← Group B (Gazetted)
Past Questions
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be declared Unconstitutional by the Supreme Court if it-
A)
Can take away any Fundamental right
B)
Violates the basic structure of the Constitution
C)
Replaces the parliamentary system with the presidential one
D)
All of the above
1. **Why 'b' is correct**: In the landmark *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) case, the Supreme Court of India introduced the 'Basic Structure Doctrine'. This doctrine rules that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter, damage, or destroy its core features or 'basic structure'. Any constitutional amendment that violates this basic structure is declared unconstitutional and void by the Supreme Court.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option 'a' is incorrect**: Parliament can amend or abridge Fundamental Rights (for example, the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment), as long as the amendment does not damage the basic structure of the Constitution. Thus, taking away a fundamental right is not a standalone ground for unconstitutionality unless it violates the basic structure.
- **Option 'c' is incorrect**: While the parliamentary system is considered a part of the basic structure, replacing it is a specific example of a violation. The overarching legal ground for declaring any amendment unconstitutional is the violation of the 'Basic Structure' itself, making option 'b' the most accurate and comprehensive choice. Consequently, 'All of the above' (d) is incorrect.
Silent Valley National Park has a number of rare animal and plant species. The National Park is located in
A)
Kashmir
B)
U.P
C)
Madhya Pradesh
D)
Kerela
Silent Valley National Park is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala (spelled 'Kerela' in the options), India. It is situated in the Nilgiri Hills and is famous for its unique, undisturbed tropical evergreen rain forests and rare species such as the endangered Lion-tailed Macaque.
- Option a (Kashmir) is incorrect; it is known for national parks like Dachigam and Hemis.
- Option b (U.P) is incorrect; its most famous national park is Dudhwa National Park.
- Option c (Madhya Pradesh) is incorrect; it is home to national parks like Kanha, Bandhavgarh, and Pench.
Which of the following was included as part of the land reforms initiated in India?
A)
Abolition of intermediaries
B)
Tenancy reforms
C)
Reorganization of agriculture
D)
All the above
Land reforms initiated in India post-independence were comprehensive institutional measures aimed at restructuring land ownership and distribution. They primarily consisted of three main components: (1) Abolition of intermediaries (such as Zamindars and Jagirdars) to establish a direct relationship between the state and the tiller; (2) Tenancy reforms to regulate rent, provide security of tenure, and grant ownership rights to tenants; and (3) Reorganization of agriculture, which included consolidation of fragmented land holdings and imposing land ceilings. Since all these measures (options a, b, and c) were integral parts of the land reform program, 'All the above' is the correct choice.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
A)
The Finance Minister
B)
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C)
The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D)
The President of India
Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final and binding. This decision cannot be challenged in a court of law, in either House of Parliament, or even by the President.
- **Option a (The Finance Minister):** Although the Finance Minister introduces the budget and related financial bills, they do not have the constitutional authority to certify a bill as a Money Bill.
- **Option c (The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha):** The Rajya Sabha has very limited powers regarding Money Bills, and its Chairman has no authority to decide on the nature of the bill.
- **Option d (The President of India):** While a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only on the prior recommendation of the President, the final authority to certify it as a Money Bill rests solely with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The decisions of the Central administrative Tribunals can be challenged in the Supreme Court of India under the Article-
A)
323 A
B)
329
C)
243 C
D)
343
1. **Why Option A is correct:** Article 323 A of the Constitution of India enables the Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals (such as the Central Administrative Tribunal or CAT) for resolving disputes regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. Under the framework established pursuant to Article 323 A, decisions of the CAT could be challenged in the Supreme Court of India. (Note: Following the landmark *L. Chandra Kumar* case in 1997, the Supreme Court ruled that appeals must first lie before a Division Bench of the respective High Court under Article 226/227 before reaching the Supreme Court, but Article 323 A remains the constitutional source for these tribunals).
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Article 329 (Option b):** Relates to the bar on courts interfering in electoral matters.
- **Article 243 C (Option c):** Relates to the composition of Panchayats.
- **Article 343 (Option d):** Relates to the official language of the Union.
Which of the following states is the largest producer of Banana in India?
