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Past Questions
Rights of a Land Settlement Certificate holder does not include :
A)
Payment of land revenues and taxes.
B)
Permanent, heritable and transferable right.
C)
Title, interest and peaceful possession of land.
D)
Land allotted within notified Forest Reserved.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013, a Land Settlement Certificate (LSC) grants specific legal rights to the holder regarding the land allotted to them.
1. **Analysis of Option (b) and (c):** The LSC typically confers a permanent, heritable, and transferable right to the land, providing the holder with legal title, interest, and the right to peaceful possession. These are the core benefits of holding a settlement certificate.
2. **Analysis of Option (a):** While the question asks what the rights 'do not include', the payment of land revenues and taxes is an obligation/liability that accompanies the rights of ownership. In the context of legal rights associated with a certificate, the right to hold the land is contingent upon the fulfillment of these duties.
3. **Analysis of Option (d):** By law, land that is notified as a 'Reserved Forest' is protected under forest conservation laws. The government cannot legally issue a Land Settlement Certificate for land located within a notified Reserved Forest, as such land is reserved for forest conservation and is not available for private settlement or allotment. Therefore, the rights of an LSC holder cannot possibly include land within a notified Reserved Forest, as such an allotment would be illegal/void.
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer because it describes a scenario that is legally prohibited and cannot be part of the rights granted by an LSC.
Government land means :
A)
All Departmental lands held under Land Lease.
B)
The land which is declared as the property of the Government.
C)
All vacant lands.
D)
All lands held by Government Departments with all vacant lands without title.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013, 'Government land' is defined broadly to ensure the state's authority over lands that are not privately owned or titled.
1. **Analysis of Option (d):** This is the most comprehensive definition. It includes both lands actively held/managed by various Government Departments and 'vacant lands without title' (lands where no individual or community can prove legal ownership/title), which by default vest in the Government.
2. **Why (a) is incorrect:** Land held under 'Land Lease' implies a contractual agreement where the government may be the lessor, but the definition of Government land is not limited only to leased departmental lands.
3. **Why (b) is incorrect:** While declared property is government land, this option is too narrow as it excludes vacant lands that are government property by default without needing a specific declaration.
4. **Why (c) is incorrect:** Not all vacant lands are necessarily government land (some may be subject to customary claims), and this option ignores lands actively held by government departments.
What is the “Subsistence Allowance” provided to an affected family for a period of one year from the date of award of compensation?
A)
Rs. 25,000
B)
Rs. 50,000
C)
Rs. 75,000
D)
Rs. 1,00,000
According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, specifically under the Second Schedule (which outlines the Rehabilitation and Resettlement entitlements), an affected family is entitled to a 'Subsistence Allowance'. The Act stipulates that a one-time subsistence allowance of Rs. 25,000 shall be provided to each affected family for a period of one year from the date of the award of compensation. This is intended to support the family during the transition period following the loss of their land or livelihood. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory amount specified in the Act's schedule.
Register for Record of Rights is to be maintained in :
A)
Prescribed FORM-22.
B)
Prescribed APPENDIX – II.
C)
Prescribed FORM-6B.
D)
Prescribed FORM-14.
In the context of Land Revenue and Settlement administration (specifically within the framework of the Record of Rights and Land Records rules), the Register for Record of Rights (ROR) is maintained in a standardized format to ensure uniformity across districts. According to the prescribed rules for the maintenance of land records, FORM-22 is the designated format used for the Record of Rights register. This register serves as the primary legal document detailing the ownership, tenure, and liabilities associated with a specific parcel of land. Other forms mentioned (such as FORM-6B or FORM-14) are typically used for different administrative purposes, such as mutation applications, notices, or specific certificates, but not for the primary ROR register.
Pick out one of the following acts which has not been repealed by the enactment of the Mizoram(Land Revenue) Act, 2013.
A)
The Lushai Hills District (House Site) Act, 1953.
B)
The Mizoram Land Holding and Settlement Act, 2000.
C)
The Mizo District (Land and Revenue) Act, 1956.
D)
The Mizoram (Restriction on use of Transferred Lands) Act, 2002.
The Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act, 2013 was enacted to consolidate and amend the laws relating to land revenue in the state of Mizoram. Under the 'Repeals' section of the Act, several previous land-related legislations were repealed to avoid overlap and conflict. Specifically, the Act repealed: 1) The Lushai Hills District (House Site) Act, 1953; 2) The Mizo District (Land and Revenue) Act, 1956; and 3) The Mizoram Land Holding and Settlement Act, 2000. However, The Mizoram (Restriction on use of Transferred Lands) Act, 2002 deals with specific restrictions on the use of lands that have been transferred, which is a distinct regulatory function from the general administration of land revenue, and thus it was not repealed by the 2013 Act.
