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Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Satyagraha is a philosophy of action based on -

A) violence
B) kindness
C) love
D) truth, tolerance, non-violence and peaceful protests
Satyagraha, a term coined by Mahatma Gandhi, is derived from the Sanskrit words 'Satya' (truth) and 'Agraha' (holding firmly to). It is a philosophy of non-violent resistance to injustice. 1. Why option (d) is correct: Satyagraha is fundamentally based on the pursuit of Truth (Satya) and the practice of Non-violence (Ahimsa). It involves the use of peaceful protests, civil disobedience, and tolerance to appeal to the conscience of the oppressor to bring about a change of heart. 2. Why option (a) is incorrect: Satyagraha is the antithesis of violence; it explicitly rejects physical force. 3. Why option (b) and (c) are incorrect: While kindness and love are inherent qualities of a Satyagrahi, they are emotional attributes rather than the comprehensive philosophical framework of 'action' that defines Satyagraha. The philosophy is specifically structured around Truth and Non-violence as tools for political and social change.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

At present, which of the following states is the highest producer of rice in India?

A) Andra Pradesh
B) Punjab
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Rice is the staple food crop of India and requires high temperature, high humidity, and heavy rainfall. 2. West Bengal is the leading producer of rice in India due to its fertile alluvial soil (Gangetic plains) and favorable climatic conditions, including high rainfall and the ability to grow multiple crops of rice per year (Aus, Aman, and Boro). 3. While Punjab (Option b) is a major producer and has high productivity per hectare due to the Green Revolution and irrigation, its total production volume is lower than that of West Bengal. 4. Andhra Pradesh (Option a) and Tamil Nadu (Option d) are significant producers in South India, but they do not surpass West Bengal in total output. Therefore, West Bengal is consistently the highest producer of rice in India.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Reserve Bank of India was established on -

A) 1st January, 1935
B) 1 April, 1935
C) 1st January, 1949
D) 1st April, 1949
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It was initially established as a shareholders' bank. It is important to distinguish between its establishment date (1935) and its nationalization date; the RBI was nationalized on January 1, 1949, transitioning from a private entity to a government-owned institution. Therefore, Option (b) is the correct date of establishment, while Option (c) refers to its nationalization.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which sector makes the largest contributions to India’s GDP?

A) Primary Sector
B) Quaternary Sector
C) Secondary Sector
D) Tertiary Sector
The Indian economy is divided into three main sectors: Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary. 1. **Tertiary Sector (Service Sector):** This sector includes services such as banking, insurance, IT, tourism, transport, and healthcare. Over the last few decades, India has experienced a structural shift where the Tertiary sector has grown disproportionately faster than the others. It currently contributes more than 50% to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP), making it the largest contributor. 2. **Primary Sector:** This involves the extraction of raw materials (Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing, and Mining). While it employs a significant portion of the population, its contribution to the GDP has steadily declined over time. 3. **Secondary Sector:** This involves the processing of raw materials into finished goods (Manufacturing, Construction, and Electricity). While vital for growth, its contribution is lower than that of the service sector. 4. **Quaternary Sector:** This is a specialized subset of the tertiary sector focusing on knowledge-based activities (R&D, Information Technology). While high-value, it is not categorized as a standalone primary driver of GDP in the same way the broad Tertiary sector is.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Read the following points and choose the correct answer: 1. The doctrine of judicial review is originated and developed in the USA. 2. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both central and state governments. 3. Judicial Review is needed to uphold the principle of the supremacy of the Constitution. 4. Judicial Review power can also be exercise by both Union and State minister. Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A) 1,2 and 4
B) Only 3
C) 1,2 and 3
D) 1,3 and 4
Let's analyze each statement individually: 1. **Statement 1 is correct**: The doctrine of judicial review originated in the United States, specifically established in the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803), where the US Supreme Court asserted its power to strike down laws that violate the Constitution. 2. **Statement 2 is correct**: Judicial Review is defined as the power of the judiciary (courts) to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts (laws passed by Parliament or State Legislatures) and executive orders. If these are found to be in violation of the Constitution, the court can declare them null and void. 3. **Statement 3 is correct**: In countries with a written constitution (like India and the USA), the Constitution is the supreme law of the land. Judicial review is the mechanism used to ensure that no law or government action contradicts the Constitution, thereby upholding the principle of Constitutional Supremacy. 4. **Statement 4 is incorrect**: Judicial Review is a judicial function. It is the exclusive power of the Judiciary (the Courts). Union and State ministers belong to the Executive branch; they cannot exercise the power of judicial review, as that would violate the principle of Separation of Powers. Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct and statement 4 is incorrect, the correct option is (c).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Recognition of Political parties in India is accorded by the -

