LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
As per The Mizoram Prevention of Malpractices at Examination Act, 1990 the duties and responsibilities of the paper setter is mentioned in-
A)
Chapter I
B)
Chapter II
C)
Chapter III
D)
Chapter IV
The Mizoram Prevention of Malpractices at Examination Act, 1990 is structured to ensure the integrity of public examinations.
1. Chapter I (Preliminary) typically contains the short title, extent, commencement, and definitions of terms used throughout the Act.
2. Chapter II specifically deals with the 'Duties and Responsibilities of Paper Setters, Moderators, and Examiners'. It outlines the legal obligations of those entrusted with creating and evaluating examination papers to maintain strict confidentiality and avoid any conflict of interest or leakage of questions.
3. Chapter III generally focuses on the 'Offences and Penalties' related to malpractices (such as cheating, leaking papers, or impersonation).
4. Chapter IV usually covers 'Miscellaneous' provisions, including the power to make rules and legal protections for officials acting in good faith.
Therefore, the duties and responsibilities of the paper setter are explicitly detailed in Chapter II.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
‘Operation Blackboard’ was introduced by-
A)
Kothari Commission 1964-66
B)
NPE 1986
C)
Secondary Education Commission
D)
POA, 1992
Option B is correct: NPE 1986.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
The POCSO Act, 2012, came into force in-
A)
14th September, 2012
B)
14th October, 2012
C)
14th November, 2012
D)
14th December, 2012
Option C is correct: 14th November, 2012.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
By 2020, the Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan aims at having universal-
A)
Enrollment
B)
Retention
C)
Access
D)
Success
Option C is correct: Access.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
The Mizoram Prevention of Malpractices at Examination Act came into force in-
A)
May, 1990
B)
July, 1990
C)
August, 1990
D)
September, 1990
The Mizoram Prevention of Malpractices at Examination Act was enacted to curb unfair means and malpractices during public examinations within the state of Mizoram. According to the official legislative records of the Government of Mizoram, the Act was promulgated and came into force in August 1990. This Act provides for the prevention of malpractices and prescribes penalties for those found guilty of cheating or aiding in cheating during examinations. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the official date of enforcement.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
‘Destiny of a nation is shaped in its classroom’ is professed by-
A)
NPE 1986
B)
POA 1992
C)
Kothari Commission 1964-66
D)
Ramamutri Commission
Option C is correct: Kothari Commission 1964-66.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
The objective of RMSA is to enhance-
A)
access to secondary education and improve its quality.
B)
access to elementary education and improve its quality.
C)
access to primary education and improve its quality.
D)
All of the above
Option A is correct: access to secondary education and improve its quality..
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-IV
A common educational structure recommended by Kothari Commission is-
A)
10+2+3
B)
10+2+5
C)
5+3+3+4
D)
5+3+3+2
Option A is correct: 10+2+3.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Intestinal worms causes anaemia by sucking the blood from the blood vessel of-
A)
Gastric walls
B)
Oesophageal mucosal linings
C)
Mucosa of small intestine
D)
Mucosa of peritoneum
Option C is correct: Mucosa of small intestine.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Birth rate is defined as the number of live births during a year per-
A)
100 mid year population
B)
1000 population
C)
10000 population
D)
1000 mid year population
Option D is correct: 1000 mid year population.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The quantity of drugs and vaccines acquired at the Sub-Centre should be estimated based on the-
A)
Total number of households
B)
Weekly Work-plan
C)
Action plan
D)
Total population of previous year
Option C is correct: Action plan.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Twilight area is the radius of ______ kilometres from the intensive area.
A)
4
B)
5
C)
6
D)
7
Option B is correct: 5.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Annual action plan should be submitted to the PHC every year by-
A)
9th of March
B)
10th of March
C)
12th of March
D)
15th of March
Option D is correct: 15th of March.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The main objective of provision of Rapid Diagnostic Kit and antimalarial treatment for P. falciparum positive at the FTD is to-
A)
Achieve a target in malaria treatment
B)
Reduce the workload at the health centre
C)
Reduce and prevent death due to malaria
D)
Reduce workload of the Health Workers
Option C is correct: Reduce and prevent death due to malaria.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Classical dengue fever is also known as-
A)
Haemorrhagic fever
B)
Crippling fever
C)
Paroxymal fever
D)
Break-bone fever
Option D is correct: Break-bone fever.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Clinical diagnosis of measles can be made by-
A)
Fever with reddish maculopapular rash and conjunctivitis
B)
Fever with 10 or mare skin pustules
C)
Fever with black skin rash
D)
Fever with diarrhoea and urticarial
Option A is correct: Fever with reddish maculopapular rash and conjunctivitis.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The dangers of diptheria is that it causes Oedema to the tissue of-
A)
Genito-Urinary tract leading to oliguria
B)
Digestive track leading to intestinal obstruction
C)
Central Nervous system leading to cerebral oedema
D)
Respiratory track leading to asphyxia
Option D is correct: Respiratory track leading to asphyxia.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The renal complication due to chronic malaria is called-
A)
Renal malaria
B)
Malarial renal failure
C)
Brown water fever
D)
Black water fever
Option D is correct: Black water fever.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The source of infection of Poliomyelitis are-
A)
Water and rotten fruits
B)
Dust and soil
C)
Cow dung and meat
D)
Feaces and pharyngeal secretions
Option D is correct: Feaces and pharyngeal secretions.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Acute respiratory infection with fast breathing is-
A)
Common cold
B)
Common cold with pneumonia
C)
Pneumonia
D)
Severe pneumonia
Option C is correct: Pneumonia.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The Public Health importance of Rubella (German measles) is because
A)
It is highly contagious and fatal
B)
It can cause multi organ congenital defect to the foetus
C)
It can cause severe chronic skin infection
D)
It can cause liver damage to pregnant woman
Option B is correct: It can cause multi organ congenital defect to the foetus.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Reconstituted vaccines with diluent should be discarded after-
A)
2 hours
B)
4 hours
C)
6 hours
D)
8 hours
Option B is correct: 4 hours.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
Human anatomical waste should be disposed by-
A)
Disinfection and disposal in landfill
B)
Incineration and deep burial
C)
Mutilation and shredding
D)
Disinfection with chemical for incineration
Option B is correct: Incineration and deep burial.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The highest mode of HIV/AIDS transmission in Mizoram state is-
A)
Unprotected sexual contact
B)
Intravenous drugs user
C)
Transplacental
D)
Unsafe blood transfusion
In the context of the HIV/AIDS epidemic in Mizoram, the state has historically faced a unique challenge compared to the national average in India. While unprotected sexual contact is the primary driver of HIV globally and in most Indian states, Mizoram has a very high prevalence of Injecting Drug Use (IDU). The sharing of needles and syringes among intravenous drug users (IDUs) has been the dominant mode of transmission in the state, leading to a concentrated epidemic among people who inject drugs (PWID), which subsequently spread to their sexual partners. Therefore, for Mizoram specifically, intravenous drug use is recognized as the highest/primary mode of transmission.
- Option (a) is a major mode but secondary to IDU in the specific epidemiological profile of Mizoram.
- Option (c) refers to mother-to-child transmission, which occurs but is not the primary driver of the epidemic.
- Option (d) is rare due to improved blood screening protocols in government and private blood banks.
LDE (other) • 2025 • Paper-II
The ultimate goal of national programme for control of blindness is to reduce in the country to-
A)
0.1 %
B)
0.2 %
C)
0.3 %
D)
0.4 %
Option C is correct: 0.3 %.