Application for Periodic Patta should be submitted in :
A)
Prescribed FORM-6A.
B)
Prescribed FORM-2.
C)
Prescribed FORM-16.
D)
Prescribed FORM-7.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and its accompanying rules, specific forms are prescribed for different administrative processes related to land tenure and revenue. For the application of a Periodic Patta (a land document issued for a specific period), the prescribed format is FORM-6A. Other forms mentioned in the options serve different purposes: FORM-2 is typically associated with general applications or mutations, and other forms like FORM-7 or FORM-16 relate to different certifications or revenue records. Therefore, based on the statutory forms provided under the Act's rules, FORM-6A is the correct application form for Periodic Patta.
Grace periods for renewal of temporary allotment of land is permissible as per Second Amendment of Mizoram (Land Revenue) Rules, 2019 for periods up to:
A)
First grace period of Six months.
B)
Second grace period of another Six months.
C)
Third grace period of another Six months.
D)
Fourth grace period of another Six months.
Under the Mizoram (Land Revenue) Rules, 2019, and specifically the amendments governing the temporary allotment of land, the rules provide for a structured grace period for the renewal of such allotments to ensure that the land is not immediately reclaimed due to administrative delays or minor lapses in application. The rules stipulate that a first grace period of six months is allowed. If the renewal is still not processed or completed, a second grace period of another six months may be permissible. Beyond the second grace period, the allotment typically lapses or requires a fresh application process. Therefore, while a first grace period exists, the maximum permissible extension under the grace period framework is the second grace period of another six months.
Reverting back of lands for 40 % or 30% of the area to Government and diverting of land use from agricultural land into house sites is not specifically stipulated in the Mizoram (land Revenue) Act or Rules, 2013.
A)
False
B)
True
C)
Partially true
D)
Partially False
The Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act and Rules, 2013, primarily focus on the administration of land revenue, the classification of lands, the settlement of rights, and the duties of revenue officers. While the Act provides the framework for land administration and the government's power to manage land, it does not contain specific, codified clauses or percentages (such as 30% or 40%) regarding the automatic 'reverting back' of land to the Government upon certain conditions, nor does it provide a detailed, stipulated procedure for the diversion of agricultural land to house sites within the primary text of the Act/Rules. Such specific land-use conversions or reversion percentages are typically handled through separate administrative guidelines, land use policies, or specific government orders rather than being stipulated as statutory mandates within the 2013 Act itself. Therefore, the statement that these specific stipulations are not present in the Act or Rules is True.
“Year” according to Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act, 2013 is commencing on the :
A)
First day of April
B)
First day of January
C)
First day of March
D)
Day to be declared by the Government
Under the Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act, 2013, the definition of 'Year' is specifically provided in the interpretation/definitions section of the Act. In accordance with standard administrative and financial practices in India, and as explicitly stated in the Act, a 'Year' refers to a calendar year starting from the first day of April and ending on the 31st of March of the following year. This aligns with the financial year of the Government of India and the State Government of Mizoram. Therefore, option (a) is correct, while options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory definition provided in the Act.
Allotment of land under Lease for a period of 15 years is permissible :
A)
For Non-Government educational institutions.
B)
For Provisional Land Lease Certificate.
C)
For other Land Lease Certificate.
D)
For Park or Public water point.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated Land Revenue Rules, the government specifies different lease periods based on the purpose of land allotment. For Non-Government educational institutions, the land is typically allotted under a lease for a period of 15 years, which can be renewed upon the expiry of the term subject to the conditions of the lease. In contrast, Provisional Land Lease Certificates (PLLC) are temporary arrangements usually leading to a permanent lease, and allotments for public utilities like parks or water points are generally handled under different administrative categories or long-term public use grants rather than a standard 15-year commercial/institutional lease.
What is the “Solatium” percentage to be paid on the total compensation amount calculated under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act, 2013)?
A)
30 percent
B)
50 percent
C)
90 percent
D)
100 percent
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act, 2013), the 'Solatium' is a supplementary payment made to the land owner to compensate for the involuntary nature of the acquisition (the 'solace' for the loss of land). According to Section 30(1) of the Act, the Collector shall award a solatium amount equivalent to one hundred percent (100%) of the total compensation amount calculated under the Act. This means the solatium effectively doubles the total compensation amount (Market Value + Value of Assets + Multiplier). Therefore, option (d) is correct, while options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory requirement of the 2013 Act.
