← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
Which of the following state does not prohibit selling of alcohol?
A)
Nagaland
B)
Bihar
C)
Gujarat
D)
Kerela
Kerala does not have a total prohibition on the sale of alcohol. While the state government regulates its sale and distribution through the state-run Kerala State Beverages Corporation (BEVCO) and restricts it to licensed bars and hotels, it is not a dry state. On the other hand, Nagaland (under the NLTP Act, 1989), Bihar (since 2016), and Gujarat (since 1960) are dry states where the sale and consumption of alcohol are strictly prohibited by law.
The main food crop in India is
A)
Wheat
B)
Maize
C)
Rice
D)
Vegetables
Rice is the main food crop in India. It is the staple food for a majority of the population and occupies the largest cultivated area in the country, with India being the second-largest producer of rice globally. Wheat (Option a) is the second most important food crop, primarily consumed in the northern and north-western regions. Maize (Option b) is a coarse grain used as both food and fodder but is not the primary staple. Vegetables (Option d) are horticultural crops and do not constitute the primary staple food crop of the nation.
Patkai mountain range is located in which part of India
A)
Western
B)
Eastern
C)
Southern
D)
Northern
The Patkai mountain range (or Patkai Bum) is located in the northeastern part of India, along India's border with Myanmar. It forms part of the Purvanchal Hills, which represent the eastern extension of the Himalayan system. Therefore, 'Eastern' is the correct choice. The other options are incorrect because: Western India (Option a) is characterized by the Western Ghats and Aravalli range; Southern India (Option c) features the Nilgiris, Anaimalai, and Cardamom hills; and Northern India (Option d) is dominated by the main Himalayan ranges like the Great Himalayas and Karakoram range.
The nationalisation of the major commercial banks took place in
A)
1947
B)
1956
C)
1969
D)
1980
The nationalisation of major commercial banks in India took place on July 19, 1969, under the government led by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. During this first phase, 14 major commercial banks with deposits exceeding ₹50 crores were nationalised, representing about 85% of the bank deposits in the country.
- **Option a (1947):** This was the year of India's independence; no bank nationalisation took place.
- **Option b (1956):** In 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was nationalised to form the State Bank of India (SBI), and in 1956, the life insurance sector was nationalised to form LIC, but the major commercial banks were not nationalised in this year.
- **Option d (1980):** This represents the second phase of bank nationalisation where 6 more commercial banks were nationalised, but the primary and largest nationalisation of major commercial banks occurred in 1969.
Which bank deals with short-term credit?
A)
Agricultural bank
B)
Commercial bank
C)
Industrial bank
D)
None of these
Commercial banks primarily deal with short-term credit. They accept short-term deposits from the public and provide short-term loans and advances to traders, businessmen, and industries to meet their working capital requirements. In contrast, Industrial banks (Option c) specialize in providing medium and long-term credit to industries for capital investments like machinery and infrastructure. Agricultural banks (Option a) provide credit specifically for agricultural needs, which includes medium and long-term loans for land development and equipment purchase, alongside short-term crop loans.
Which of the following amendments restored the Judicial review power of High Court?
A)
43rd Amendment
B)
44th Amendment
C)
48th Amendment
D)
49th Amendment
The 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 had severely curtailed this power by inserting provisions (such as Articles 226A and 228A) that barred High Courts from deciding on the constitutional validity of Central laws. The 43rd Amendment repealed these restrictive provisions, thereby restoring the original jurisdiction of the High Courts. The 44th Amendment (1978) primarily focused on safeguarding democratic rights and modifying emergency provisions. The 48th and 49th Amendments dealt with other specific administrative matters (Punjab President's Rule and Tripura District Council, respectively) and are not related to judicial review.
‘India in transition’ is a work of
A)
Dadabhai Naoroji
B)
Gokhale
C)
Aurobindo
D)
MN Roy
"India in Transition" is a seminal work written by Manabendra Nath Roy (M.N. Roy) in 1922, with the collaboration of Abani Mukherji. It is one of the earliest Marxist analyses of Indian society, economy, and the national movement.
- **Option a (Dadabhai Naoroji)** is incorrect because his most famous work is "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India", which propounded the 'Drain of Wealth' theory.
- **Option b (Gokhale)** is incorrect because Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a moderate leader and founder of the Servants of India Society, and did not write this book.
- **Option c (Aurobindo)** is incorrect because Sri Aurobindo is known for his philosophical and spiritual writings such as "The Life Divine", "Savitri", and "The Synthesis of Yoga".
SEBI was established in
A)
1993
B)
1992
C)
1988
D)
1990
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established on April 12, 1988, as a non-statutory body to regulate the securities market. It was later given statutory status on January 30, 1992, through the SEBI Act, 1992. Therefore, 1988 is the correct year of its establishment. Option 'b' (1992) is incorrect because that is the year it received statutory powers, while options 'a' (1993) and 'd' (1990) have no relevance to its establishment or statutory status.
