← Group B (Gazetted)

Past Questions

Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

What is the maximum gap permissible between the two sessions of parliament?

A) Six months
B) Four months
C) Six months and twenty days
D) Ninety days
According to Article 85 of the Constitution of India, the President must summon each House of Parliament to meet such that six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. Therefore, the maximum permissible gap between two sessions of Parliament is six months. Options 'b' (Four months), 'c' (Six months and twenty days), and 'd' (Ninety days) are incorrect as they do not align with this constitutional provision.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Rihand Dam is built across

A) Chambal River
B) Son River
C) Narmada River
D) Luni River
Rihand Dam (also known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar) is built across the Rihand River, which is a major tributary of the Son River. Since the Rihand River itself is not listed in the options, the Son River is the correct choice. - **Chambal River (Option a):** Famous dams on this river include Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, and Jawahar Sagar. - **Narmada River (Option c):** Major dams on this river include the Sardar Sarovar Dam and Indira Sagar Dam. - **Luni River (Option d):** This is an endorheic river of western Rajasthan, and the Jaswant Sagar Dam is built across it.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

The characterization of British rule in Pre - 1857 India as ‘destructive and regenerative’ was made by

A) Rammohan Roy
B) Karl Marx
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
Karl Marx characterized British rule in India as having a 'double mission: one destructive, the other regenerating'. In his famous 1853 article, 'The Future Results of British Rule in India', he argued that England was destructive in annihilating the traditional Asiatic society, but regenerative in laying the material foundations for a modern Western-style society in Asia through railways, telegraphs, and free press. Other options are incorrect because: Rammohan Roy (a) was a social reformer who supported modernization but did not frame it in these terms; Dadabhai Naoroji (c) is famous for his 'Drain of Wealth' theory which focused primarily on the economic exploitation by the British; and Surendra Nath Bannerjee (d) was a moderate nationalist leader who advocated for administrative reforms rather than this dialectical analysis.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Which of the following is a short-term debt instruments that mature within 12 months?

A) Debentures
B) Treasury Bills
C) Mortgage
D) Masala Bonds
Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to meet its short-term financial requirements. They are money market instruments with maturities of less than one year (typically 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days). In contrast, Debentures are long-term debt instruments issued by corporations; Mortgages are long-term secured loans used to purchase real estate; and Masala Bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India, which are medium to long-term debt instruments with a minimum maturity of 3 years.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

In India, Wheat is NOT grown in

A) Indo-Gangetic plain
B) Malwa plateau
C) Himalayas
D) Western Ghats
Wheat is a temperate rabi crop that requires a cool growing season, bright sunshine during ripening, and moderate rainfall (50 to 75 cm). - **Why 'Western Ghats' is correct:** The Western Ghats experience a hot, humid tropical climate with extremely heavy rainfall, which is highly unfavorable for wheat cultivation. Instead, crops like rice, spices, coffee, and tea dominate this region. - **Why other options are incorrect:** - **Indo-Gangetic plain (a):** This is the primary wheat-producing belt of India, covering highly fertile states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. - **Malwa plateau (b):** Located in Madhya Pradesh, this region is famous for producing high-quality wheat (like Sharbati wheat) due to its favorable climate and soil. - **Himalayas (c):** Wheat is successfully grown in the valleys and terrace farms of the Himalayan states (such as Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir) during the winter season.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Accession Tax is levied on which among the following?

A) New property
B) Gifts and bequests received by heirs
C) Rented property
D) Purchased land
Accession tax is a tax levied on the recipient of gifts, inheritances, or bequests. Unlike an estate tax, which is charged on the deceased person's estate as a whole before distribution, an accession tax is calculated based on the value of the assets received by the individual heir or beneficiary. Options 'a' (New property) and 'd' (Purchased land) are subject to property tax, stamp duty, or registration charges, while option 'c' (Rented property) is subject to income tax on rental earnings and local property taxes.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

