← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
The Lakher Pioneer Mission was founded in 1905 by:
A)
J.H. Lorrain
B)
R.A. Lorrain
C)
F.W. Savidge
D)
D.E. Jones
The Lakher Pioneer Mission was founded in 1905 by Reginald Arthur Lorrain (R.A. Lorrain), who was the younger brother of J.H. Lorrain. He, along with his wife Maud, established the mission to work among the Mara (Lakher) people in the southern part of Mizoram.
- J.H. Lorrain (James Herbert Lorrain) and F.W. Savidge (Frederick William Savidge) were pioneer missionaries who arrived in Mizoram in 1894 under the Arthington Aborigines Mission and are famous for creating the Mizo alphabet and translating the Bible.
- D.E. Jones (David Evan Jones) was a Welsh Presbyterian missionary who arrived in Mizoram in 1897 and played a key role in establishing the Presbyterian Church there.
Who among the following was an Assistant to Sadawt?
A)
Bawlpu
B)
Puithiam
C)
Tlahpawi
D)
Rahsi
In traditional Mizo society, religious ceremonies and sacrifices were conducted by different types of priests. The 'Sadawt' was the chief's personal or clan priest who performed public sacrifices. The 'Tlahpawi' served as the assistant to the Sadawt during these rituals. Among the other options: 'Bawlpu' was a priest or exorcist who performed sacrifices to cure illnesses; 'Puithiam' is a general term for a priest or high priest; and 'Rahsi' was a village messenger or administrative assistant to the chief, not a priestly assistant.
Consider the following statements: (i) India launched its first full-fledged Meteorological Satellite (METSAT) in September, 2002. (ii) For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV C-4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a gyosynchronous orbit Which of the statement (s) given above is/ are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct:
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: India successfully launched its first exclusive, full-fledged meteorological satellite, METSAT (later renamed Kalpana-1 in memory of astronaut Kalpana Chawla), on September 12, 2002.
2. **Statement (ii) is correct**: The launch vehicle used was PSLV-C4. This mission marked the first time that the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was used to inject a payload of over 1000 kg (METSAT weighed about 1060 kg) into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Since both statements are factually accurate, option (c) is the correct choice.
The main focus of recently launched Interdisciplinary Centre for Energy Research includes
A)
Development of next-generation solar photovoltaic cell only
B)
Both solar photovoltaic cell and bio-fuels
C)
Novel energy storage technologies only
D)
Next-generation solar photovoltaic cell, novel energy storage technologies and bio-fuels
The Interdisciplinary Centre for Energy Research (ICER), established at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, is a major initiative focused on conducting cutting-edge research in the field of energy. Its main research thrust areas include the development of next-generation solar photovoltaic cells, novel energy storage technologies, bio-fuels, clean coal technologies, and concentrated solar power. Therefore, Option D is correct as it comprehensively covers these key focus areas. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are too restrictive (often using the word 'only') and fail to encompass the full, multi-disciplinary scope of the centre's research mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding Global Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) Research: (i) Launched in May 2018 on the sidelines of 71st session of World Health Assembly (ii) India is yet to become a member Which of the statement (s) given above is/ are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
Statement (i) is correct: The Global Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) R&D Hub was officially launched in May 2018 on the sidelines of the 71st session of the World Health Assembly in Geneva, Switzerland. Statement (ii) is incorrect: India is already a member of the Global AMR R&D Hub, having joined in September 2019. Therefore, only statement (i) is correct.
TIFR recently found that monoamine neurotransmitter known as Serotonin may help treat neurological decline. The chemical name of the compound is
A)
5-hydroxytryptamine
B)
Epinephrine
C)
Triiodothyronine
D)
Polymerase
Serotonin is a monoamine neurotransmitter chemically known as 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT). It is synthesized from the essential amino acid L-tryptophan and plays a crucial role in regulating mood, sleep, and cognitive functions.
- Option 'b' (Epinephrine), also known as adrenaline, is a hormone and neurotransmitter involved in the body's fight-or-flight response.
- Option 'c' (Triiodothyronine), also known as T3, is a thyroid hormone that regulates metabolism.
- Option 'd' (Polymerase) is an enzyme that synthesizes long chains of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) and is not a neurotransmitter.
Who among the Mizo chiefs last surrendered himself to the British?
