← Group B (Gazetted)

Past Questions

Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced to:

A) Promote exports
B) Protect farmers from price fluctuations
C) Control inflation
D) Increase tax revenue
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. 1. Why Option B is correct: MSP is announced at the beginning of the sowing season to guarantee a floor price for crops, thereby protecting farmers from price fluctuations, market uncertainties, and distress sales during bumper harvests. 2. Why other options are incorrect: Option A is incorrect because MSP is an internal price support mechanism, not an export promotion scheme. Option C is incorrect because MSP sets a minimum price floor which can sometimes put upward pressure on food prices, rather than controlling inflation. Option D is incorrect because MSP is a government expenditure/subsidy program to support farmers, not a tool to generate tax revenue.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Repo rate refers to the rate at which?

A) Banks lend to RBI
B) RBI lends short-term funds to banks
C) Government borrows
D) Public borrows from banks
Repo rate (Repurchase Option rate) is the benchmark interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities to manage liquidity in the banking system. - Option 'a' is incorrect because the rate at which banks lend/deposit their excess funds with the RBI is called the Reverse Repo Rate. - Option 'c' is incorrect because the rate at which the government borrows is determined by the yields on Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills. - Option 'd' is incorrect because the rate at which the public borrows from banks is known as the retail lending rate (such as MCLR, Base Rate, or external benchmark-linked rates).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Which one of the following is the largest container port in India?

A) Kochi
B) Vishakhapatnam
C) Mangalore
D) Nhava Sheva, Mumbai
Nhava Sheva (also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port, JNPT), located in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, is the largest container port in India, handling more than half of the container cargo across all major ports in the country. Kochi (a) is known for its International Container Transshipment Terminal at Vallarpadam but handles far less volume than JNPT. Vishakhapatnam (b) is a major port on the east coast primarily known for bulk cargo like iron ore and coal. Mangalore (c) is a major port in Karnataka that mainly handles bulk and liquid cargo rather than large-scale container traffic.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

The oldest fold mountain in India is:

A) Cardamom Hills
B) Aravallis
C) Nilgiri Hills
D) Rajmahal Hills
The Aravalli Range is the oldest fold mountain range in India, dating back to the Proterozoic era (around 1.8 billion years ago). Over time, weathering and erosion have reduced it to a residual mountain range. - **Cardamom Hills (a)** and **Nilgiri Hills (c)** are part of the Western Ghats, which are much younger block/faulted mountains formed during the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras. - **Rajmahal Hills (d)** are volcanic hills formed during the Jurassic period, making them significantly younger than the ancient Aravallis.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Interest payments on public debt form part of:

A) Revenue expenditure
B) Capital expenditure
C) Capital receipts
D) Development expenditure
Interest payments on public debt are classified under Revenue Expenditure because they are recurring expenses that do not result in the creation of any physical or financial assets, nor do they reduce the liability of the government (as only interest is paid, not the principal loan amount). - **Capital expenditure (b)** is incorrect because it refers to spending that creates assets or reduces liabilities (such as the repayment of the principal loan amount). - **Capital receipts (c)** is incorrect because these are inflows of funds that create liabilities or reduce assets (like market borrowings or disinvestment), whereas interest payments are outflows. - **Development expenditure (d)** is incorrect because interest payments do not directly contribute to economic or social development activities and are thus classified as non-developmental expenditure.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

The net sown area in India is around _________ of the total geographical area.

A) 30%
B) 43%
C) 53%
D) 60%
The correct option is 'b' (43%). 1. **Why the correct option is correct:** The total geographical area of India is approximately 328 million hectares. Out of this, the net sown area (the physical area on which crops are sown and harvested) is about 140 million hectares. This constitutes roughly 42.68% (rounded to 43%) of the total geographical area. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** - **Option a (30%):** This is too low; India's agricultural capacity is much larger, and the net sown area has remained above 40% for decades. - **Option c (53%) & Option d (60%):** These are overestimates. While the total cultivable land (including fallow land and culturable waste) is around 54% of the reporting area, the actual *net sown area* alone is limited to around 43%.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Which of the following states has the literacy rate lower than the national average as per 2011 Census?

