrial sector to those in agriculture.
The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a key indicator used to analyze the employment situation in a country. It is defined as the percentage of the total population that is actively employed, calculated as: (Number of Employed Persons / Total Population) * 100. Therefore, it represents the number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to unemployment rather than employment. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they describe the gender ratio of workers and the sectoral distribution of workers, respectively, rather than the overall worker-to-population ratio.
Which one of the following is the largest container port in India?
A)
Kochi
B)
Vishakhapatnam
C)
Mangalore
D)
Nhava Sheva, Mumbai
Nhava Sheva (also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port, JNPT), located in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, is the largest container port in India, handling more than half of the container cargo across all major ports in the country. Kochi (a) is known for its International Container Transshipment Terminal at Vallarpadam but handles far less volume than JNPT. Vishakhapatnam (b) is a major port on the east coast primarily known for bulk cargo like iron ore and coal. Mangalore (c) is a major port in Karnataka that mainly handles bulk and liquid cargo rather than large-scale container traffic.
The objective of industrial decentralization is to:
A)
Increase imports
B)
Increase monopolies
C)
Reduce regional imbalances
D)
Concentrate industries in cities
Industrial decentralization is the policy of spreading industrial units across different regions, particularly in backward or rural areas, rather than concentrating them in a few urban centers. The primary objective of this policy is to promote balanced regional development and reduce regional economic imbalances by generating employment and income in less-developed areas. Option 'a' is incorrect because decentralization is a spatial planning policy, not a trade policy. Option 'b' is incorrect because decentralization encourages competition and small-scale enterprises, which helps prevent monopolies. Option 'd' is incorrect because concentrating industries in cities is the definition of industrial centralization, which leads to urban congestion and regional disparity.
Interest payments on public debt form part of:
A)
Revenue expenditure
B)
Capital expenditure
C)
Capital receipts
D)
Development expenditure
Interest payments on public debt are classified under Revenue Expenditure because they are recurring expenses that do not result in the creation of any physical or financial assets, nor do they reduce the liability of the government (as only interest is paid, not the principal loan amount).
- **Capital expenditure (b)** is incorrect because it refers to spending that creates assets or reduces liabilities (such as the repayment of the principal loan amount).
- **Capital receipts (c)** is incorrect because these are inflows of funds that create liabilities or reduce assets (like market borrowings or disinvestment), whereas interest payments are outflows.
- **Development expenditure (d)** is incorrect because interest payments do not directly contribute to economic or social development activities and are thus classified as non-developmental expenditure.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced to:
A)
Promote exports
B)
Protect farmers from price fluctuations
C)
Control inflation
D)
Increase tax revenue
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. 1. Why Option B is correct: MSP is announced at the beginning of the sowing season to guarantee a floor price for crops, thereby protecting farmers from price fluctuations, market uncertainties, and distress sales during bumper harvests. 2. Why other options are incorrect: Option A is incorrect because MSP is an internal price support mechanism, not an export promotion scheme. Option C is incorrect because MSP sets a minimum price floor which can sometimes put upward pressure on food prices, rather than controlling inflation. Option D is incorrect because MSP is a government expenditure/subsidy program to support farmers, not a tool to generate tax revenue.
Disinvestment refers to:
A)
Increase in subsidies
B)
Closure of private firms
C)
Nationalization of industries
D)
Sale of government equity in public enterprises
Disinvestment refers to the process of the government selling or liquidating its shareholding/equity in public sector enterprises to private buyers or the general public. This is done to raise revenue, reduce fiscal burden, and improve efficiency. Option 'a' (increase in subsidies) is a form of government expenditure. Option 'b' (closure of private firms) is unrelated to public asset management. Option 'c' (nationalization of industries) is the exact opposite of disinvestment, where private assets are taken over by the government.
Which one of the following rivers originates from the Himalayas?
A)
Chambal
B)
Damodar
C)
Gandak
D)
Kaveri
The Gandak River is a major river that originates in the high Himalayas of Nepal (specifically from the Nhubine Himal glacier near the Tibet border) before flowing into India, where it joins the Ganges.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Chambal (a):** It originates in the Vindhya Range near Mhow in Madhya Pradesh, which is a peninsular river system.
- **Damodar (b):** It originates in the Chota Nagpur Plateau in Jharkhand, which is also a peninsular river.
- **Kaveri (d):** It originates in the Brahmagiri hills of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, making it a major peninsular river of southern India.
Identify the correct chronological order of the following events in the Indian Economy: 1. Establishment of the Planning Commission. 2. Nationalisation of Commercial Banks. 3. Introduction of New Economic Policy (LPG). 4. Setting up of NITI Aayog.
A)
1, 3, 2, 4
B)
1, 2, 3, 4
C)
2, 1, 3, 4
D)
1, 2, 4, 3
To find the correct chronological order, we look at the years these events occurred in the Indian Economy:
1. **Establishment of the Planning Commission**: March 15, 1950.
2. **Nationalisation of Commercial Banks**: July 19, 1969 (when 14 major commercial banks were nationalised).