A)
Vanphunga
B)
Kalkhama
C)
Kairuma
D)
Bengkhuaia
Chief Kairuma was the last major independent Mizo chief to surrender to the British. To subdue him, the British launched the Kairuma Expedition in 1895–1896. His submission in 1896 marked the complete pacification and annexation of the Lushai Hills (Mizoram) by the British. Among the other options: Kalkhama (b) surrendered earlier in the 1890s and died in Hazaribagh jail; Bengkhuaia (d) was prominent during the 1871–72 expedition and died much earlier; and Vanphunga (a) was subdued during the Chin-Lushai Expedition of 1889–1890.
The first known organization formed by the Mizos was:
A)
Young Lushai Association
B)
Lungleh Association
C)
The Lushai Students’ Association
D)
Mizo Hmeichhe Insuihkhawm Pawl
The Young Lushai Association (YLA), established on June 15, 1935, is recognized as the first known voluntary organization formed by the Mizos. It was initiated with the help of Christian missionaries to promote social service and community development, and was later renamed the Young Mizo Association (YMA) in 1947. Other options are incorrect because: 'The Lushai Students’ Association' and 'Lungleh Association' were formed later, and the 'Mizo Hmeichhe Insuihkhawm Pawl' (MHIP), a prominent women's organization, was established much later in 1974.
Cryogenics technology find application in
A)
surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry
B)
space travel, surgery and telemetry
C)
quantum computers, space travel and magnetic levitation
D)
telemetry, quantum computers and space travel
Cryogenics is the study and production of materials at extremely low temperatures (below -150 °C).
1. **Why Option C is correct:**
- **Space travel:** Cryogenic engines use liquefied gases (like liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen) as propellants for rockets.
- **Magnetic levitation:** Superconducting magnets used in Maglev trains require cryogenic cooling (using liquid helium or nitrogen) to achieve zero electrical resistance.
- **Quantum computers:** Superconducting quantum processors must be kept at temperatures close to absolute zero (using cryogenic dilution refrigerators) to prevent decoherence of qubits.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- Options **a**, **b**, and **d** all include **telemetry**. Telemetry is the automatic measurement and wireless transmission of data from remote sources to receiving equipment. It is an electronic communication technology and does not utilize or rely on cryogenic temperatures, making these options incorrect.
Consider the following statements: (i) In November 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi-II missile. (ii) Prithvi-II missile is a surface to air missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks. Which of the statement (s) given above is/ are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
1. **Statement (i) is correct**: On November 27, 2006, India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted its first anti-ballistic missile interception test. In this test, a modified Prithvi-II missile was utilized as the target missile (simulating an incoming enemy ballistic missile) and was successfully intercepted at an altitude of 50 km by the Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) missile.
2. **Statement (ii) is incorrect**: Prithvi-II is a single-stage, liquid-fueled tactical surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM), not a surface-to-air missile. Air defence systems (like Akash or PAD/AAD) are used to guard metros against air attacks, not surface-to-surface missiles like Prithvi-II.
Therefore, only statement (i) is correct, making option 'a' the correct choice.
The concept of five year planning in India was derived from
A)
USSR
B)
UK
C)
USA
D)
China
The concept of Five-Year Plans in India was borrowed from the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR). India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, was deeply influenced by the Soviet model of centralized economic planning, leading to the establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950 and the launch of the First Five-Year Plan in 1951. Other options are incorrect because: the UK (b) and USA (c) are capitalist, market-driven economies that do not use centralized state-directed five-year plans; and while China (d) also implemented five-year plans, its model was itself derived from the USSR, and India did not adopt the concept from China.
State Bank of India is
A)
Private Sector Bank
B)
Public Sector Bank
C)
Joint Sector Bank
D)
None of the above
State Bank of India (SBI) is a Public Sector Bank. Here is the breakdown of why this is correct:
1. **Why 'b' is correct:** SBI is a public sector bank because the Government of India holds the majority stake (over 50% of the shares) in it. It is the largest public sector bank in India and is a statutory body.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option 'a' (Private Sector Bank):** Incorrect because private sector banks are owned and managed by private individuals or institutions, not the government.
- **Option 'c' (Joint Sector Bank):** Incorrect because joint sector enterprises are jointly owned by the government and private individuals/companies, whereas SBI is classified under the public sector.
- **Option 'd' (None of the above):** Incorrect since option 'b' is the correct answer.
The national income estimation is the responsibility of
A)
NSSO
B)
CSO
C)
Finance Ministry
D)
National Income Committee
The Central Statistical Office (CSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is the official agency responsible for the estimation and publication of National Income in India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- (a) NSSO (National Sample Survey Office) is responsible for conducting large-scale sample surveys on various socio-economic aspects, not for national income estimation.
- (c) Finance Ministry is responsible for formulating fiscal policies, the Union Budget, and managing the country's finances.
- (d) National Income Committee was a temporary committee appointed in 1949 (chaired by P.C. Mahalanobis) to formulate the methodology for national income estimation, but it is not a permanent body.
Silent Valley National Park has a number of rare animal and plant species. The National Park is located in
A)
Kashmir
B)
U.P
C)
Madhya Pradesh
D)
Kerela
Silent Valley National Park is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala (spelled 'Kerela' in the options), India. It is situated in the Nilgiri Hills and is famous for its unique, undisturbed tropical evergreen rain forests and rare species such as the endangered Lion-tailed Macaque.
- Option a (Kashmir) is incorrect; it is known for national parks like Dachigam and Hemis.
- Option b (U.P) is incorrect; its most famous national park is Dudhwa National Park.
- Option c (Madhya Pradesh) is incorrect; it is home to national parks like Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench.
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be declared Unconstitutional by the Supreme Court if it-
A)
Can take away any Fundamental right
B)
Violates the basic structure of the Constitution
C)
Replaces the parliamentary system with the presidential one
D)
All of the above
1. **Why 'b' is correct**: In the landmark *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) case, the Supreme Court of India introduced the 'Basic Structure Doctrine'. This doctrine rules that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter, damage, or destroy its core features or 'basic structure'. Any constitutional amendment that violates this basic structure is declared unconstitutional and void by the Supreme Court.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a' is incorrect**: Parliament can amend or abridge Fundamental Rights (for example, the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment), as long as the amendment does not damage the basic structure of the Constitution. Thus, taking away a fundamental right is not a standalone ground for unconstitutionality unless it violates the basic structure.
- **Option 'c' is incorrect**: While the parliamentary system is considered a part of the basic structure, replacing it is a specific example of a violation. The overarching legal ground for declaring any amendment unconstitutional is the violation of the 'Basic Structure' itself, making option 'b' the most accurate and comprehensive choice. Consequently, 'All of the above' (d) is incorrect.
What is true about Fundamental Rights?
A)
They are restrictions imposed upon the state
B)
They are justiciable
C)
They have a legal sanction behind them
D)
All of the above
All the given statements are true regarding Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
1. **Restrictions on the State (Option a):** Fundamental Rights operate as limitations on the powers of the State (executive and legislature) to prevent arbitrary and authoritarian rule, thereby protecting individual liberties.
2. **Justiciable (Option b):** They are justiciable in nature, meaning they are enforceable by the courts. Under Article 32 and Article 226, an individual can directly approach the Supreme Court or High Courts if their Fundamental Rights are violated.
3. **Legal Sanction (Option c):** They have the highest legal sanction as they are guaranteed by the Constitution. Under Article 13, any law that is inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights is declared null and void.
Since all three statements are correct, 'All of the above' is the right answer.
Which of the following articles deals with the procedure of amendment to the constitution?
A)
Article 368
B)
Article 369
C)
Article 370
D)
Article 311
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and outlines the procedure for doing so.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Article 369: Grants temporary power to Parliament to make laws with respect to certain matters in the State List as if they were in the Concurrent List.
- Article 370: Contained temporary provisions regarding the special status of Jammu and Kashmir (which was largely abrogated in 2019).
- Article 311: Deals with the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State.
The decisions of the Central administrative Tribunals can be challenged in the Supreme Court of India under the Article-
A)
323 A
B)
329
C)
243 C
D)
343
1. **Why Option A is correct:** Article 323 A of the Constitution of India enables the Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals (such as the Central Administrative Tribunal or CAT) for resolving disputes regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. Under the framework established pursuant to Article 323 A, decisions of the CAT could be challenged in the Supreme Court of India. (Note: Following the landmark *L. Chandra Kumar* case in 1997, the Supreme Court ruled that appeals must first lie before a Division Bench of the respective High Court under Article 226/227 before reaching the Supreme Court, but Article 323 A remains the constitutional source for these tribunals).
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Article 329 (Option b):** Relates to the bar on courts interfering in electoral matters.