A) Karnataka
B) Kerala
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, the national average literacy rate is 74.04%. Among the given options: 1. **Andhra Pradesh** has a literacy rate of approximately 67.02%, which is significantly lower than the national average of 74.04%. 2. **Karnataka** has a literacy rate of 75.36%, which is above the national average. 3. **Kerala** has the highest literacy rate in the country at 94.00%, well above the national average. 4. **Tamil Nadu** has a literacy rate of 80.09%, which is also above the national average.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

‘Operation flood’ is related to:

A) Flood control measures
B) Milk production
C) Fish production
D) Shrimp production
‘Operation Flood’ is directly related to milk production. Launched in 1970 by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), it was the world's largest dairy development program which transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into one of the world's largest milk producers, a movement also known as the 'White Revolution'. - Option 'a' (Flood control measures) is incorrect as the term 'flood' in the operation's name metaphorically refers to a flood of milk, not water management. - Option 'c' (Fish production) is incorrect as it is associated with the 'Blue Revolution'. - Option 'd' (Shrimp production) is incorrect as it is associated with the 'Pink Revolution'.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 classified industries into three categories. Which of the following correctly describes ‘Schedule B’ industries?

A) Industries exclusively owned by the state.
B) Industries left entirely to the private sector without government interference.
C) Industries which would be progressively state-owned, but private enterprise could supplement state effort.
D) Industries reserved for the Small Scale Sector (SSI) only.
Under the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956, industries were classified into three categories: Schedule A, Schedule B, and Schedule C. Schedule B consisted of 12 industries that were to be progressively state-owned, where the government would take the initiative in establishing new undertakings, but private enterprises were allowed to supplement these efforts. Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes Schedule A industries, which were exclusively owned by the state. Option 'b' is incorrect because it refers to Schedule C industries, which were left to the private sector (subject to state regulation). Option 'd' is incorrect as Schedule B did not reserve industries exclusively for the Small Scale Sector.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Which one of the following seperates the Nilgiri Hills from the Anaimalai Hils?

A) Thal ghat
B) Bhor ghat
C) Palghat gap
D) Haldighati pass
The Palghat Gap (or Palakkad Gap) is a major mountain pass in the Western Ghats that separates the Nilgiri Hills to the north from the Anaimalai Hills to the south, connecting the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. - Thal ghat (Option a) and Bhor ghat (Option b) are mountain passes located in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, connecting Mumbai to Nashik and Pune respectively. - Haldighati pass (Option d) is a historic mountain pass located in the Aravalli Range of Rajasthan.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

The Competition Act replaced the:

A) FEMA
B) FERA
C) MRTP Act
D) SEBI Act
The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted to promote and sustain competition in Indian markets, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade. It repealed and replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, which was considered outdated and focused more on controlling monopolies rather than promoting healthy competition. Other options are incorrect because: FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999) replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) to facilitate external trade and payments; and the SEBI Act, 1992 was established to regulate the securities market and remains active.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

SEBI regulates the:

A) Banking system
B) Insurance sector
C) Cooperative banks
D) Capital market
SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the statutory regulatory body established in 1992 to regulate and oversee the capital market (securities market) in India, protecting the interests of investors and promoting the development of the market. The other options are incorrect because: - The banking system (Option a) and cooperative banks (Option c) are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). - The insurance sector (Option b) is regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Consolidation of land holdings helps to:

A) Increase fragmentation
B) Reduce soil fertility
C) Improve efficiency and reduce boundary disputes
D) Increase tenancy
Consolidation of land holdings is a land reform measure where scattered, fragmented plots of land owned by a farmer are reorganized and merged into a single, compact block. This process improves agricultural efficiency by making it easier to use modern machinery, manage irrigation, and supervise the farm. It also reduces the number of shared borders, thereby minimizing boundary disputes among neighboring farmers. Conversely, consolidation decreases (rather than increases) fragmentation (option a), has no negative impact on soil fertility (option b), and does not aim to increase tenancy (option d).
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Tertiary coal is found in:

A) Western and south-western Tripura
B) Senapati and Tamenglong district of Nagaland
C) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya
D) Kolasib and Mamit district of Mizoram
Tertiary coal deposits in India are primarily found in the northeastern states, with Meghalaya being a major producer. The coal fields are located in the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills (such as Daranggiri, Cherrapunji, and Bapung). - Option 'a' is incorrect because Tripura is primarily known for natural gas reserves rather than significant Tertiary coal deposits. - Option 'b' is incorrect because Senapati and Tamenglong are actually districts in Manipur (not Nagaland) and do not have major Tertiary coal reserves. - Option 'd' is incorrect because Kolasib and Mamit districts in Mizoram are not known for commercial Tertiary coal deposits.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Priority sector lending aims at providing credit to:

