← Labour Officer
Past Questions
India will begin next census in:
A)
April, 2026
B)
May, 2026
C)
June, 2026
D)
July, 2026
The Census of India is typically conducted every ten years. The 2021 Census was delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic and subsequent administrative hurdles. According to recent government indications and budgetary projections for the digital census implementation, the process is slated to commence in early 2026. Specifically, the operational timeline for the data collection phase is expected to begin in April 2026. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they represent later dates in the year, whereas the government aims to initiate the process at the start of the financial year/spring cycle to ensure comprehensive coverage.
Which the following is incorrect regarding Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
A)
The Eight Schedule originally contains 14 languages
B)
Languages in the Eight Schedule receive Constitutional support for development and promotion
C)
It lists the languages recognized by the Constitution for Official purposes
D)
English was added to the Eight Schedule after liberalization of economy in 1991
The question asks for the INCORRECT statement regarding the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
1. Analysis of Option (a): The Eighth Schedule originally contained 14 languages at the time of the Constitution's commencement. This is a correct statement.
2. Analysis of Option (b): Languages listed in the Eighth Schedule are given official recognition and constitutional support for their development and promotion. This is a correct statement.
3. Analysis of Option (c): The Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution for official purposes (specifically for representation in Parliament and official communication). This is a correct statement.
4. Analysis of Option (d): This statement is incorrect. English is an official language of the Union (as per the Official Languages Act, 1963), but it is NOT listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, it was not 'added' after 1991 or at any other time.
Since option (d) is the only false statement, it is the correct answer to the question.
When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
A)
15 August 1947
B)
26 November 1949
C)
26 January 1950
D)
01 January 1950
The Constitution of India was formally adopted and passed by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949. This date is now celebrated annually as 'Constitution Day' (Samvidhan Divas).
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 15 August 1947: This is the date of India's Independence from British rule, not the adoption of the Constitution.
- Option (b) 26 November 1949: Correct. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on this date, although some provisions came into force immediately, the majority were deferred to January 1950.
- Option (c) 26 January 1950: This is the date the Constitution 'came into force' (commencement), marking the day India became a Republic. There is a distinction between 'adoption' (passing the document) and 'commencement' (putting it into legal effect).
- Option (d) 01 January 1950: This date holds no specific constitutional significance regarding the adoption or commencement of the Indian Constitution.
Which country is the largest producer of liquefied petroleum gas in the world?
A)
China
B)
Saudi Arabia
C)
USA
D)
Russia
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), primarily consisting of propane and butane, is produced as a byproduct of natural gas processing and crude oil refining. In recent years, the United States has become the world's largest producer of LPG. This surge is driven by the 'shale revolution,' where hydraulic fracturing and horizontal drilling have led to a massive increase in the production of natural gas liquids (NGLs), of which LPG is a major component. While Saudi Arabia and Russia are dominant in total natural gas and crude oil reserves, the specific volume of LPG produced and exported from the US currently leads the global market. China is a major consumer/importer of LPG rather than the top producer.
Who proposed the idea of Continental Drift Theory?
A)
Harry Hess
B)
Darwin
C)
McKenzie and Parker
D)
Alfred Wegner
The Continental Drift Theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist and geophysicist, in 1912. He hypothesized that all the Earth's continents were once joined together in a single supercontinent called 'Pangaea' and a single giant ocean called 'Panthalassa'. Over millions of years, these continents drifted apart to their current positions.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Harry Hess: He proposed the theory of 'Seafloor Spreading' in the 1960s, which provided the mechanism that Wegener's theory lacked.
- Darwin: Charles Darwin is the father of evolutionary biology (Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection), not geology or geophysics.
- McKenzie and Parker: They contributed significantly to the development of the theory of 'Plate Tectonics' in the late 1960s, which synthesized continental drift and seafloor spreading into a unified model.
Who was sworn in as the new Prime Minister of Bangladesh after the 13th Parliamentary Election?
A)
Tarique Rahman
B)
Khaleda Zia
C)
Muhammad Yunus
D)
Mohammed Shahabuddin
Following the political upheaval and the resignation of Sheikh Hasina in August 2024, an interim government was formed to manage the transition of power in Bangladesh. Dr. Muhammad Yunus, a Nobel Peace Prize laureate, was sworn in as the Chief Adviser (effectively the head of the interim government/Prime Minister equivalent) on August 8, 2024. While the '13th Parliamentary Election' refers to the upcoming electoral cycle following this transition, in the context of current affairs and the leadership change leading into the next electoral phase, Muhammad Yunus is the figurehead of the current administration.
