← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions — 2026
Repo rate refers to the rate at which?
A)
Banks lend to RBI
B)
RBI lends short-term funds to banks
C)
Government borrows
D)
Public borrows from banks
Repo rate (Repurchase Option rate) is the benchmark interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities to manage liquidity in the banking system.
- Option 'a' is incorrect because the rate at which banks lend/deposit their excess funds with the RBI is called the Reverse Repo Rate.
- Option 'c' is incorrect because the rate at which the government borrows is determined by the yields on Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills.
- Option 'd' is incorrect because the rate at which the public borrows from banks is known as the retail lending rate (such as MCLR, Base Rate, or external benchmark-linked rates).
Which of the following best defines ‘Worker-Population Ratio’?
A)
The number of people unemployed divided by total population.
B)
The number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population.
C)
The ratio of male workers to female workers.
D)
The ratio of workers in the industrial sector to those in agriculture.
The Worker-Population Ratio (WPR) is a key indicator used to analyze the employment situation in a country. It is defined as the percentage of the total population that is actively employed, calculated as: (Number of Employed Persons / Total Population) * 100. Therefore, it represents the number of persons employed per 100 persons in the population. Option 'a' is incorrect because it refers to unemployment rather than employment. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they describe the gender ratio of workers and the sectoral distribution of workers, respectively, rather than the overall worker-to-population ratio.
The objective of industrial decentralization is to:
A)
Increase imports
B)
Increase monopolies
C)
Reduce regional imbalances
D)
Concentrate industries in cities
Industrial decentralization is the policy of spreading industrial units across different regions, particularly in backward or rural areas, rather than concentrating them in a few urban centers. The primary objective of this policy is to promote balanced regional development and reduce regional economic imbalances by generating employment and income in less-developed areas. Option 'a' is incorrect because decentralization is a spatial planning policy, not a trade policy. Option 'b' is incorrect because decentralization encourages competition and small-scale enterprises, which helps prevent monopolies. Option 'd' is incorrect because concentrating industries in cities is the definition of industrial centralization, which leads to urban congestion and regional disparity.
With reference to the 1991 Economic Reforms, ‘Stabilisation Measures’ refer to:
A)
Long-term measures to improve the efficiency of the economy.
B)
Short-term measures to correct Balance of Payments and control inflation.
C)
Privatisation of all Public Sector Units.
D)
Removal of all trade barriers immediately.
In the context of the 1991 Economic Reforms in India, the policy measures were broadly classified into two categories: Stabilisation Measures and Structural Reform Measures.
1. **Why Option 'b' is correct:** Stabilisation measures are short-term measures intended to correct the balance of payments (BoP) crisis and bring inflation under control. They aimed to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves and stabilize prices.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Option 'a'** describes 'Structural Reform Measures', which are long-term policies aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy and increasing international competitiveness.
- **Option 'c'** is incorrect because the privatisation of Public Sector Units (PSUs) was a gradual process under structural reforms, not a stabilisation measure.
- **Option 'd'** is incorrect because trade barriers were reduced gradually over time under liberalisation (structural reforms), rather than being removed immediately.
Terms of trade measure the relationship between:
A)
Imports and GDP
B)
Export prices and import prices
C)
Exports and GDP
D)
Balance of payments and trade
The 'Terms of Trade' (TOT) is an economic metric defined as the ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices, calculated as (Index of Export Prices / Index of Import Prices) * 100. It measures how many units of imports a country can purchase for every unit of exports. Options 'a' and 'c' are incorrect because the ratio of exports or imports to GDP measures trade openness, not terms of trade. Option 'd' is incorrect because the Balance of Payments is a comprehensive record of all economic transactions between residents of the country and the rest of the world, which is distinct from the price-based terms of trade.
Which of the following states has the literacy rate lower than the national average as per 2011 Census?
A)
Karnataka
B)
Kerala
C)
Andhra Pradesh
D)
Tamil Nadu
According to the 2011 Census of India, the national average literacy rate is 74.04%. Among the given options:
1. **Andhra Pradesh** has a literacy rate of approximately 67.02%, which is significantly lower than the national average of 74.04%.
2. **Karnataka** has a literacy rate of 75.36%, which is above the national average.
3. **Kerala** has the highest literacy rate in the country at 94.00%, well above the national average.
4. **Tamil Nadu** has a literacy rate of 80.09%, which is also above the national average.
Which linguistic group has the largest number of speakers in India?