The Regulating Act of 1773 can be regarded as the measure to

A) assert the right of British Parliament to legislate for India
B) separate the executive from the legislature
C) separate the judiciary from the executive
D) centralize law making
The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first major step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company (EIC) in India. By passing this Act, the British Parliament formally asserted its right and authority to legislate for India and oversee the Company's administration. Option 'b' is incorrect because the Act did not separate the executive from the legislature; the Governor-General's Council exercised both functions. Option 'c' is incorrect because, although the Act established the Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774, it did not clearly demarcate the jurisdictions of the judiciary and the executive, leading to frequent conflicts between them. Option 'd' is incorrect because, while it initiated a trend toward centralization by subordinating the Bombay and Madras Presidencies to Bengal, the complete centralization of law-making was only achieved later through the Charter Act of 1833.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

In which one of the following states is the Nandadevi Biosphere reserve situated?

A) Bihar
B) Uttarakhand
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Odisha
The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Uttarakhand, situated around the peak of Nanda Devi in the West Himalayas. It was established in 1982 and inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1988. Among the other options: Odisha is home to the Similipal Biosphere Reserve, while Uttar Pradesh and Bihar do not have any designated biosphere reserves.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

In Kesavanand Bharti Case

A) it was held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights
B) the decision of Golak Nath Case was held
C) 24th Amendment was held valid and Parliament could amend Fundamental rights
D) none of the above was decided
In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the 24th Amendment Act, ruling that Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, as long as such amendments do not alter or destroy its 'basic structure'. Option (a) is incorrect because the court allowed the amendment of Fundamental Rights (subject to the basic structure limitation). Option (b) is incorrect because the decision in the Golaknath case (which had held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights) was overruled by the Supreme Court in this case.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

As of September 2022, Adani Group has become India’s most valued conglomerate in terms of revenue, profits and market capitalization by surpassing

A) Mahindra Group
B) TATA Group
C) Reliance Group
D) Bajaj Finance
In September 2022, the Adani Group's combined market capitalization of its listed companies reached over ₹22 lakh crore, surpassing the Tata Group (which stood at around ₹21.7 lakh crore) to become India's most valued conglomerate. - **Why other options are incorrect:** - **Mahindra Group (a):** Although a major Indian conglomerate, its market capitalization and revenue are much smaller compared to Tata and Adani. - **Reliance Group (c):** While Reliance Industries is one of India's most valuable individual companies, the comparison here is between diversified business conglomerates, where Adani overtook the Tata Group's overall combined valuation. - **Bajaj Finance (d):** This is a specific non-banking financial company (NBFC) and not a diversified conglomerate like Tata or Adani.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

In India, the core sector of the economy consists of how many industries?

A) Six
B) Seven
C) Eight
D) Ten
In India, the core sector of the economy consists of exactly eight industries. These are Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Together, these eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Therefore, option 'c' is correct, while options 'a' (Six), 'b' (Seven), and 'd' (Ten) are incorrect as they do not represent the official number of designated core industries.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Who described the Indian National movement as “bourgeoisie national movement”?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Gokhale
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Jawaharlal Nehru, heavily influenced by Marxist ideology and socialist thought during the late 1920s and 1930s, analyzed the Indian national struggle through a class lens. He described the Indian National Congress and the national movement as a 'bourgeoisie national movement' because its leadership and ideology were dominated by the middle-class intelligentsia and capitalist interests, even though it aimed to mobilize the masses. In contrast, Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) was a moderate who believed in constitutional methods; Mahatma Gandhi (c) viewed the struggle through a moral, non-violent, and class-collaborative framework rather than class conflict; and Lala Lajpat Rai (d) was an extremist leader focused on nationalist revivalism and did not characterize the movement in Marxist terms.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

The term ‘Gross National Happiness’ was coined in 1972 by Jigme Singye Wangchuk. He was the king of

A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Thailand
D) Indonesia
The term 'Gross National Happiness' (GNH) was coined in 1972 by Jigme Singye Wangchuck, the fourth King of Bhutan. He used this concept to signal his commitment to building an economy that serves Bhutan's unique culture based on Buddhist spiritual values rather than focusing solely on material development (GDP). - Nepal (Option a): Nepal was ruled by the Shah dynasty (King Birendra was the monarch in 1972). - Thailand (Option c): Thailand's monarch in 1972 was King Bhumibol Adulyadej (Rama IX). - Indonesia (Option d): Indonesia is a republic and has been led by presidents (Suharto was the president in 1972), not a king.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

When a number of crops are grown one after another in a fixed rotation to maintain the fertility of the soil, it is called

A) Multiple Cropping
B) Mixed Farming
C) Crop Rotation
D) Truct Farming
Crop Rotation is the practice of growing different types of crops sequentially in the same area across different seasons. This systematic rotation helps replenish soil nutrients, maintain soil fertility, and break pest and disease cycles naturally. Multiple Cropping (a) refers to growing two or more crops on the same piece of land during a single growing season. Mixed Farming (b) involves a combination of crop cultivation and livestock rearing on the same farm. Truck Farming (d) is the large-scale cultivation of vegetables and fruits specifically for shipping to distant markets.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Originally, the State list in the Constitution consists of

A) 47 subjects
B) 61 subjects
C) 66 subjects
D) 97 subjects
Originally, the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contained 66 subjects. Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, five subjects were transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List, reducing the number of subjects in the State List to 61. Therefore, option 'c' is correct. Option 'b' (61 subjects) represents the current number of subjects in the State List. Option 'a' (47 subjects) represents the original number of subjects in the Concurrent List. Option 'd' (97 subjects) represents the original number of subjects in the Union List.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

India’s density of population in 2011 census

A) 324
B) 382
C) 333
D) 394
According to the 2011 Census of India, the population density of India is 382 people per square kilometer, making option 'b' the correct answer. This is an increase from the 2001 census density of 324 people per square kilometer. Option 'a' (324) represents the population density of India in the 2001 census, while options 'c' (333) and 'd' (394) are incorrect figures that do not correspond to any official census density data for India.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

“Project Tiger” was launched in

A) 1975
B) 1973
C) 1971
D) 1970
Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India on April 1, 1973, from the Jim Corbett National Park during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It aims to ensure a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats. - Option 'a' (1975), Option 'c' (1971), and Option 'd' (1970) are incorrect because, while a national ban on tiger hunting was imposed in 1970 and the Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in 1972, the specific conservation initiative 'Project Tiger' was officially initiated only in 1973.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

The scheme that targets the rural, landless households where one earning member within the age group of 18-59 years is insured at a premium of Rs 200/- per year is

A) Universal Health Insurance Scheme (UHIS)
B) Janshree Bima Yojana (JBY)
C) Pradhan Mantri Jeeven Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
D) Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY)
The correct option is 'd' (Aam Admi Bima Yojana). Launched on October 2, 2007, the Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is a social security scheme specifically designed for rural landless households. It covers one earning member of the family in the age group of 18 to 59 years against natural and accidental death/disability. The premium under the scheme is Rs. 200/- per annum per member, which is shared equally (50:50) by the Central Government and the State Government. Other options are incorrect because: - 'a' (Universal Health Insurance Scheme) is a health insurance scheme, not a life insurance scheme for rural landless households. - 'b' (Janshree Bima Yojana) was a life insurance scheme for BPL and marginally above BPL citizens, which was later merged with AABY in 2013. - 'c' (Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana) targets individuals in the age group of 18 to 50 years with a premium of Rs. 330/- per annum (later revised to Rs. 436/-) and is open to all bank account holders, not specifically rural landless households.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

RBI issues currency notes against which of the following?

A) Gold
B) Foreign Exchange Reserve
C) Government Securities
D) All of the above
Under Section 33 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the RBI issues currency notes against assets held in its Issue Department. These assets must consist of Gold (coins and bullion), Foreign Securities (Foreign Exchange Reserves), and Government of India Rupee Securities. Under the Minimum Reserve System adopted in 1957, the RBI is required to maintain a minimum reserve of Rs. 200 crores, of which at least Rs. 115 crores must be in gold and the rest in foreign securities. Since all the individual options (Gold, Foreign Exchange Reserve, and Government Securities) are valid backing assets, 'All of the above' is the correct choice.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Which one of the following states receives floods during winter?

A) Assam
B) Kerala
C) West Bengal
D) Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu is the correct answer because it receives the majority of its rainfall during the North-East Monsoon (also known as the retreating monsoon) from October to December, which corresponds to the winter season in India. This heavy precipitation frequently leads to winter floods, particularly in coastal regions like Chennai. In contrast, Assam (a), West Bengal (c), and Kerala (b) receive their heaviest rainfall and experience major flooding during the South-West Monsoon (June to September), which is the summer monsoon season.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

In terms of Purchasing Power Parity, India is currently the

A) Second largest economy in the world
B) Third largest economy in the world
C) Fourth largest economy in the world
D) Fifth largest economy in the world.
In terms of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), India is the third-largest economy in the world, trailing only China (first) and the United States (second). Therefore, option 'b' is correct. Option 'a' is incorrect because the United States holds the second position in PPP terms. Option 'c' is incorrect as Japan/Germany occupy the fourth and fifth positions in PPP. Option 'd' is incorrect because India is the fifth-largest economy in nominal GDP terms, not in PPP terms.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A) The people of Lakshadweep island mostly follow Islam and speak a dialect of Malayalam
B) Rubber is primarily produced in Kerala and the adjoining districts of Tamil Nadu
C) Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of gold in India
D) Silver is obtained from the lead and zinc ores of Zawar mines in Udaipur
Statement (c) is incorrect because Karnataka, not Madhya Pradesh, is the leading producer of gold in India, accounting for nearly 99% of the country's gold production (primarily from the Hutti Gold Mines). Madhya Pradesh is instead known for being the leading producer of diamonds (Panna) and copper. The other statements are correct: (a) Lakshadweep's population is predominantly Muslim and speaks Jeseri (a dialect of Malayalam); (b) Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India, followed by adjoining districts of Tamil Nadu like Kanyakumari; (d) Silver in India is primarily recovered as a by-product from the lead-zinc ores of the Zawar mines in Udaipur, Rajasthan.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Which one of the following climatic phenomena is found in the northern plains of India?

A) Nor westers
B) Bardoisila
C) Mango showers
D) Loo
The correct option is 'd' (Loo). 1. **Why 'Loo' is correct:** The 'Loo' is a strong, dusty, hot, and dry summer wind that blows during the afternoons of May and June over the northern and northwestern plains of India. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** - **Nor'westers (Kalbaishakhi):** These are violent local thunderstorms accompanied by heavy rain and hail, occurring mainly in West Bengal and parts of Odisha and Bihar (eastern India). - **Bardoisila:** This is the local term used in Assam for the pre-monsoon thunderstorms (similar to Nor'westers). - **Mango showers:** These are pre-monsoon rainfall occurring towards the end of the summer season in the coastal areas of Karnataka and Kerala (southern India), which help in the early ripening of mangoes.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

How many members are nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Council of State?

A) 1/3 of the total membership
B) 1/6 of the total membership
C) 1/12 of the total membership
D) 12 members
According to Article 171 of the Constitution of India, the Governor nominates 1/6 of the total membership of the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. - Option 'a' (1/3) is incorrect because 1/3 of the members are elected by local bodies (like municipalities and district boards) and another 1/3 are elected by the Legislative Assembly (MLAs). - Option 'c' (1/12) is incorrect because 1/12 of the members are elected by graduates and another 1/12 by teachers. - Option 'd' (12 members) is incorrect because 12 members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha (at the national level), not by the Governor to the State Legislative Council.
Group B (Gazetted) • General Studies Paper-II

Under which of the following five-year plans, ‘Sustainability’ was given special emphasis?

A) 9th Five Year Plan
B) 10th Five Year Plan
C) 11th Five Year Plan
D) 12th Five Year Plan
The correct option is 'd' (12th Five Year Plan). The official theme of the 12th Five Year Plan (2012–2017) was 'Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth', which put a central focus on environmental sustainability and green growth. In contrast, the other plans had different core themes: the 9th Five Year Plan (1997–2002) focused on 'Growth with Social Justice and Equality'; the 10th Five Year Plan (2002–2007) aimed at doubling per capita income and reducing poverty; and the 11th Five Year Plan (2007–2012) targeted 'Faster and More Inclusive Growth' without explicitly highlighting sustainability in its main title.
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