Analysis of other options:
- Tarique Rahman: Acting Chairman of the BNP, but not the Prime Minister.
- Khaleda Zia: Former Prime Minister, currently not in power.
- Mohammed Shahabuddin: The President of Bangladesh, who is the head of state, not the head of government (Prime Minister).
A military campaign to rescue Mary Winchester was called:
A)
The Lushai Expedition 1871-1872
B)
The Lushai Expedition 1873-1874
C)
The Lushai Expedition 1888-1889
D)
The Chin Lushai Expedition 1890-1891
The Lushai Expedition of 1871-1872 was launched by the British government primarily in response to raids carried out by Lushai tribes on British tea gardens in Cachar and the kidnapping of several British subjects. Among those captured was Mary Winchester, the daughter of a tea planter. The military campaign was organized to rescue the captives, including Mary Winchester, and to punish the raiding chiefs to ensure the security of the frontier.
Comparing the options:
- Option (a) 1871-1872 is the correct period for the rescue mission of Mary Winchester.
- Option (b) 1873-1874 refers to subsequent smaller operations or consolidation efforts, but not the primary rescue campaign.
- Option (c) 1888-1889 and Option (d) 1890-1891 relate to later stages of British annexation and the final subjugation of the Lushai hills, occurring long after the Mary Winchester incident.
Which two disasters has the 16th Finance Commission recommended for inclusion as nationally notified disasters?
A)
Cyclones and droughts
B)
Heatwaves and lightning strikes
C)
Floods and earthquakes
D)
Landslides and cloudbursts
The 16th Finance Commission, chaired by Arvind Panagariya, has emphasized the need to modernize the disaster relief funding mechanism. In its preliminary discussions and recommendations regarding the Disaster Management fund, the Commission highlighted that traditional disasters like floods and cyclones are already covered. However, with the increasing frequency of climate-induced extreme weather events, the Commission recommended that 'Heatwaves' and 'Lightning strikes' be included as nationally notified disasters. This inclusion allows states to access central funds from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) for relief and mitigation efforts specifically for these two phenomena, which previously often fell outside the strict definitions of 'notified disasters' for funding purposes. Options a, c, and d are incorrect because cyclones, droughts, floods, earthquakes, landslides, and cloudbursts are already recognized and notified disasters under the existing framework of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and the NDRF.
Which juice secreted by the organs in the alimentary canal plays an important role in the digestion of fats?
A)
Saliva, hydrochloric acid
B)
Saliva, Pancreatic juice
C)
Bile juice, Pancreatic juice
D)
Saliva, Bile juice
The digestion of fats (lipids) is a complex process requiring both emulsification and enzymatic hydrolysis.
1. **Bile Juice**: Secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, bile contains bile salts. These salts perform 'emulsification,' which is the process of breaking down large fat globules into smaller droplets (micelles). This increases the surface area for enzymes to act upon.
2. **Pancreatic Juice**: Secreted by the pancreas, this juice contains the enzyme **pancreatic lipase**. Lipase is the primary enzyme responsible for chemically breaking down emulsified fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
Why other options are incorrect:
- **Saliva**: Contains salivary amylase, which digests carbohydrates (starch), not fats.
- **Hydrochloric Acid (HCl)**: Secreted by the stomach; it creates an acidic environment to activate pepsin for protein digestion and kills bacteria, but it does not digest fats.
Therefore, the combination of Bile juice (for emulsification) and Pancreatic juice (for enzymatic digestion) is essential for fat digestion.
Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate because:
A)
It has good climatic condition
B)
It has a huge number of educated population
C)
It has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
D)
It has adequate infrastructure
The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is a key indicator of the overall health and well-being of a population. Kerala's low IMR is primarily attributed to the 'Kerala Model of Development,' which emphasizes social sector investments.
1. Why Option (c) is correct: Low IMR is directly linked to accessible prenatal and postnatal care, institutional deliveries, widespread immunization, and high female literacy. The state's robust network of Primary Health Centres (PHCs) and a strong emphasis on public education ensure that mothers are aware of hygiene and nutrition, and infants receive timely medical intervention.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: While climate affects general health, it is not the primary driver of IMR. Many regions with similar tropical climates have very high IMRs due to poor healthcare.