A) Large industries
B) Agriculture, MSMEs, and weaker sections
C) Stock markets
D) Multinational companies
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) is a mandate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) requiring commercial banks to allocate a specified portion of their lending to sectors that are crucial for the country's development but often struggle to get adequate timely credit. These sectors primarily include Agriculture, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Education, Housing, Export Credit, Renewable Energy, and Weaker Sections. Large industries (Option a) and Multinational companies (Option d) are excluded because they already have robust access to domestic and international capital markets. Stock markets (Option c) represent speculative and financial trading activities, which do not qualify for priority development-oriented credit.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Which institution was established in 1982 as the apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system?

A) SBI (State Bank of India)
B) RRB (Regional Rural Bank)
C) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
D) RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on July 12, 1982, on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. It serves as the apex development bank in India to coordinate, facilitate, and provide credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. - SBI (State Bank of India) was established in 1955 as a public sector commercial bank, not as a specialized apex body for rural finance. - RRBs (Regional Rural Banks) were established starting in 1975 to provide credit to rural areas, but they operate at the regional level and are not the apex coordinating body. - RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is the central bank of India (established in 1935). It transferred its major agricultural credit functions to NABARD upon the latter's creation in 1982.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Match the economic terms in Column I with their correct definitions in Column II: Column I (Economic Terms): A. Structural Reform, B. Stabilisation Measures, C. Disinvestment, D. Devaluation Column II (Definitions): 1. Short-term measures to control inflation and correct the balance of payments, 2. Selling off part of the equity of Public Sector Enterprises to the public, 3. Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy and international competitiveness, 4. Reduction in the value of domestic currency vis-à-vis foreign currency by the government.

A) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
D) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
The correct matching of the economic terms with their definitions is as follows: 1. **Structural Reform (A - 3):** These are long-term policy measures aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing its international competitiveness by removing rigidity in various sectors. 2. **Stabilisation Measures (B - 1):** These are short-term macroeconomic measures intended to correct weaknesses in the balance of payments and to keep inflation under control. 3. **Disinvestment (C - 2):** This refers to the privatization process where the government sells off a part of its equity in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) to the public or private sector. 4. **Devaluation (D - 4):** This is the deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country's currency relative to another currency, group of currencies, or currency standard by the government. This correct sequence (A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4) is represented in option **b**. * **Option a** is incorrect because it mismatches Structural Reform with short-term measures and Disinvestment with devaluation. * **Option c** is incorrect because it mismatches Stabilisation Measures with disinvestment and Disinvestment with short-term measures. * **Option d** is incorrect because it mismatches Structural Reform with devaluation and Devaluation with long-term measures.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-II (Series B)

Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘Marketed Surplus’ in the context of Indian Agriculture?

A) The total agricultural produce harvested by a farmer in a given year.
B) The portion of produce stored by the government as buffer stock.
C) The portion of agricultural produce which is sold in the market by the farmers after retaining a part for self-consumption.
D) The surplus produce exported to foreign nations after meeting domestic demand.
Option 'c' is correct because 'Marketed Surplus' refers to the actual quantity of agricultural produce that farmers sell in the market after retaining a portion for their own self-consumption, seeds, and other family requirements. - Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes the total agricultural production, not the surplus. - Option 'b' is incorrect because the stock maintained by the government for food security is known as 'Buffer Stock'. - Option 'd' is incorrect because it describes 'Export Surplus' at the national level, rather than the surplus sold by individual farmers in domestic markets.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

The first Indian to have qualified examination for Indian Civil Services was:

A) Satyendranath Tagore
B) Debendranath Tagore
C) Rabindranath Tagore
D) Dwarkanath Tagore
Satyendranath Tagore was the first Indian to successfully clear the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination in June 1863. He was the elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore and was appointed to the Bombay civil service cadre. - Debendranath Tagore (b) was a prominent philosopher, religious reformer, and leader of the Brahmo Samaj. - Rabindranath Tagore (c) was a legendary poet, writer, and the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature. - Dwarkanath Tagore (d) was one of the earliest Indian industrialists and entrepreneurs, and the grandfather of Rabindranath Tagore.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

The Act of the British Government that established the Board of Control to exercise control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India was:

A) Regulating Act of 1773
B) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
C) Charter Act of 1813
D) Charter Act of 1833
Pitt’s India Act of 1784 established the Board of Control to supervise and direct all civil, military government, and revenues of the British possessions in India, thereby introducing a dual system of control where the Board of Control managed political affairs and the Court of Directors managed commercial affairs. - Regulating Act of 1773 (Option a) was the first step to regulate the Company's affairs and established the Governor-General of Bengal, but did not create the Board of Control. - Charter Act of 1813 (Option c) ended the Company's trade monopoly in India (except for tea and trade with China). - Charter Act of 1833 (Option d) made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India and ended the Company's commercial activities completely, making it a purely administrative body.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

The first State in the Country to rename Raj Bhavan as Lok Bhavan is:

A) West Bengal
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Kerala
D) Mizoram
Mizoram is the first state in India to rename its Raj Bhavan (the official residence of the Governor) as 'Lok Bhavan' (People's House). This initiative was undertaken to make the institution more accessible to the common public and to transition away from the colonial-era connotations associated with the term 'Raj'. The other states listed (West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala) still retain the traditional name 'Raj Bhavan' for their respective Governor's residences.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

Which factor most directly encouraged the early growth of modern industries such as jute and cotton textiles in colonial India during the late 19th century?

A) Protective tariffs imposed by the colonial state to shield Indian industries
B) The construction and expansion of railway networks linking raw material areas to ports
C) A deliberate British policy to reduce imports from Britain and promote Indian manufacturing
D) Large-scale state subsidies to Indian industrialists like the Tatas and Birlas
The construction and expansion of the railway network in the late 19th century was the most direct catalyst for the growth of early modern industries like cotton and jute. Railways connected the interior agricultural hinterlands (where raw cotton and jute were grown) to major port cities and manufacturing hubs like Bombay and Calcutta, facilitating the cheap and rapid transport of raw materials and finished goods. Why other options are incorrect: - Option A is incorrect because the colonial government followed a policy of free trade and actively resisted protective tariffs to protect British manufacturers (especially Lancashire cotton mills) from Indian competition. - Option C is incorrect because British colonial policy was designed to keep India as a source of raw materials and a market for British manufactured goods, not to promote indigenous manufacturing. - Option D is incorrect because the colonial state did not provide subsidies to Indian industrialists; Indian enterprise grew despite colonial apathy and discriminatory policies.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

Which city hosted UN Climate Change Conference in November, 2025?

A) Belem
B) Johannesburg
C) Sydney
D) Baku
The correct option is 'a' (Belem). The 30th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP30) is scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil, in November 2025. This is a significant location as Belém is a gateway to the Amazon River basin. Option 'd' (Baku) is incorrect because Baku, Azerbaijan, hosted COP29 in November 2024. Options 'b' (Johannesburg) and 'c' (Sydney) are incorrect as they are not the designated hosts for the November 2025 UN Climate Change Conference.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

Which British land revenue settlement fixed land revenue demand on zamindars in perpetuity, turning them into hereditary landowners?

A) Permanent Settlement
B) Ryotwari Settlement
C) Mahalwari Settlement
D) Malguzari Settlement
The Permanent Settlement (also known as the Permanent Settlement of Bengal) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. Under this system, the land revenue demand was fixed in perpetuity (permanently), and zamindars were recognized as the hereditary owners of the land, provided they paid the fixed revenue to the British government on time. In contrast, the Ryotwari Settlement (option b) made agreements directly with individual cultivators (ryots) with periodic revenue revisions. The Mahalwari Settlement (option c) settled revenue with the entire village community (mahal) collectively, also subject to periodic revision. The Malguzari Settlement (option d) was implemented in the Central Provinces and did not fix revenue in perpetuity.
Group B (Gazetted) • 2026 • General Studies-I

Which, among the following was the first to recommend English as the medium of instruction?

A) Thomas Macaulay’s Minute on Education,1835
B) Wood’s Despatch,1854
C) Hunter Commission, 1882
D) Kothari Commission, 1964-66
Thomas Macaulay’s Minute on Education (1835) was the first to formally recommend English as the medium of instruction for higher education in India, which led to the passage of the English Education Act of 1835. Wood’s Despatch (1854) came later and is known as the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India', recommending English for higher education and vernaculars for schools. The Hunter Commission (1882) focused on primary education using vernacular languages, and the Kothari Commission (1964-66) was a post-independence commission that proposed the Three-Language Formula.