On receipt of application for transfer of ownership of land, sanction shall be disposed of by the competent authority as early as possible :
A)
Not later than six months
B)
Within one year
C)
Not later than forty days
D)
Within one month
Under the provisions of the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013, specifically regarding the administrative procedures for the transfer of ownership of land, the law mandates a specific timeframe for the competent authority to act upon an application. To ensure administrative efficiency and prevent undue delays in land tenure transitions, the Act stipulates that the sanction for the transfer of ownership must be disposed of as early as possible, and specifically not later than forty days from the date of receipt of the application. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed in the Act for this specific process.
Sub-letting or sub-leasing of land under lease is :
A)
Permissible as per rules.
B)
Permissible with prior approval of Government as per Act and Rules.
C)
Permissible with the approval of the Minister concerned.
D)
Not permissible as per Act and Rules.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated rules governing land tenure and leases, the general principle is that land granted under a lease by the Government is intended for the specific use of the lessee for the purpose for which it was granted. Sub-letting or sub-leasing (transferring the interest of the lease to a third party without a formal transfer of lease approved by the government) is strictly prohibited. Such an act typically constitutes a breach of the lease conditions and can lead to the cancellation of the lease and forfeiture of the land. Therefore, it is not permissible as per the Act and Rules.
Leased land can be transferred by the allottee or lessee under any circumstance :
A)
Within a family
B)
Within Associations of persons
C)
Within body of individual
D)
The sentence is not correct
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated land allotment rules, land leased or allotted by the government is generally non-transferable. The law strictly prohibits the allottee or lessee from transferring, selling, mortgaging, or subletting the land to any other person or entity without the prior written permission of the Deputy Commissioner or the competent authority. Therefore, the premise of the question—that leased land 'can be transferred... under any circumstance'—is legally incorrect. Options a, b, and c suggest specific groups to whom transfer is permitted, but without official government sanction, such transfers are illegal regardless of whether they are within a family or an association. Thus, the most accurate response is that the statement itself is incorrect.
At what rate of additional interest is paid on the market value from the date of notification of Social Impact Assessment(SIA) or Preliminary Notification to the date of the award ?
A)
9 percent per annum.
B)
12 percent per annum.
C)
15 percent per annum.
D)
6 percent per annum.
According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, specifically under the provisions related to the determination of compensation, an additional amount is payable to the land owner. Section 30(3) of the Act stipulates that where the market value of the land is determined, an additional amount at the rate of 12 percent per annum on the market value of the land shall be paid from the date of notification of the Social Impact Assessment (SIA) or the preliminary notification (whichever is earlier) to the date of the award. This is intended to compensate the landowner for the period of uncertainty and the time elapsed between the initiation of the acquisition process and the final determination of the award.
Land for Non-Government Hospitals on Lease should be issued for a period of :
A)
50 (fifty) years.
B)
99 (ninety) years.
C)
25 (twenty five) years.
D)
30 (thirty) years.
Under the land allotment and lease policies governed by the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated Land Allotment Rules, land granted for specific institutional purposes—specifically for Non-Government Hospitals—is typically issued on a leasehold basis for a period of 30 years. This duration allows the government to review the utilization of the land and ensure the facility continues to serve the public interest before considering a renewal. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they do not align with the specific lease term prescribed for non-government healthcare institutions under the current regulatory framework of the Mizoram Land Revenue and Settlement Department.
Which of the following is used by the Collector to determine the “Market value” under Section 26 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013?
A)
Current circle rate or Guideline value.
B)
Average Sale price for similar type of land in the area during immediately preceding three years of the year of land acquisition in the vicinity.
C)
Consented amount in case of private negotiations.
D)
Any of the above which ever is higher.
Under Section 26 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, the Collector is mandated to determine the market value of the land. According to Section 26(1), the market value shall be determined by the Collector on the basis of the higher of: (i) the market value specified in the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, or (ii) the average sale price for similar type of land in the nearest vicinity during the preceding three years. While circle rates (guideline values) are often used as a baseline, the Act specifically emphasizes the average sale price of similar lands in the vicinity over the preceding three years to ensure fair market compensation. Option (b) accurately reflects the statutory mechanism for calculating the market value based on actual transaction trends in the area. Option (c) is incorrect as the Act provides a legal formula for compensation rather than relying solely on private negotiations for the 'market value' determination. Option (d) is a distractor; while the Collector chooses the higher of specific statutory values, the phrasing in (b) is the primary method defined for calculating the actual market trend.