3. Why Option (b) is incorrect: While a high educated population is a contributing factor, education alone cannot lower IMR without the physical infrastructure of health facilities (vaccines, hospitals, doctors) to implement that knowledge.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: 'Infrastructure' is a broad term that includes roads, bridges, and electricity. While helpful, specific 'health and educational facilities' are the direct causal factors for reducing infant mortality.
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act 2016 increased the types of disabilities from:
A)
7 to 10
B)
7 to 15
C)
7 to 21
D)
7 to 23
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act, 2016, was enacted to replace the previous Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. Under the 1995 Act, only 7 disabilities were recognized (blindness, low vision, leprosy cured, hearing impairment, locomotor disability, mental retardation, and mental illness). The 2016 Act expanded this list significantly to 21 specified conditions to ensure a more inclusive approach to social justice and accessibility. The new additions include conditions such as dwarfism, acid attack victims, Parkinson's disease, and various intellectual and learning disabilities (like dyslexia). Therefore, the number of recognized disabilities increased from 7 to 21.
Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides administration of tribal areas in the following states:
A)
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura
B)
Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram
C)
Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland
D)
Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in four North-Eastern states. These areas are administered through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) which have legislative, judicial, and executive powers to protect the indigenous culture and land rights of the tribal populations.
1. **Correct Option (a):** The four states covered under the Sixth Schedule are Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. A common mnemonic to remember this is 'AMTM'.
2. **Incorrect Options (b, c, d):**
- **Manipur** and **Nagaland** (mentioned in options b and c) are not covered under the Sixth Schedule. While they have special provisions under Article 371A and 371C, they do not fall under the Sixth Schedule's ADC framework.
- **Arunachal Pradesh** (mentioned in options c and d) is also not part of the Sixth Schedule; its tribal areas are governed by different administrative mechanisms.
Therefore, only option (a) lists the correct set of states.
Which payment company partnered with Gnani.ai to launch an agentic AI platform enabling in-call UPI payments during live customer conversations?
A)
Paytm
B)
PhonePe
C)
Razorpay
D)
GPay
Razorpay partnered with Gnani.ai to introduce an agentic AI platform designed to streamline the payment process during live customer interactions. This technology allows for 'in-call UPI payments,' where the AI agent can trigger a UPI payment request directly to the customer's phone while they are still on the call with a customer service representative or an automated bot. This reduces friction in the payment journey, eliminates the need for customers to manually enter details or navigate apps independently, and increases the success rate of collections and payments. Paytm, PhonePe, and GPay are major UPI players, but this specific strategic partnership for an agentic AI in-call payment platform was established by Razorpay and Gnani.ai.
Human Development Index measures:
A)
Income only
B)
Education only
C)
Health, education and income
D)
Population
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure a country's average achievements in three basic dimensions of human development:
1. **Health**: Measured by life expectancy at birth, which serves as a proxy for the overall health and quality of healthcare in a nation.
2. **Education**: Measured by a combination of mean years of schooling for adults and expected years of schooling for children.
3. **Income (Standard of Living)**: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Income only' refers to GDP or GNI per capita, which are purely economic measures and do not account for quality of life.
- Option (b) 'Education only' is just one component of the HDI.
- Option (d) 'Population' is a demographic metric, not a measure of development index.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of climate change?
A)
Rising sea levels
B)
Increased biodiversity
C)
More frequent heatwaves
D)
Melting polar ice caps
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Analyze the question: The question asks for the option that is NOT a consequence of climate change.
2. Evaluate Option (a) Rising sea levels: This is a direct consequence of climate change caused by the thermal expansion of seawater and the melting of land-based ice.
3. Evaluate Option (b) Increased biodiversity: Climate change generally leads to habitat loss, disruption of food chains, and the inability of species to adapt quickly enough to changing temperatures, resulting in a loss of biodiversity (extinction), not an increase.
4. Evaluate Option (c) More frequent heatwaves: Global warming increases the average surface temperature of the Earth, leading to a higher frequency and intensity of extreme heat events.
5. Evaluate Option (d) Melting polar ice caps: Increased global temperatures cause glaciers and polar ice sheets (Greenland and Antarctica) to melt rapidly.