A) Election Commission of India
B) State Legislative Assembly
C) Parliament
D) President of India
In India, the recognition of political parties and the allotment of election symbols are handled by the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI grants the status of a 'National Party' or a 'State Party' based on specific criteria related to the percentage of votes polled and the number of seats won in the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly elections. Why other options are incorrect: - b. State Legislative Assembly: This is a legislative body that makes laws for the state; it does not have the constitutional authority to recognize political parties. - c. Parliament: While Parliament makes laws governing elections (such as the Representation of the People Act), it does not perform the administrative task of recognizing individual parties. - d. President of India: The President is the head of state and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers; the President does not manage the registration or recognition of political parties.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

What is the largest Commercial bank in India?

A) Bank of Baroda
B) ICICI
C) Punjab National Bank
D) State Bank of India
The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest commercial bank in India in terms of assets, deposits, branches, and employees. It is a public sector bank and a Fortune 500 company. Analysis of options: - State Bank of India (SBI): The largest public sector bank and the largest overall commercial bank in India. - ICICI Bank: One of the largest private sector banks, but smaller than SBI in total assets and reach. - Punjab National Bank (PNB): A major public sector bank, but significantly smaller than SBI. - Bank of Baroda: Another leading public sector bank, but it does not match the scale of SBI.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

In ancient Indian literature ‘Himadri’ is a name given to the -

A) Karakoram Range
B) Greater Himalaya
C) Kailash Range
D) Ajanta Range
The term 'Himadri' is derived from the Sanskrit words 'Hima' (snow) and 'Adri' (mountain), literally meaning 'the mountain of snow'. In Indian geography and ancient literature, it specifically refers to the Great Himalayas or the Greater Himalayas. This is the northernmost and highest range of the Himalayan system, containing the highest peaks including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga. Why other options are incorrect: - a. Karakoram Range: While it is a high mountain range in the Trans-Himalayan region, it is not referred to as Himadri. - c. Kailash Range: This is part of the Tibetan plateau/Trans-Himalayan region and is distinct from the main Himadri range. - d. Ajanta Range: These are hills located in the Western Ghats (Maharashtra), far south of the Himalayan system.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The geographical area of Dampa Tiger Reserve in Mizoram is:

A) 50sq.km.
B) 250 sq. km.
C) 500 sq. km.
D) 750 sq. km.
The Dampa Tiger Reserve is located in the western part of Mizoram. It is one of the most significant protected areas in the state, known for its rich biodiversity and dense tropical rainforests. According to official records from the Government of Mizoram and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), the total geographical area of the Dampa Tiger Reserve is approximately 750 square kilometers. Comparing this to the options: - Option (a) 50 sq. km. is far too small for a tiger reserve. - Option (b) 250 sq. km. and Option (c) 500 sq. km. are incorrect as they do not match the official designated area of the reserve. - Option (d) 750 sq. km. is the accurate measurement of the reserve's area.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which of the following policies deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the government?

A) Fiscal policy
B) Labour Market policy
C) Monetary policy
D) Trade policy
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. **Definition of Fiscal Policy**: Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending (expenditure) and tax collection (taxation) to influence the economy. It is managed by the government (Ministry of Finance in India) to achieve goals such as price stability, full employment, and economic growth. 2. **Analyzing the Question**: The question specifically asks for the policy dealing with 'taxation' and 'expenditure decisions'. This aligns perfectly with the definition of Fiscal Policy. 3. **Evaluating Other Options**: - **Labour Market policy (b)**: Deals with employment laws, minimum wages, and workforce regulations, not government taxation or spending. - **Monetary policy (c)**: Managed by the Central Bank (e.g., RBI in India). It deals with the money supply, interest rates, and banking regulations to control inflation and stabilize the currency. - **Trade policy (d)**: Deals with tariffs, quotas, and trade agreements between nations to regulate imports and exports. Therefore, option (a) is the only correct answer.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The Policy of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization was announced as New Economic Policy (NEP) by the Prime Minister -