A)
The Dravidians
B)
The Indo-Aryans
C)
The Austric
D)
The Sino-Tibetan
The Indo-Aryan linguistic group (part of the Indo-European family) has the largest number of speakers in India, accounting for approximately 74% to 78% of the total population. It includes major languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Urdu, Gujarati, and Punjabi. In contrast, the Dravidian group (option a) is the second-largest, spoken by about 20% of the population, mainly in southern India. The Austric (option c) and Sino-Tibetan (option d) groups represent much smaller minorities, spoken by approximately 1.2% and 0.6% of the population respectively.
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 classified industries into three categories. Which of the following correctly describes ‘Schedule B’ industries?
A)
Industries exclusively owned by the state.
B)
Industries left entirely to the private sector without government interference.
C)
Industries which would be progressively state-owned, but private enterprise could supplement state effort.
D)
Industries reserved for the Small Scale Sector (SSI) only.
Under the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956, industries were classified into three categories: Schedule A, Schedule B, and Schedule C. Schedule B consisted of 12 industries that were to be progressively state-owned, where the government would take the initiative in establishing new undertakings, but private enterprises were allowed to supplement these efforts. Option 'a' is incorrect because it describes Schedule A industries, which were exclusively owned by the state. Option 'b' is incorrect because it refers to Schedule C industries, which were left to the private sector (subject to state regulation). Option 'd' is incorrect as Schedule B did not reserve industries exclusively for the Small Scale Sector.
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning emphasized:
A)
Agriculture-led growth
B)
Heavy industrialization
C)
Export-led growth
D)
Service sector dominance
The Mahalanobis strategy of planning, which formed the basis of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), strongly emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy and basic industries (capital goods sector) to achieve self-reliance and long-term economic growth.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option 'a' (Agriculture-led growth) was the primary focus of the First Five-Year Plan, which aimed to resolve acute food shortages.
- Option 'c' (Export-led growth) is incorrect because the Mahalanobis model favored an inward-looking, import-substitution strategy rather than relying on exports.
- Option 'd' (Service sector dominance) is incorrect as the service sector became the main driver of the Indian economy much later, post the 1991 economic reforms.
The Competition Act replaced the:
A)
FEMA
B)
FERA
C)
MRTP Act
D)
SEBI Act
The Competition Act, 2002 was enacted to promote and sustain competition in Indian markets, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade. It repealed and replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969, which was considered outdated and focused more on controlling monopolies rather than promoting healthy competition. Other options are incorrect because: FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999) replaced FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973) to facilitate external trade and payments; and the SEBI Act, 1992 was established to regulate the securities market and remains active.
‘Casualisation of Workforce’ refers to a situation where:
A)
The percentage of self-employed workers increases.
B)
The percentage of casually hired workers in the total workforce increases over time.
C)
Workers move from the informal sector to the formal sector.
D)
The workforce shifts entirely from agriculture to industry.
Casualisation of the workforce refers to a process where the proportion of casually hired workers in the total workforce increases over time, while the share of self-employed and regular salaried workers declines. This reflects a shift towards less secure, temporary employment without social security benefits. Option 'a' is incorrect because an increase in self-employed workers does not define casualisation. Option 'c' is incorrect because moving from the informal to the formal sector is known as formalisation. Option 'd' is incorrect because the shift of the workforce from agriculture to industry is referred to as structural transformation or industrialisation.
What is the primary function of the ‘Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’?
A)
To provide loans directly to farmers and industrialists.
B)
To issue currency and control money supply.
C)
To collect taxes on behalf of the government.
D)
To manage the stock market operations.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, and its primary function is to issue currency notes and control the money supply and credit in the economy to maintain price stability. Option 'a' is incorrect because the RBI does not provide direct loans to individuals; this is done by commercial and cooperative banks. Option 'c' is incorrect because tax collection is managed by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue). Option 'd' is incorrect because stock market operations are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which region in India is a major hub for the Iron and Steel Industry, benefiting from raw material proximity?
A)
Northern Gangetic Plain
B)
Konkan Plain
C)
Kerala Plain
D)
Chotanagpur Plateau
The Chotanagpur Plateau is the correct answer because it is highly rich in mineral resources, particularly iron ore, coking coal, manganese, and limestone, which are the essential raw materials for the iron and steel industry. Major steel plants like Jamshedpur (TISCO), Bokaro, Durgapur, and Rourkela are located in or near this region due to this proximity. In contrast, the Northern Gangetic Plain (a) is an alluvial region primarily suited for agriculture, while the Konkan Plain (b) and Kerala Plain (c) are coastal regions that lack the heavy mineral deposits required to sustain a major iron and steel hub.