A)
Karnataka
B)
Maharashtra
C)
Kerala
D)
Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu is the largest producer of bananas among the given options. Nationally, India is the world's largest producer of bananas, and within India, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are the leading producing states. Tamil Nadu has the highest production volume among the choices listed, supported by favorable climatic conditions and extensive cultivation. Other states like Maharashtra (b), Karnataka (a), and Kerala (c) are also significant producers but rank lower in terms of total annual production volume compared to Tamil Nadu.
Quit India movement was launched in-
A)
1936
B)
1938
C)
1940
D)
1942
The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee (AICC), demanding an end to British rule in India.
- 1936 (Option a): Marked by the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru.
- 1938 (Option b): Marked by the Haripura session of the Indian National Congress presided over by Subhas Chandra Bose.
- 1940 (Option c): Marked by the launch of the Individual Satyagraha and the announcement of the August Offer by Viceroy Linlithgow.
The main factors responsible for growth of Communalism in India is-
A)
presence of many religions
B)
past record of Communal Conflicts
C)
discriminatory nature of the Constitution
D)
group based political mobilization
1. **Why 'd' is correct**: Communalism is essentially a political ideology that uses religious identity to achieve secular (political and economic) goals. Group-based political mobilization along religious lines for electoral gains and power is the primary driver of communalism in modern India.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **'a' is incorrect**: The presence of multiple religions (pluralism) is a characteristic of Indian society and does not inherently cause communalism. Diversity leads to communalism only when it is politicized.
- **'b' is incorrect**: While a history of communal conflicts creates mutual distrust, it is a legacy/symptom rather than the active, primary force driving the growth of communalism.
- **'c' is incorrect**: The Indian Constitution is fundamentally secular and guarantees equality to all citizens irrespective of religion, making this option factually incorrect.
The example of Political decentralization is-
A)
Panchayati Raj Institution
B)
Planning Commission
C)
Political Parties
D)
Pressure Groups
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) are a prime example of political decentralization in India. Through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, power and decision-making authority were formally devolved from the central and state levels to local self-governments at the grassroots level. In contrast, the Planning Commission (option b) was a highly centralized, top-down economic planning body. Political Parties (option c) and Pressure Groups (option d) are actors within the political system that influence policy, but they do not represent the structural devolution of state authority to local bodies.
‘Right to Education’ has been placed in the Indian Constitution under
A)
86th Amendment Act
B)
85th Amendment Act
C)
84th Amendment Act
D)
83rd Amendment Act
The 'Right to Education' was incorporated into the Indian Constitution via the 86th Amendment Act, 2002. This amendment inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
- **85th Amendment Act (2001):** Provided consequential seniority in the case of promotion for government servants belonging to SCs and STs.
- **84th Amendment Act (2001):** Extended the ban on the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies until 2026.
- **83rd Amendment Act (2000):** Exempted Arunachal Pradesh from the requirement of reserving seats for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats.
Who came to be known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
A)
Dadabhai Naoroji
B)
Mahatma Gandhi
C)
Justice Ranade
D)
Rabindranath Tagore
Dadabhai Naoroji is widely known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'. He was a prominent early nationalist leader, one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress, and the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament. He is also famous for proposing the 'Drain of Wealth' theory, which exposed the economic exploitation of India under British rule.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Mahatma Gandhi (b) is revered as the 'Father of the Nation' or 'Bapu'.
- Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade (c) was a distinguished social reformer and judge, often referred to as the mentor of Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
- Rabindranath Tagore (d) is famously known as 'Gurudev' and was the first Indian to win a Nobel Prize.
What caused the Khilafat Movement?
A)
Partition of Bengal
B)
Defeat of Turkey in the First World War
C)
Disrespect shown to the Caliph by the British
D)
None of these
The Khilafat Movement (1919–1924) was launched by Indian Muslims, led by the Ali brothers (Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali), to protest against the British government's decision to dismantle the Ottoman Empire and strip the Sultan of Turkey—who was revered as the Caliph (Khalifa), the spiritual leader of the Sunni Muslim world—of his powers. This was perceived as a direct disrespect and betrayal to the Caliph by the British. Option 'a' (Partition of Bengal) is incorrect as it took place in 1905 and led to the Swadeshi Movement. Option 'b' (Defeat of Turkey in WWI) was the geopolitical precursor, but the direct trigger for the movement was the subsequent harsh treatment and disrespect shown to the Caliph by the British through the Treaty of Sèvres.
The most powerful passport in the World in the year 2020 is
A)
USA
B)
Japan
C)
Switzerland
D)
Russia
According to the Henley Passport Index 2020, Japan held the top spot as the world's most powerful passport, offering its holders visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to 191 destinations. The other options are incorrect because: USA was ranked 8th, Switzerland was ranked 7th, and Russia was ranked 51st in the same index for the year 2020.
For the sixth year in a row, Tamil Nadu recently received the best State award from the Health Ministry for which of the following?
A)
Cleanest state
B)
Blood Donation
C)
Small scale industries
D)
Organ donation
Tamil Nadu was awarded the best State award for organ donation by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (specifically through the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation - NOTTO) for the sixth consecutive year in 2020. This award recognizes the state's outstanding performance in organ transplantation, awareness, and donor retrieval. The other options are incorrect because: 'Cleanest state' awards are given under Swachh Survekshan by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; 'Blood Donation' is not the category for this specific consecutive award; and 'Small scale industries' falls under the Ministry of MSME, not the Health Ministry.
Who applied the Doctrine of Lapse to the Indian states?
A)
Lord Hastings
B)
Lord Dalhousie
C)
Lord Canning
D)
Lord Wellesley
The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy devised and extensively applied by Lord Dalhousie, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. Under this doctrine, any princely state under the direct or indirect influence of the British East India Company would be annexed if the ruler died without a natural male heir.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Lord Canning (Option c) succeeded Dalhousie and officially withdrew the Doctrine of Lapse in 1859 following the Revolt of 1857.
- Lord Wellesley (Option d) is famous for introducing the 'Subsidiary Alliance' system in 1798.
- Lord Hastings (Option a) is associated with the policy of 'Paramountcy' and the Third Anglo-Maratha War.
After leaving Congress, Subhas Chandra Bose organized the Forward Bloc in
A)
1936
B)
1937
C)
1939
D)
1941
Subhas Chandra Bose resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress on April 29, 1939, due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress High Command. Shortly after, on May 3, 1939, he founded the All India Forward Bloc in Makur, Unnao, Uttar Pradesh, to bring together the left-wing elements of the Congress. The other options are incorrect because: 1936 (a) was the year Bose was released from prison and visited Europe; 1937 (b) was the year of provincial elections under the Government of India Act 1935; and in 1941 (d), Bose made his famous escape from house arrest in Calcutta to Germany.
According to the Union budget 2020-21, which among the following contribute the most to the centre’s exchequer?
A)
Corporate tax
B)
Borrowings and other liabilities
C)
Income tax
D)
Profits of government companies
According to the Union Budget 2020-21 ('Rupee Comes From' chart), 'Borrowings and other liabilities' was the largest source of receipt for the central government, contributing 20% (or 20 paise of every rupee) to the exchequer. In comparison, Corporate Tax (Option a) contributed 18%, Income Tax (Option c) contributed 17%, and Non-Tax Revenue (which includes profits of government companies, Option d) contributed 10%.
On January 11 2021, which of the following countries was re-designated as the State Sponsor of Terrorism by the United States for its constant support to the acts of terrorism at global level?
A)
North Korea
B)
Iran
C)
Cuba
D)
Venezuela
On January 11, 2021, the United States Department of State re-designated Cuba as a State Sponsor of Terrorism, citing its repeated support for acts of international terrorism by harboring U.S. fugitives and Colombian guerrilla leaders. Cuba had previously been removed from the list in 2015 by the Obama administration.
- **North Korea (a)** was re-designated as a State Sponsor of Terrorism earlier, in November 2017.
- **Iran (b)** has been designated as a State Sponsor of Terrorism since January 1984.
- **Venezuela (d)** is subject to various U.S. sanctions but has not been officially designated as a State Sponsor of Terrorism.
Regarding Swami Dayanand, consider the following: 1. Attacked the spread of western sciences 2. Organized social services during natural calamities like flood 3. Encourage inter-caste marriage and widow remarriage 4. Opposed child marriages and polygamy Choose the correct answer from the following:
A)
2 and 3
B)
1, 2 and 3
C)
2, 3 and 4
D)
All of these
Swami Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj, was a prominent social reformer. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct: he and the Arya Samaj actively organized relief work during natural calamities, encouraged inter-caste marriages and widow remarriage, and strongly opposed social evils like child marriage and polygamy. Statement 1 is incorrect because Swami Dayanand did not oppose western sciences; rather, he favored a synthesis of traditional Vedic education with modern western sciences, which later led to the establishment of the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools and colleges. Therefore, option 'c' (2, 3 and 4) is the correct choice.
The first Environment school in Asia named “World Environment School” that will be operational from 2021 will be set up in -
A)
Madhya Pradesh
B)
Gujarat
C)
Telangana
D)
Karnataka
The correct option is 'd' (Karnataka). The World Environment School, Coorg (WESc), located in Karnataka, is the first environment school in India and Asia. Initiated by the Mobius Foundation, it was set up to be operational from 2021 with a focus on integrating environmental education with a standard curriculum. The other options—Madhya Pradesh (a), Gujarat (b), and Telangana (c)—are incorrect as this landmark institution is specifically established in the Coorg district of Karnataka.
The year 2020 was declared as the ‘Year of Artificial Intelligence’ by which of the following states?
A)
Delhi
B)
Kerala
C)
Maharastra
D)
Telangana
The Government of Telangana declared the year 2020 as the 'Year of Artificial Intelligence' (AI) to foster a conducive ecosystem for AI research, development, and implementation in the state. Throughout the year, the state government partnered with various industry leaders, startups, and academic institutions to launch multiple AI-focused initiatives. The other options (Delhi, Kerala, and Maharashtra) did not make any such official declaration for the year 2020, although they have their own independent technology and IT policies.
Who established the Vedanta College?
A)
Swami Dayananda
B)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C)
Swami Vivekananda
D)
David Hare
Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the Vedanta College in Calcutta in 1825. He designed the curriculum to offer courses in both traditional Indian learning (monotheistic Sanskrit literature) and Western physical and social sciences to synthesize Eastern and Western thoughts. Swami Dayananda (Option a) founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. Swami Vivekananda (Option c) founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897. David Hare (Option d) was a Scottish philanthropist who collaborated with Raja Ram Mohan Roy to establish the Hindu College in 1817, but did not establish the Vedanta College.
In New Education Policy 2020, the current 10+2 system will be replaced by a new curricular structure. What is the new curricular structure?
A)
3+4+4+5
B)
5+3+3+4
C)
4+3+3+5
D)
5+4+3+3
Under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the existing 10+2 pedagogical structure is replaced by a new 5+3+3+4 curricular structure corresponding to ages 3-18. This structure is divided as follows:
1. Foundational Stage (5 years): 3 years of preschool/Anganwadi + 2 years of primary school (Classes 1 and 2) for ages 3-8.
2. Preparatory Stage (3 years): Classes 3 to 5 for ages 8-11.
3. Middle Stage (3 years): Classes 6 to 8 for ages 11-14.
4. Secondary Stage (4 years): Classes 9 to 12 for ages 14-18.
Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not represent the correct distribution of years across these four developmental stages defined by the NEP 2020.
The Ryotwari settlement was first introduced by
A)
Thomas Munro and Captain Read
B)
Lord Hastings
C)
Warren Hastings
D)
Lord Cornwallis
The Ryotwari settlement was first introduced by Captain Alexander Read in 1792 in the Baramahal district of Madras, and was later implemented across the Madras Presidency by Sir Thomas Munro in 1820. Under this system, the land revenue was settled directly with the actual cultivators (ryots). Lord Cornwallis (Option d) is incorrect because he introduced the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari system) in Bengal in 1793. Warren Hastings (Option c) is incorrect as he introduced the Izaredari system in 1773. Lord Hastings (Option b) was the Governor-General during its expansion but did not introduce the system.
In 1791, a Sanskrit College was established at Varanasi by
A)
William Carey
B)
Jonathan Duncan
C)
Warren Hastings
D)
Lord Hardinge
The Sanskrit College at Varanasi was established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, who was then the British Resident at Benares, to promote the study of Hindu laws, literature, and religion.
- William Carey (a) was a British Christian missionary who co-founded the Serampore Mission and Serampore College in 1818.
- Warren Hastings (c) founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study of Islamic law and Arabic/Persian languages.
- Lord Hardinge (d) served as the Governor-General of India much later (1844–1848) and is known for declaring English education as a qualification for public employment.