6. Conclusion: Since options a, c, and d are well-documented consequences of climate change, option b is the correct answer as it is the opposite of what actually occurs.
Which body recommends the principles of distribution of tax proceeds between Union and States?
A)
Planning Commission
B)
NITI Aayog
C)
Finance Commission
D)
Inter State Council
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary mandate is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union government and the State governments (Vertical Devolution), and the allocation of these proceeds among the States (Horizontal Devolution).
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Planning Commission: This was a non-constitutional advisory body (replaced by NITI Aayog) that focused on five-year plans and resource allocation for developmental projects, not the constitutional distribution of tax proceeds.
- b. NITI Aayog: This is the current policy think-tank of the Government of India. While it provides strategic and technical advice, it does not have the constitutional authority to recommend tax distribution.
- d. Inter State Council: Established under Article 263, this is a coordinating body to discuss and investigate disputes between states or between the Union and states; it does not handle fiscal distribution of taxes.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
A)
Legal right available to citizens only
B)
Legal right available to any person
C)
Fundamental Right available to citizens only
D)
Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Historical Context**: Originally, the Right to Property was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Indian Constitution.
2. **The Amendment**: To facilitate land reforms and the redistribution of land for social welfare, the Government of India passed the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
3. **Current Status**: The 44th Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. It was subsequently inserted as a constitutional right under Article 300A.
4. **Legal Nature**: Article 300A states, 'No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.' This makes it a 'Legal Right' (or Constitutional Right), meaning it is protected by law but cannot be enforced as a Fundamental Right in the Supreme Court under Article 32.
5. **Applicability**: Unlike some Fundamental Rights (e.g., Article 15, 16, 19) which are available only to citizens, Article 300A uses the term 'person'. Therefore, this legal right is available to any person (including non-citizens/foreigners) residing in India.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) is incorrect because the right is not restricted to citizens only.
- Option (c) is incorrect because it ceased to be a Fundamental Right in 1978.
- Option (d) is incorrect because it is explicitly protected as a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A.
Identify the correctly matched pair:
A)
Montreal Protocol – Global Warming
B)
Project Tiger - Lion
C)
Kyoto Protocol – Climate Change
D)
Project Hangul - Deer
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. **Montreal Protocol (Option a):** This is incorrectly matched. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of ozone-depleting substances (like CFCs), not to address Global Warming directly.
2. **Project Tiger (Option b):** This is incorrectly matched. Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in 1973 specifically for the conservation of the Tiger (Panthera tigris), not the Lion.
3. **Kyoto Protocol (Option c):** This is correctly matched. The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in 1997) is an international treaty that committed industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gas emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets, specifically to combat Climate Change.
4. **Project Hangul (Option d):** While the Hangul (Kashmir Stag) is a type of deer, 'Project Hangul' is a specific conservation effort for the Kashmir Stag. However, in the context of standard competitive exam matching questions, 'Kyoto Protocol – Climate Change' is the definitive, globally recognized primary match. Furthermore, Project Hangul is a species-specific project, whereas the Kyoto Protocol is the defining treaty for Climate Change.
Mizo language belongs to:
A)
Mongoloid group
B)
Indo-Aryan group
C)
Tibeto-Burman group
D)
Burmese-Chin group
The Mizo language is a member of the Kuki-Chin branch of the Tibeto-Burman language family. This family encompasses a vast array of languages spoken across East Asia, Southeast Asia, and the Himalayas.
Step-by-step analysis of options:
- Option (a) Mongoloid group: This refers to a racial/ethnic classification, not a linguistic group. While Mizo people are ethnically Mongoloid, languages are categorized by linguistic families.
- Option (b) Indo-Aryan group: This group includes languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Punjabi, which are derived from Sanskrit. Mizo does not share this root.
- Option (c) Tibeto-Burman group: This is the correct linguistic classification. Mizo belongs to the Kuki-Chin subgroup, which falls under the broader Tibeto-Burman family.
- Option (d) Burmese-Chin group: While Mizo is related to Burmese and Chin languages, 'Tibeto-Burman' is the standard, authoritative academic term for the overarching language group in linguistics.
What was the first regularly published monthly newspaper in Mizo language with early content focusing on “Hmasang Chanchin”?