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced to:
A)
Promote exports
B)
Protect farmers from price fluctuations
C)
Control inflation
D)
Increase tax revenue
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. 1. Why Option B is correct: MSP is announced at the beginning of the sowing season to guarantee a floor price for crops, thereby protecting farmers from price fluctuations, market uncertainties, and distress sales during bumper harvests. 2. Why other options are incorrect: Option A is incorrect because MSP is an internal price support mechanism, not an export promotion scheme. Option C is incorrect because MSP sets a minimum price floor which can sometimes put upward pressure on food prices, rather than controlling inflation. Option D is incorrect because MSP is a government expenditure/subsidy program to support farmers, not a tool to generate tax revenue.
The oldest fold mountain in India is:
A)
Cardamom Hills
B)
Aravallis
C)
Nilgiri Hills
D)
Rajmahal Hills
The Aravalli Range is the oldest fold mountain range in India, dating back to the Proterozoic era (around 1.8 billion years ago). Over time, weathering and erosion have reduced it to a residual mountain range.
- **Cardamom Hills (a)** and **Nilgiri Hills (c)** are part of the Western Ghats, which are much younger block/faulted mountains formed during the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras.
- **Rajmahal Hills (d)** are volcanic hills formed during the Jurassic period, making them significantly younger than the ancient Aravallis.
Which of the following is a ‘Non-Tariff Barrier’?
A)
Import Duty
B)
Customs Tax
C)
Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas)
D)
Export Subsidy
A 'Non-Tariff Barrier' (NTB) refers to any measure other than a tariff (tax) that restricts international trade. Quantitative Restrictions (Quotas) limit the physical quantity of a good that can be imported into a country, making it a classic example of a non-tariff barrier. In contrast, Import Duty (a) and Customs Tax (b) are direct taxes levied on imports, which are classified as Tariff Barriers. Export Subsidies (d) are financial incentives provided to domestic producers to encourage exports, rather than a direct barrier to imports.
Interest payments on public debt form part of:
A)
Revenue expenditure
B)
Capital expenditure
C)
Capital receipts
D)
Development expenditure
Interest payments on public debt are classified under Revenue Expenditure because they are recurring expenses that do not result in the creation of any physical or financial assets, nor do they reduce the liability of the government (as only interest is paid, not the principal loan amount).
- **Capital expenditure (b)** is incorrect because it refers to spending that creates assets or reduces liabilities (such as the repayment of the principal loan amount).
- **Capital receipts (c)** is incorrect because these are inflows of funds that create liabilities or reduce assets (like market borrowings or disinvestment), whereas interest payments are outflows.
- **Development expenditure (d)** is incorrect because interest payments do not directly contribute to economic or social development activities and are thus classified as non-developmental expenditure.
Liberalisation policies in India aimed to:
A)
Reduce foreign investment
B)
Expand public sector monopoly
C)
Control industrial growth
D)
Increase the role of the private sector
Liberalisation policies introduced in India in 1991 aimed to deregulate the economy, dismantle the 'License Raj', and increase the role of the private sector to foster competition and efficiency. Option 'a' is incorrect because the policies aimed to attract and increase foreign investment, not reduce it. Option 'b' is incorrect because liberalisation sought to reduce the monopoly of the public sector by opening up reserved industries to private players. Option 'c' is incorrect because the goal was to stimulate and accelerate industrial growth rather than control or restrict it.
The system that allowed the British to annex states where the ruler died without a natural heir was:
A)
Ring fence Policy
B)
Doctrine of Lapse
C)
Subsidiary Alliance
D)
Rule of Law
The correct answer is 'Doctrine of Lapse' (option b). This annexation policy was widely applied by Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. Under this doctrine, any princely state under the direct or indirect control of the British East India Company where the ruler died without a legal male heir would automatically be annexed to the British empire, forbidding the long-standing custom of adopting an heir.
Why other options are incorrect:
- 'a' (Ring fence Policy): Devised by Warren Hastings, this policy aimed to defend the British territories by creating buffer zones around them using the borders of friendly neighboring states.
- 'c' (Subsidiary Alliance): Introduced by Lord Wellesley, this was a treaty system where Indian rulers had to accept British troops in their territory and surrender their foreign relations in exchange for British protection.