3. **Introduction of New Economic Policy (LPG)**: July 1991 (marking Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation reforms).
4. **Setting up of NITI Aayog**: January 1, 2015 (replacing the Planning Commission).
This gives us the chronological sequence of 1, 2, 3, 4, which corresponds to option **b**. Other options are incorrect because they do not follow this correct timeline (for instance, option 'a' places LPG before bank nationalisation, option 'c' places bank nationalisation before the Planning Commission, and option 'd' places NITI Aayog before LPG).
What is the primary function of the ‘Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’?
A)
To provide loans directly to farmers and industrialists.
B)
To issue currency and control money supply.
C)
To collect taxes on behalf of the government.
D)
To manage the stock market operations.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, and its primary function is to issue currency notes and control the money supply and credit in the economy to maintain price stability. Option 'a' is incorrect because the RBI does not provide direct loans to individuals; this is done by commercial and cooperative banks. Option 'c' is incorrect because tax collection is managed by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue). Option 'd' is incorrect because stock market operations are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
The incidence of poverty refers to:
A)
Causes of poverty
B)
Depth of poverty
C)
Intensity of unemployment
D)
Proportion of population living below the poverty line
The 'incidence of poverty' (often measured by the headcount ratio) refers to the proportion of the population living below the poverty line. It indicates how widespread poverty is within a given population. In contrast, 'causes of poverty' (option a) refers to the underlying factors that lead to poverty; 'depth of poverty' (option b) measures how far below the poverty line the poor actually fall (typically measured by the poverty gap index); and 'intensity of unemployment' (option c) is an entirely different economic metric relating to the labor market.
Repo rate refers to the rate at which?
A)
Banks lend to RBI
B)
RBI lends short-term funds to banks
C)
Government borrows
D)
Public borrows from banks
Repo rate (Repurchase Option rate) is the benchmark interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities to manage liquidity in the banking system.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the rate at which banks lend/deposit their excess funds with the RBI is called the Reverse Repo Rate.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the rate at which the government borrows is determined by the yields on Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the rate at which the public borrows from banks is known as the retail lending rate (such as MCLR, Base Rate, or external benchmark-linked rates).
Terms of trade measure the relationship between:
A)
Imports and GDP
B)
Export prices and import prices
C)
Exports and GDP
D)
Balance of payments and trade
The 'Terms of Trade' (TOT) is an economic metric defined as the ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices, calculated as (Index of Export Prices / Index of Import Prices) * 100. It measures how many units of imports a country can purchase for every unit of exports. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect because the ratio of exports or imports to GDP measures trade openness, not terms of trade. Option 'd' is incorrect because the Balance of Payments is a comprehensive record of all economic transactions between residents of the country and the rest of the world, which is distinct from the price-based terms of trade.
Which of the following is a ‘Non-Tariff Barrier’?
A)
Import Duty
B)
Customs Tax
C)
Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas)
D)
Export Subsidy
A 'Non-Tariff Barrier' (NTB) refers to any measure other than a tariff (tax) that restricts international trade. Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas) limit the physical quantity of a good that can be imported into a country, making it a classic example of a non-tariff barrier. In contrast, Import Duty (a) and Customs Tax (b) are direct taxes levied on imports, which are classified as Tariff Barriers. Export Subsidies (d) are financial incentives provided to domestic producers to encourage exports, rather than a direct barrier to imports.
With reference to the 1991 Economic Reforms, ‘Stabilisation Measures’ refer to:
A)
Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy.
B)
Short-term measures to correct Balance of Payments and control inflation.
C)
Privatisation of all Public Sector Units.
D)
Removal of all trade barriers immediately.
In the context of the 1991 Economic Reforms in India, the policy measures were broadly classified into two categories: Stabilisation Measures and Structural Reform Measures.
1. **Why Option 'b' is correct:** Stabilisation measures are short-term measures intended to correct the balance of payments (BoP) crisis and bring inflation under control. They aimed to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves and stabilize prices.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option 'a'** describes 'Structural Reform Measures', which are long-term policies aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing international competitiveness.
- **Option 'c'** is incorrect because the privatisation of Public Sector Units (PSUs) was a gradual process under structural reforms, not a stabilisation measure.
- **Option 'd'** is incorrect because trade barriers were reduced gradually over time under liberalisation (structural reforms), rather than being removed immediately.
Which region in India is a major hub for the Iron and Steel Industry, benefiting from raw material proximity?
A)
Northern Gangetic Plain
B)
Konkan Plain
C)
Kerala Plain
D)
Chotanagpur Plateau
The Chotanagpur Plateau is the correct answer because it is highly rich in mineral resources, particularly iron ore, coking coal, manganese, and limestone, which are the essential raw materials for the iron and steel industry. Major steel plants like Jamshedpur (TISCO), Bokaro, Durgapur, and Rourkela are located in or near this region due to this proximity. In contrast, the Northern Gangetic Plain (a) is an alluvial region primarily suited for agriculture, while the Konkan Plain (b) and Kerala Plain (c) are coastal regions that lack the heavy mineral deposits required to sustain a major iron and steel hub.