A Periodic Patta holder is not allowed to :
A)
Cultivate Horticulture crops and fruits.
B)
Cultivate Agriculture crops.
C)
Mutate his land-holding.
D)
Regularise his Patta into Land Settlement Certificate.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013 and the associated land administration rules, a 'Periodic Patta' is a temporary or time-bound land holding grant.
1. Options (a) and (b): A Patta holder, whether periodic or permanent, is primarily granted land for the purpose of cultivation. Therefore, cultivating agriculture crops and horticulture/fruits is the intended use of the land and is permitted.
2. Option (c): Mutation refers to the transfer of title or change in ownership records. Periodic Patta holders can generally undergo mutation processes (such as inheritance) provided the terms of the Patta allow for it and the land remains within the prescribed use.
3. Option (d): A Periodic Patta is distinct from a Land Settlement Certificate (LSC). An LSC represents a more permanent or settled form of tenure. By definition, a Periodic Patta is subject to renewal and specific conditions; it cannot be unilaterally 'regularized' or converted into a Land Settlement Certificate simply by the holder, as the LSC is granted based on specific settlement criteria and government policy. Therefore, a Periodic Patta holder is not allowed to simply regularize their status into an LSC without a formal government settlement process.
Which of the following is not included in the definition of “Land” under the Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act, 2013?
A)
Any ground, soil or earth.
B)
Benefits to arise out of land and things attached to the earth.
C)
Notified Forest Reserves.
D)
Agricultural land.
Under the Mizoram (Land Revenue) Act, 2013, the definition of 'Land' is broad and inclusive, aligning with general land revenue principles. It typically includes: (a) any ground, soil, or earth; (b) benefits to arise out of land and things attached to the earth (such as buildings or trees); and (d) agricultural land. However, 'Notified Forest Reserves' are specifically excluded from the jurisdiction of the Land Revenue Act because they are governed by separate specialized legislation, namely the Forest Acts (such as the Indian Forest Act or state-specific forest laws). Therefore, while a forest reserve is physically land, it is legally excluded from the definition of 'Land' for the purposes of land revenue administration, assessment, and settlement under this specific Act.
Right to Fisheries :
A)
Cannot be declared by the Government.
B)
Can be acquired by any person or group of persons.
C)
Means any right declared for collection of water, running or stagnant, to be a fishery.
D)
Refers to Fish farming.
Under the Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013, the term 'Right to Fisheries' is specifically defined in the context of land and water rights.
1. **Analysis of Option (c):** This option aligns with the legal definition used in land revenue laws, where a 'fishery' is defined as the right to fish or collect fish from water, whether that water is running (rivers, streams) or stagnant (ponds, lakes), provided it has been declared as such.
2. **Analysis of Option (a):** This is incorrect because the Government typically holds the authority to declare or regulate fishery rights on public lands or waters.
3. **Analysis of Option (b):** While individuals may obtain licenses or leases, the 'Right to Fisheries' as a legal definition in the Act refers to the nature of the right itself, not the process of acquisition by any random group.
4. **Analysis of Option (d):** 'Fish farming' (aquaculture) is a commercial activity/industry, whereas 'Right to Fisheries' is a legal property/usufructuary right to harvest fish from a specific water body.
The Controller of Land Records is :
A)
The Assistant Commissioner (Revenue) (previously the Settlement Officer).
B)
The Joint Director of Survey.
C)
The Director of Land Revenue & Settlement.
D)
The Secretary to Government of Mizoram, Land Revenue & Settlement.
In the administrative framework of Land Revenue and Settlement (specifically within the context of Mizoram's land administration), the role of the Controller of Land Records is vested in the Assistant Commissioner (Revenue). Historically, this function was performed by the Settlement Officer. The Assistant Commissioner (Revenue) is responsible for the maintenance, updating, and custody of land records to ensure accuracy in land ownership and tenure.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: The Joint Director of Survey focuses on the technical aspects of surveying and mapping rather than the administrative control of land records.
- Option c: The Director of Land Revenue & Settlement is the head of the department and provides overall administrative leadership, but the specific statutory/functional role of 'Controller of Land Records' is assigned to the AC (Revenue).
- Option d: The Secretary to the Government is a policy-level administrative head and does not act as the operational Controller of Land Records.