- 'd' (Rule of Law): This is a general constitutional principle stating that law should govern a nation, rather than arbitrary decisions by individual government officials; it is not an annexation policy.
The great upheaval that took place in 1857 in India had been coined by colonial writers as:
A)
First War of Indian independence
B)
Sepoy Mutiny
C)
Revolt of 1857
D)
Peasants’ rebellion
Colonial British historians and writers referred to the 1857 uprising as the 'Sepoy Mutiny' (or 'Indian Mutiny') to downplay its scale and portray it merely as an unorganized rebellion by a section of disgruntled soldiers, ignoring its widespread popular support. In contrast, 'First War of Indian Independence' (Option a) was coined by Indian nationalist leader V.D. Savarkar to highlight its nationalistic character. 'Revolt of 1857' (Option c) is a neutral, widely accepted historical term, and 'Peasants’ rebellion' (Option d) represents a specific socio-economic perspective rather than the colonial terminology.
The Indian nationalist who started using the traditional religious Ganpati festival to propagate nationalist ideas was:
A)
Lala Lajpat Rai
B)
Bipan Chandra Pal
C)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Bal Gangadhar Tilak introduced the public celebration of the traditional Ganpati festival in 1893 (and the Shivaji festival in 1895) to bypass British restrictions on political gatherings and to foster a sense of national unity and patriotism among the masses. Lala Lajpat Rai (a) and Bipan Chandra Pal (b), though part of the same extremist trio (Lal-Bal-Pal), were not the initiators of this festival. Gopal Krishna Gokhale (d) was a moderate leader who favored constitutional methods over religious mobilization.
‘One Nation One Subscription’ is sponsored by Government of India, ________.
A)
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (MoCAFP)
B)
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB)
C)
Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD)
D)
Ministry of Education (MOE)
The 'One Nation One Subscription' (ONOS) is a landmark initiative sponsored by the Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India. It aims to provide country-wide access to prestigious international scientific journals and databases to all higher education and research institutions in India. The other ministries (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution; Ministry of Information and Broadcasting; and Ministry of Women and Child Development) are incorrect as their mandates do not cover academic and scientific research subscriptions.
At the 2025 Youth Empowerment Summit (YES) jointly organized by Mizoram State Child Protection Society and Medhavi Foundation, Shephard Zomuani was adjudged:
A)
Iconic star of Tomorrow
B)
Young Ambassador
C)
Star of Tomorrow
D)
Star Ambassador
At the 2025 Youth Empowerment Summit (YES), jointly organized by the Mizoram State Child Protection Society (MSCPS) and the Medhavi Foundation, Shephard Zomuani was adjudged the 'Star of Tomorrow' for demonstrating outstanding potential and talent. The other options ('Iconic star of Tomorrow', 'Young Ambassador', and 'Star Ambassador') are incorrect as they are not the official titles awarded to Shephard Zomuani at this event.
In December 2025, MIZOFED and NCEL signed a three-year Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) mainly to support:
A)
Urban infrastructure development in Mizoram.
B)
Local cooperative societies in marketing and export of products.
C)
Education and skill development programs in rural areas.
D)
Healthcare facilities and medical research in Mizoram.
The correct option is 'b'. MIZOFED (Mizoram State Cooperative Marketing Federation) and NCEL (National Cooperative Exports Limited) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to promote, facilitate, and support local cooperative societies in Mizoram by marketing and exporting their unique agricultural and handloom products to national and international markets. NCEL is specifically mandated to boost exports from the cooperative sector. Options 'a', 'c', and 'd' are incorrect because urban infrastructure, education/skill development, and healthcare are outside the organizational mandates of both MIZOFED (a marketing federation) and NCEL (an export cooperative).
The Ryotwari settlement was introduced in 1820 by Thomas Munro in:
A)
Madras and Bombay presidencies
B)
Bengal and Bihar
C)
Bihar and Orissa
D)
Punjab, North West province and part of central India
The Ryotwari settlement was introduced by Sir Thomas Munro (then Governor of Madras) in 1820 in the Madras and Bombay presidencies, as well as parts of Assam and Coorg. Under this system, the government settled land revenue directly with the individual cultivators (ryots). Other options are incorrect because: Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa (options b and c) were under the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari system) introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793; and Punjab, the North-West Province, and parts of Central India (option d) were under the Mahalwari system introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822.