A) Indira Gandhi
B) Narendra Modi
C) Narasimha Rao
D) Manmohan Singh
The New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991, characterized by Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), was introduced in July 1991. At that time, P. V. Narasimha Rao was the Prime Minister of India. While Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Finance Minister and is widely credited as the architect of these reforms, the policy was announced and implemented under the leadership of Prime Minister Narasimha Rao. Analysis of other options: - Indira Gandhi: Served as PM during the 1970s and 80s; her tenure was marked by nationalization (e.g., banks in 1969), which is the opposite of privatization. - Narendra Modi: Current PM (since 2014), long after the 1991 reforms. - Manmohan Singh: He was the Finance Minister in 1991 who designed the policy, but he was not the Prime Minister at the time of the announcement (he became PM later in 2004).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

AGMARK Act was implemented in India in the year -

A) 1936
B) 1937
C) 1938
D) 1939
The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, commonly known as the AGMARK Act, was enacted in India in 1937. The purpose of this act is to provide a mechanism for the grading and marking of agricultural produce to ensure quality and protect consumers from fraud. AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI). - Option (a) 1936: Incorrect. - Option (b) 1937: Correct. This is the year the Act was implemented. - Option (c) 1938: Incorrect. - Option (d) 1939: Incorrect.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The slogan of which Five-Year Plan in India is “Faster, More inclusive and Sustainable Growth”?

A) Eight
B) Ninth
C) Eleventh
D) Twelfth
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) was the last five-year plan implemented in India before the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog. Its primary objective and slogan was 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth'. Breakdown of the slogan: 1. Faster: Aiming for a higher GDP growth rate. 2. More Inclusive: Ensuring that the benefits of growth reach all sections of society, reducing poverty and inequality. 3. Sustainable: Ensuring that economic growth does not compromise the environment or the needs of future generations. Why other options are incorrect: - The Eighth Plan (1992-97) focused on 'Human Resource Development'. - The Ninth Plan (1997-2002) focused on 'Growth with Social Justice and Equity'. - The Eleventh Plan (2007-12) had the theme 'Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth' (it lacked the 'Sustainable' component which was added in the Twelfth Plan).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The Chota-Nagpur plateau is famous for its richness on:

A) Uranium
B) Plutonium
C) Coal
D) Sand
The Chota Nagpur Plateau, located primarily in Jharkhand, with extensions into Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh, is known as the 'Mineral Heart of India' due to its immense mineral wealth. It is particularly famous for its vast deposits of Coal (especially in the Damodar Valley region), Iron Ore, Mica, and Bauxite. Analysis of options: - a. Uranium: While Uranium is found in the plateau (e.g., Jaduguda mine), the region is far more 'famous' and economically defined by its massive coal reserves. - b. Plutonium: Plutonium is a synthetic element produced in nuclear reactors; it does not occur naturally in geological deposits. - c. Coal: Correct. The region contains some of India's largest coal fields (like Jharia and Raniganj), making it the primary hub for coal mining in the country. - d. Sand: Sand is a common sedimentary material found globally and is not a specialized mineral richness associated with the geological identity of the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

73 Amendment Act,1992 exempted the following states of NE India:

A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram
B) Tripura only
C) Assam only
D) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which institutionalized the Panchayati Raj System in India, provided for a uniform three-tier structure of local self-government. However, the Act allowed for certain exemptions to protect the traditional social and cultural structures of specific regions. 1. **Exempted States:** The Act did not automatically apply to several states. Specifically, in North East India, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram were exempted from the mandatory application of the Act. This was done to respect the traditional tribal laws and customary practices prevalent in these states. 2. **Analysis of Options:** - Option (a) correctly lists Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram. - Option (b) Tripura is not exempted; it has implemented the Panchayati Raj system. - Option (c) Assam is not exempted; it has implemented the Panchayati Raj system. - Option (d) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh have adopted the Panchayati Raj system (though they may have specific modifications, they were not blanketly exempted in the same manner as the three states mentioned in option a). Therefore, the correct set of exempted North Eastern states is Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Who first estimated the National Income in India?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) RC Dutta
C) VK RV Rao
D) DR Gadgil
Dadabhai Naoroji is credited as the first person to estimate the National Income of India. In 1867-68, he published his findings in his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', where he estimated the per capita income of Indians to be approximately ₹20 per annum. His work was pioneering in using statistical data to critique the economic impact of British colonial rule (the 'Drain of Wealth' theory). Why other options are incorrect: - RC Dutta: While he was a contemporary nationalist and economist who wrote extensively on the economic history of India, he was not the first to estimate national income. - VK RV Rao: V.K.R.V. Rao is known for providing the first *scientific* and more accurate estimate of India's national income in 1931-32, but he was not the first overall. - DR Gadgil: D.R. Gadgil was a prominent economist and planner in post-independence India, far later than the initial attempts by Naoroji.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Lokayukta submits its report to the -

A) Chief Minister
B) Chief Justice of the High Court
C) Governor
D) Speaker ofthe Legislative Assembly
The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization in Indian states. While the specific rules can vary slightly by state legislation, the general constitutional and administrative framework for the Lokayukta dictates that it submits its annual reports or reports on specific investigations to the Governor of the state. The Governor then typically causes the report to be laid before the State Legislature. - Option (a) Chief Minister: The Lokayukta is designed to be an independent body to investigate corruption, including that of the executive; therefore, submitting reports to the CM would compromise its independence. - Option (b) Chief Justice of the High Court: While the Chief Justice is often involved in the appointment process of the Lokayukta, they are not the recipient of the official reports. - Option (d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly: While the report is eventually laid before the Assembly, it is formally submitted to the Governor first.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Which of the following statements pertaining to the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act of 1992 is correct?

A) It contends that it will consider a constitutional status for Panchayat Raj institutions in future.
B) It does not provide a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions.
C) It undid the constitutional status that was provided to Panchayat Raj institutions earlier.
D) It provides a constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj institutions.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 is a landmark piece of legislation in India that institutionalized Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). 1. **Constitutional Status**: Before 1992, Panchayats existed based on state laws and were not mandatory or uniform. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution of India (Articles 243 to 243-O), thereby granting them a formal constitutional status. This meant that the establishment of Panchayats became a constitutional mandate rather than a discretionary policy of state governments. 2. **Analysis of Options**: - **Option (a)** is incorrect because the Act did not 'consider' status for the future; it implemented it immediately upon enactment. - **Option (b)** is incorrect because the primary purpose of the Act was specifically to provide constitutional status. - **Option (c)** is incorrect because there was no prior constitutional status for Panchayats to 'undo'; previous efforts (like the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommendations) were implemented through administrative orders and state legislation, not constitutional amendments. - **Option (d)** is correct as it accurately describes the core outcome of the 73rd Amendment Act.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

What type of economy does India have?

A) Socialist economy
B) Closed economy
C) Open economy
D) Mixed economy
India follows a 'Mixed Economy' model, which is a system that blends elements of both market-based (capitalist) and planned (socialist) economies. In a mixed economy, both the private sector and the public sector (government) coexist. The private sector operates for profit and is driven by market forces, while the public sector manages essential services and strategic industries to ensure social welfare and equitable distribution of resources. Why other options are incorrect: - a. Socialist economy: In a purely socialist economy, the state owns all means of production and there is no private property. India allows private ownership and entrepreneurship. - b. Closed economy: A closed economy does not engage in international trade. India is heavily involved in global trade (imports and exports). - c. Open economy: While India is indeed an 'open economy' (meaning it trades with other nations), the term 'Mixed Economy' is the standard and more comprehensive classification used in economics to describe the structural nature of India's ownership and resource allocation system.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right by the -

A) 76th Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act
C) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
D) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act
The Right to Education was made a Fundamental Right through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India, which declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. Additionally, it changed the subject matter of Article 45 (Directive Principles of State Policy) and inserted a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) requiring parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children. Analysis of other options: - 76th Amendment Act (1976): Related to the Ninth Schedule and the protection of certain laws from judicial review. - 83rd Amendment Act (2000): Related to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. - 93rd Amendment Act (2005): Related to the reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

National Development Council was constituted on -

A) 16 August 1950
B) 18 April 1951
C) 6th August 1952
D) 16 August 1952
The National Development Council (NDC) was established on August 6, 1952, but it was formally constituted and held its first meeting on August 16, 1952. The NDC was created to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in pursuit of the goals set out in the Five-Year Plans. It serves as the highest body for deciding the final priorities and allocating resources of the Five-Year Plans. Analysis of options: - Option (a) 16 August 1950: Incorrect. The Planning Commission was established in 1950, but the NDC came later. - Option (b) 18 April 1951: Incorrect. This date does not correspond to the formation of the NDC. - Option (c) 6th August 1952: While some sources mention the announcement or initiation around this date, the official constitution/first meeting date recognized in standard Indian Polity and Economy textbooks is August 16, 1952. - Option (d) 16 August 1952: Correct. This is the officially recognized date of the constitution of the NDC.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The slogan “Garibi Hatao” was introduced in which Five-Year Plan?