The concept of mixed economy relates to
A)
The coexistence of rural sector and urban sector
B)
The coexistence of public sector and private sector
C)
The coexistence of small-scale sector and large-scale sector
D)
The coexistence of service sector and manufacturing sector
The concept of a mixed economy refers to an economic system that combines elements of both market (capitalist) and planned (socialist) economies. Therefore, it is characterized by the coexistence of both the public sector (state-owned) and the private sector (individually owned) working together. Option 'a' refers to demographic/geographic divisions, option 'c' refers to the scale of industrial operations, and option 'd' refers to different sectors of economic activity (secondary and tertiary); none of these define the fundamental structure of a mixed economy.
In which year was the new liberalized industrial policy announced in India?
A)
1989
B)
1991
C)
1990
D)
1992
The correct option is 'b' (1991). The New Industrial Policy (NIP) of India was announced on July 24, 1991, by the government led by Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh. This policy marked the beginning of economic liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG reforms) in India. The other options are incorrect because: Option 'a' (1989) and Option 'c' (1990) represent the years of severe economic crisis leading up to the reforms, but the policy was not yet formulated. Option 'd' (1992) was the year after the policy's implementation had already begun.
Mishmi Hills is a part of which among the following states of India?
A)
Nagaland
B)
Meghalaya
C)
Manipur
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
Mishmi Hills are located in the northeastern part of Arunachal Pradesh, India. They represent the southward extension of the Great Himalayan range and are situated at the junction of the Northeast Himalaya and Indo-Burma ranges. The other options are incorrect because: Nagaland is home to the Naga Hills; Meghalaya is famous for the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills; and Manipur is characterized by the Manipur Hills.
To prevent a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled, the court issues the writ of
A)
Habeas Corpus
B)
Mandamus
C)
Prohibition
D)
Quo Warranto
The writ of 'Quo Warranto' (which literally means 'by what authority or warrant?') is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office, thereby preventing them from holding a public office to which they are not entitled.
- Habeas Corpus is issued to protect personal liberty against unlawful detention.
- Mandamus is a command issued to a public official or authority to perform a mandatory duty they have failed to perform.
- Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Which one of the following factors did not contribute towards the rise of nationalism in India?
A)
Press
B)
Western education
C)
Socio – religious movements
D)
Muslim communalism
Muslim communalism (and communalism in general) did not contribute to the rise of Indian nationalism; instead, it acted as a divisive force that promoted sectarian interests, ultimately leading to separatism and the partition of the country. In contrast, the other options actively fostered nationalism: the Press (a) helped spread nationalist ideas and mobilize public opinion; Western education (b) introduced Indian intellectuals to modern concepts of democracy, liberty, and self-rule; and Socio-religious movements (c) reformed society, revived cultural pride, and created a sense of unity among Indians.
Which Five Year plan would be called last Five Year Plan?
A)
11th Five Year Plan
B)
12th Five Year Plan
C)
13th Five Year Plan
D)
14th Five Year Plan
The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) is considered the last Five-Year Plan of India. In 2015, the Government of India dissolved the Planning Commission (the body responsible for formulating these plans) and replaced it with the NITI Aayog, thereby discontinuing the Five-Year Plan system. The 11th Five-Year Plan (option a) preceded the 12th, while the 13th (option c) and 14th (option d) Five-Year Plans were never created or implemented.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part of the Constitution?
A)
Part I
B)
Part II
C)
Part III
D)
Part IV
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India (Articles 36 to 51). They serve as guidelines for the State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- Part I (Option a) deals with the Union and its Territory (Articles 1 to 4).
- Part II (Option b) deals with Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11).
- Part III (Option c) contains the Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).
Economic development is characterised by
A)
Structural change in the economy
B)
change in the occupational structure
C)
Both (a) & (b)
D)
None of the above
Economic development is a broad, multi-dimensional process that goes beyond mere economic growth to include qualitative changes in the economy. It is characterized by: 1. 'Structural change in the economy' (Option a), which involves a shift in the composition of national output (GDP) from agriculture towards manufacturing and services. 2. 'Change in the occupational structure' (Option b), which refers to the reallocation of the labor force from low-productivity primary sectors (agriculture) to high-productivity secondary (industrial) and tertiary (services) sectors. Since both of these structural shifts are fundamental indicators of economic development, Option (c) is the correct choice. Option (d) is incorrect because both (a) and (b) are valid characteristics.
National Institution for Transforming India (NITI AYOG) was established on-
A)
January 1, 2014
B)
January 1, 2015
C)
August 13, 2015
D)
August 13, 2016
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015, through a resolution of the Union Cabinet, replacing the 65-year-old Planning Commission. It serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. Option 'a' is incorrect because the Planning Commission was still active in early 2014. Options 'c' and 'd' are incorrect as they do not represent the official formation date of the institution.
Consider the following classified elites in these two broad types; 1. Organizing and directing elite, which deal with concrete goals and programmes and 2. Informally organized and diffused elites, which deal with moral and spiritual problems. Who among the following made this classification?