- **Article 243 C (Option c):** Relates to the composition of Panchayats.
- **Article 343 (Option d):** Relates to the official language of the Union.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
A)
The Finance Minister
B)
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C)
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D)
The President of India
Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final and binding. This decision cannot be challenged in a court of law, in either House of Parliament, or even by the President.
- **Option a (The Finance Minister):** Although the Finance Minister introduces the budget and related financial bills, they do not have the constitutional authority to certify a bill as a Money Bill.
- **Option c (The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha):** The Rajya Sabha has very limited powers regarding Money Bills, and its Chairman has no authority to decide on the nature of the bill.
- **Option d (The President of India):** While a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the prior recommendation of the President, the final authority to certify it as a Money Bill rests solely with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the following was included as part of the land reforms initiated in India?
A)
Abolition of intermediaries
B)
Tenancy reforms
C)
Reorganization of agriculture
D)
All the above
Land reforms initiated in India post-independence were comprehensive institutional measures aimed at restructuring land ownership and distribution. They primarily consisted of three main components: (1) Abolition of intermediaries (such as Zamindars and Jagirdars) to establish a direct relationship between the state and the tiller; (2) Tenancy reforms to regulate rent, provide security of tenure, and grant ownership rights to tenants; and (3) Reorganization of agriculture, which included consolidation of fragmented land holdings and imposing land ceilings. Since all these measures (options a, b, and c) were integral parts of the land reform program, 'All the above' is the correct choice.
First Five Year Plan was launched in
A)
1948
B)
1949
C)
1950
D)
1951
The First Five-Year Plan of India was launched in 1951 (covering the period 1951–1956) under the leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and primarily focused on the development of the agricultural sector. The other options (1948, 1949, and 1950) are incorrect because the Planning Commission itself was established in March 1950, and the actual implementation of the first plan began in the fiscal year 1951.
Growth with Equity and Distributive Justice was determined as the main goal of :
A)
the ninth five year plan
B)
the sixth five year plan
C)
the second five year plan
D)
the tenth five year plan
The Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002) was launched with the primary objective of 'Growth with Equity and Distributive Justice' (often referred to as 'Growth with Social Justice and Equality'). It focused on prioritizing agriculture and rural development, generating productive employment, and eradicating poverty. In contrast, the Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961) focused on rapid industrialization and heavy industries; the Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-1985) targeted poverty eradication ('Garibi Hatao') and technological self-reliance; and the Tenth Five Year Plan (2002-2007) aimed to double per capita income and reduce poverty rates.
The problem of unfavourable balance of payment arise
A)
when imports increase
B)
when exports increase
C)
when exports decrease
D)
when imports are greater than exports
An unfavourable balance of payment (or trade deficit) occurs when a country's total expenditure on imports of goods and services exceeds its total earnings from exports. Therefore, the condition where imports are greater than exports directly defines an unfavourable balance. Options 'a' and 'c' (increase in imports or decrease in exports) can contribute to a deficit but do not guarantee it if exports still exceed imports. Option 'b' (increase in exports) leads to a favourable balance of payment.
The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in in which of the following articles of the Constitution?
A)
Art. 74
B)
Art. 75
C)
Art. 352
D)
Not mentioned in the Constitution
1. **Why 'c' is correct**: The term 'Cabinet' was not originally part of the Constitution of India. It was inserted into Article 352 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Article 352(3) states that the President cannot issue a Proclamation of Emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (defined as the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under Article 75) has been communicated in writing.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Art. 74** (Option a) and **Art. 75** (Option b) use the term 'Council of Ministers' rather than 'Cabinet'.
- **Option d** is incorrect because the term was officially incorporated into the Constitution via the 44th Amendment in 1978.
The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by-
A)
Rajendra Prasad
B)
M.N Roy
C)
Sardar Vallabhai patel
D)
AO Hume
The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy in 1934. He was a pioneer of the communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. Following his proposal, the Indian National Congress (INC) officially demanded a Constituent Assembly in 1935.
- Option 'a' (Rajendra Prasad) is incorrect because, although he served as the President of the Constituent Assembly, he did not first propose the idea.
- Option 'c' (Sardar Vallabhai Patel) is incorrect because he was a prominent leader in the assembly and chaired key committees, but was not the originator of the concept.
- Option 'd' (AO Hume) is incorrect because he was a retired British civil servant instrumental in founding the Indian National Congress in 1885, not the Constituent Assembly.