A) 1st Five-Year Plan
B) 3rd Five-Year Plan
C) 5th Five-Year Plan
D) 7th Five-Year Plan
The slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was a central theme of Indira Gandhi's political campaign during the 1971 general elections. This objective was formally integrated into the 5th Five-Year Plan (1974–1978). The plan focused on poverty alleviation, employment generation, and social justice, marking a shift toward more direct intervention in poverty reduction. Analysis of other options: - a. 1st Five-Year Plan (1951–1956): Focused primarily on agricultural development and irrigation to ensure food security. - b. 3rd Five-Year Plan (1961–1966): Aimed at making the economy 'self-reliant' and self-generating, but was disrupted by wars with China and Pakistan. - d. 7th Five-Year Plan (1985–1990): Focused on food grain production, employment, and productivity, but the 'Garibi Hatao' slogan originated much earlier in the 5th Plan.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

“Swaraj is my birth right and I shail have it.” Who said this?

A) J.P. Narayan
B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C) M.N. Roy
D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
The famous slogan 'Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it' was coined by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent leader of the Indian Independence movement and one of the 'Lal-Bal-Pal' triumvirate. He used this phrase to mobilize the masses and demand self-rule (Swaraj) from the British colonial government, shifting the goal of the Indian National Congress from mere petitions to active demand for autonomy. Analysis of other options: - J.P. Narayan: A socialist leader and key figure in the 1970s 'Total Revolution' movement, active much later than the origin of this slogan. - M.N. Roy: A prominent Marxist theorist and founder of the Mexican Communist Party and the Communist Party of India. - Raja Ram Mohan Roy: Known as the 'Father of the Indian Renaissance,' he focused on social reforms (like the abolition of Sati) in the early 19th century, long before the Swaraj movement gained momentum.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

The nomenclature often used in Judicial Review ‘ultra vires ‘refer to -

A) Against the law
B) Equivalent to law
C) Found to be violative of the Constitution
D) Found to be acceptable with the case
The term 'ultra vires' is a Latin phrase meaning 'beyond the powers'. In the context of Judicial Review in Indian Polity and Administrative Law, it refers to an act, law, or regulation that exceeds the legal authority granted to the body that created it. Specifically, when a court declares a law 'ultra vires' the Constitution, it means the law has been found to be violative of the Constitution (e.g., it infringes upon Fundamental Rights or exceeds the legislative competence of the Parliament/State Legislature). Analysis of options: - Option (a) 'Against the law' is too general; while ultra vires acts are illegal, the specific nomenclature in Judicial Review usually refers to the lack of authority or constitutional violation. - Option (b) 'Equivalent to law' is incorrect as ultra vires implies a lack of legal validity. - Option (c) 'Found to be violative of the Constitution' is the precise application of the term in the context of constitutional judicial review. - Option (d) 'Found to be acceptable with the case' is the opposite of the meaning of ultra vires.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2024 • General Studies Paper-II

Last session of existing Lok Sabha, after a new Lok Sabha has been elected is called -

A) Lame - duck session
B) Dysfunctional Session
C) Non-Functional Session
D) Non-Performing Session
The term 'Lame-duck session' refers to the final session of the existing Lok Sabha (the House of the People) after a new Lok Sabha has been elected but before the current one is formally dissolved. During this period, the members of the outgoing house are referred to as 'lame ducks' because they no longer possess the power to influence future legislation or represent their constituents in the next term, yet they remain in office until the new house takes over. Why other options are incorrect: - b. Dysfunctional Session: This is not a constitutional or parliamentary term; it describes a session that is not working properly due to disruptions. - c. Non-Functional Session: This is not a recognized parliamentary term. - d. Non-Performing Session: This is a descriptive phrase, not a formal political or legal term used in the Indian Parliamentary system.
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