A)
Vilfred pareto
B)
Karl Manheim
C)
Gaetano Mosca
D)
Easton
Karl Mannheim, in his sociological analysis of elites, classified them into two broad categories: 1. Organizing and directing elites, which are highly organized and deal with concrete goals and programmes (such as political, administrative, and economic elites), and 2. Informally organized and diffused elites, which deal with moral, spiritual, and cultural problems (such as intellectuals, artists, and philosophers).
Why other options are incorrect:
- Vilfredo Pareto (Option a) is known for his theory of the 'circulation of elites' and his classification of elites into 'governing' and 'non-governing' elites, as well as 'foxes' and 'lions'.
- Gaetano Mosca (Option c) is famous for his division of society into the 'ruling class' (political class) and the 'ruled class'.
- David Easton (Option d) is a political scientist renowned for his systems theory and input-output model of political analysis, not for elite classification.
Who described the Indian National Movement as “Bourgeoise national movement”?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru
B)
Tilak
C)
Gokhale
D)
MN Roy
M.N. Roy (Manabendra Nath Roy), a pioneer of the communist movement in India and founder of the Communist Party of India, analyzed the Indian freedom struggle through a Marxist lens. In his writings, such as 'India in Transition' (1922), he characterized the Indian National Congress and the nationalist movement led by it as a 'bourgeois national movement' that primarily represented the interests of the Indian capitalist and landowning classes rather than the working class and peasantry. Other options are incorrect because: Jawaharlal Nehru (a), though influenced by socialism, was a key leader of the Congress and did not define the movement in such orthodox Marxist terms; Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) and Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) were nationalist leaders of the extremist and moderate factions respectively, who did not use Marxist class-analysis terminology to describe the movement they actively led.
The highest peak in South India is
A)
Nanda Devi
B)
Anamudi
C)
Makurti
D)
Doddabetta
Anamudi is the highest peak in South India and the Western Ghats, standing at an elevation of 2,695 meters (8,842 ft) in Kerala. Doddabetta (option d) is the highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills with an elevation of 2,637 meters, making it the second-highest peak in South India. Mukurthi (option c) is another prominent peak in the Nilgiris (2,554 meters) but is lower than Anamudi. Nanda Devi (option a) is located in the Himalayas in Uttarakhand and is the second-highest mountain in India overall, not in South India.
The slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was included etec
A)
first plan
B)
fifth plan
C)
fourth plan
D)
third plan
The slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was coined by Indira Gandhi during her 1971 election campaign. It was formally incorporated as a prime objective in the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1979), which focused on poverty alleviation and self-reliance. The First Plan (1951–1956) focused on agriculture, the Third Plan (1961–1966) on agriculture and basic industries, and the Fourth Plan (1969–1974) on growth with stability, making those options incorrect.
Which of the following is the biggest wine producing state in India?
A)
Maharashtra
B)
Bihar
C)
Karnataka
D)
Himachal Pradesh
Maharashtra is the largest wine-producing state in India, accounting for over 80% of the country's total wine production. Nashik, a city in Maharashtra, is famously known as the 'Wine Capital of India' due to its ideal climate for grape cultivation and high concentration of wineries. Karnataka (option c) is the second-largest producer but lags significantly behind Maharashtra. Himachal Pradesh (option d) is known for fruit wines rather than grape wines, and Bihar (option b) has strict alcohol prohibition laws and is not a wine producer.
Balance of payment refers to
A)
Transactions in the flow of capital
B)
Transactions relating only to exports and imports
C)
Transactions relating to receipts and payment of visible goods
D)
Systematic record of all economic transactions between residents and with the rest of the world in a certain period
The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a comprehensive and systematic record of all economic transactions—including goods, services, assets, and unilateral transfers—between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period (usually a year). Option 'a' is incorrect because capital flows represent only the capital account component of the BoP. Options 'b' and 'c' are incorrect because they describe the Balance of Trade (which only covers visible goods/exports and imports), which is merely a subset of the overall Balance of Payments.
The most important source of energy in India is
A)
Petroleum
B)
Coal
C)
Nuclear
D)
Bio-fuel
Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India, meeting over 55% of the country's commercial energy needs and accounting for nearly 70% of its electricity generation. Petroleum (Option a) is the second-largest source but is heavily imported and primarily used in the transport sector. Nuclear energy (Option c) contributes a very small fraction (less than 3%) to India's energy mix. Bio-fuels (Option d) are largely used in traditional rural households and do not match the scale of coal in commercial and industrial energy production.
In a Parliamentary government, ministers perform double function-
A)
One as a party man, other as a member of the legislature
B)
One as a man, other as a minister
C)
One as the member of legislature, other as a minister
D)
One as a politician, other as a minister.
In a Parliamentary system of government, there is a fusion of powers between the executive and the legislative branches. To be a minister, an individual must be a member of the legislature (Parliament). Therefore, ministers perform a double function: first, as a member of the legislature (participating in lawmaking, debates, and representing their constituency), and second, as a minister (heading an executive department and implementing policies). Option 'a' is incorrect because it omits the executive role of a minister. Option 'b' is incorrect as 'one as a man' refers to a personal state rather than a constitutional function. Option 'd' is incorrect because 'politician' is a general term and does not specifically capture the constitutional legislative role required in a parliamentary system.