Which component is not listed under First Schedule to the RFCTLARR Act, 2013 as part of the minimum compensation package to be paid to the landowner?
A)
Market value of the land.
B)
Educational allowance for the landowner’s children.
C)
Value of assets attached to the land.
D)
Factor by which the market value is multiplied.
The First Schedule of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, outlines the formula for determining the minimum compensation to be paid to landowners. The components included in this calculation are: 1. The market value of the land (Option a); 2. The value of assets attached to the land (Option c), such as buildings or trees; 3. A multiplier factor (Option d) applied to the market value depending on whether the land is rural or urban; and 4. A solatium (an additional amount equivalent to 100% of the total compensation). Educational allowances for children are not part of the land compensation calculation under the First Schedule; while the Act provides for rehabilitation and resettlement (R&R) benefits in the Second Schedule, a specific 'educational allowance for children' is not a listed component of the minimum compensation package for the land itself in the First Schedule.
The correct reason to withdraw money from a treasury would be:
A)
To prevent lapse of grants
B)
For immediate disbursement due to liabilities
C)
In anticipation of demands
D)
For the creation of a revolving fund so as to meet emergency expenditure
Under the Central Treasury Rules and General Financial Rules (GFR), the fundamental principle of government accounting is that money should be drawn from the treasury only when it is required for immediate disbursement to meet a specific liability.
1. Why Option (b) is correct: Treasury rules mandate that funds must be withdrawn only for the purpose for which they were sanctioned and only when the payment is actually due. This ensures financial discipline and prevents the idling of public funds.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: Withdrawing money simply to 'prevent the lapse of grants' at the end of a financial year (often called 'rush of expenditure') is strictly prohibited and considered a financial irregularity.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: Funds cannot be withdrawn 'in anticipation of demands.' A concrete liability must exist before a bill is presented to the treasury.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: The creation of a revolving fund or an unauthorized 'imprest' outside of official sanctions is not a valid reason for general treasury withdrawal; such funds must be specifically authorized by the competent authority and governed by separate rules.
Which of the following activities is not allowed for a government servant?
A)
Participating in an amateur sports activity
B)
Occasionally publishing a book novel
C)
Occasionally investing in the stock market through a licensed stock broker
D)
Participate in the making of a privately produced media programme
Under the Conduct Rules for government servants (specifically aligned with the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, which form the basis for state-level rules like the Mizoram Conduct Rules, 1964), there are strict guidelines regarding 'Employment of Government servants' and 'Engagement in Trade or Business'.
1. Option (a) is allowed as amateur sports are generally considered recreational and do not interfere with official duties or create a conflict of interest.
2. Option (b) is allowed; publishing a literary, artistic, or scientific work is generally permitted provided it is not critical of the government or violates secrecy laws.
3. Option (c) is allowed; investing in the stock market through legal channels is a personal financial matter, provided it is not 'speculation' to an extent that it interferes with duty or involves insider trading.
4. Option (d) is NOT allowed without prior government sanction. Participating in the production of a privately produced media programme often involves commercial interests, potential conflicts of interest, and the risk of using one's official position for private gain or influence. Such activities are typically classified as 'engaging in a trade or business' or 'employment' outside of government service, which requires explicit prior permission from the competent authority.
Which of the following amounts to a penalty as per CCS(CCA) Rules, 1965?
A)
Compulsory retirement of a government servant in accordance with the provisions relating to his superannuation or retirement
B)
recovery from his pay of the whole or part of a pecuniary loss caused by him
C)
reversion of a government servant appointment on probation to any other service, grade or post to a lower service unconnected to his conduct
D)
non-promotion of a government servant, whether in substantive or officiating capacity, after consideration of his case, to a service grade or post for promotion to which he is eligible
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, Rule 11 lists the various penalties that can be imposed on a government servant. These are divided into Minor Penalties and Major Penalties.
1. Option (b) 'recovery from his pay of the whole or part of a pecuniary loss caused by him' is explicitly listed as a Minor Penalty under Rule 11(ii).
2. Options (a), (c), and (d) are specifically excluded from the definition of 'penalty' under the rules:
- Option (a): Compulsory retirement in accordance with superannuation or retirement provisions is an administrative action, not a penalty.
- Option (c): Reversion of a probationer to a lower post/service, provided it is unconnected to their conduct, is not considered a penalty.
- Option (d): Non-promotion after due consideration of the case is not treated as a penalty.
Therefore, only option (b) constitutes a legal penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.