A)
Lenkawl
B)
Lushai News
C)
KristianTlangau
D)
Mizo leh Vai Chanchinbu
The 'Mizo leh Vai Chanchinbu' is recognized as the first regularly published monthly newspaper in the Mizo language. It was established to bridge the gap between the Mizo people and the outside world (the 'Vai' or outsiders). A significant portion of its early content was dedicated to 'Hmasang Chanchin' (Ancient/Past History), aiming to document the traditions, folklore, and historical accounts of the Mizo people before they were lost.
Comparing other options:
- 'Kristian Tlangau' is a well-known religious publication but focused primarily on Christian gospel and church news rather than general history and news.
- 'Lenkawl' and 'Lushai News' do not hold the distinction of being the first regularly published monthly newspaper focused on 'Hmasang Chanchin'.
In which session of the Indian National Congress was Vande Mataram sang for the first time?
A)
1899
B)
1896
C)
1898
D)
1897
The song 'Vande Mataram', written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in his novel 'Anandamath', was first sung at a session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1896. It was introduced and sung by Rabindranath Tagore during the Calcutta session of the INC in 1896. The song subsequently became a powerful anthem of the Indian independence movement, symbolizing patriotism and national unity. Options a (1899), c (1898), and d (1897) are incorrect as the historical record specifically attributes the first singing of the song at an INC session to the 1896 gathering.
The animal which uses ‘sounds’ as its eyes is:
A)
Possum
B)
Night heron
C)
Snake
D)
Bat
The phrase 'uses sounds as its eyes' refers to the biological process of echolocation. Echolocation is a biological sonar used by certain animals to navigate and locate prey in the dark.
1. **Bat (Correct):** Bats emit high-frequency ultrasonic sound waves that bounce off objects in their environment. By listening to the echoes of these sounds, bats can determine the size, shape, distance, and movement of objects, effectively 'seeing' their surroundings through sound.
2. **Possum:** Possums rely primarily on their sense of smell and sight; they do not use echolocation.
3. **Night heron:** While night herons are adapted for nocturnal hunting, they rely on highly developed vision (sight) and hearing, not echolocation.
4. **Snake:** Snakes use a combination of chemical sensing (via the Jacobson's organ) and heat-sensing pits (in some species like pit vipers) to locate prey, but they do not use sound-based imaging.
Anatomy is a branch of Science which deals with:
A)
Structure of animals and plants
B)
Functioning of body organs
C)
Animal behaviour
D)
Cells and tissues
Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with the study of the internal and external structures of organisms. It involves the identification and description of the physical arrangement of organs and tissues.
Here is why the other options are incorrect:
- Option (b) 'Functioning of body organs' refers to Physiology, which studies how the body parts work.
- Option (c) 'Animal behaviour' refers to Ethology, the scientific study of animal behavior.
- Option (d) 'Cells and tissues' refers to Cytology (study of cells) and Histology (study of tissues). While anatomy includes these, the broad definition of anatomy focuses on the overall structure of the organism.
Which of the following are the biodiversity hotspots present in India? A. The Himalayas, B. The Western Ghats, C. The Sunderland, D. The Indo-Burma
A)
A, B, C
B)
A, B, D
C)
A, C, D
D)
A, B, C, D
A biodiversity hotspot is a region with significant levels of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. To be qualified as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it must have lost at least 70% of its original native vegetation. India is home to four such hotspots:
1. The Himalayas (covering the entire Indian Himalayan region).
2. The Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka).
3. The Indo-Burma region (covering North-Eastern India).
4. Sundaland (which includes the Nicobar Islands).
Analyzing the given options:
A. The Himalayas - Correct.
B. The Western Ghats - Correct.
C. The Sundaland (misspelled as 'Sunderland' in the prompt, but contextually refers to the hotspot) - Correct.
D. The Indo-Burma - Correct.
Since all four regions are recognized biodiversity hotspots present in India, the correct option is (d).
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and have compassion for living creatures.”?
A)
Article 49
B)
Article 50
C)
Article 51
D)
Article 51A
The quoted text is a verbatim excerpt from the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
1. **Article 51A(g)** specifically mandates that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **Article 49:** This is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) which directs the State to protect monuments and places and objects of national importance from spoliation, disfigurement, marking, mutilation, destruction, and removal.
- **Article 50:** This DPSP directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
- **Article 51:** This DPSP directs the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations.