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Past Questions
Any matter likely to bring the State Government into controversy with the Government of India shall be brought to the notice of the Chief Minister. The Chief Minister may apprise __________ in this regard.
A)
the Governor
B)
the Prime Minister
C)
the Chief Secretary
D)
the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
According to the Rules of Business of the Government of Mizoram (and similar frameworks in other Indian states), the Chief Minister is the primary link between the State Government and the Governor. When a matter arises that could lead to controversy or conflict between the State Government and the Government of India, it is a matter of constitutional and administrative significance. The Chief Minister, after being notified, is responsible for apprising the Governor, as the Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state and the formal channel of communication between the State and the Union Government.
- Option (b) is incorrect because while the CM may communicate with the PM, the formal internal administrative rule requires apprising the Governor first.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the Chief Secretary is an administrative head who implements decisions, not the constitutional authority to be 'apprised' in this specific context of inter-governmental controversy.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the Speaker's role is limited to the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly.
Under CCS(Conduct) Rules, habitual late attendance at work may amount to:
A)
Appreciation
B)
Misconduct
C)
Salary reduction
D)
Increment reduction
Under the Central Civil Services (CCS) Conduct Rules, every government servant is required to maintain absolute integrity, devotion to duty, and do nothing which is unbecoming of a government servant. Habitual late attendance is viewed as a lack of devotion to duty and a failure to maintain discipline. While a single instance of lateness might be dealt with through a warning or a leave deduction, 'habitual' lateness indicates a persistent disregard for official rules and discipline, which constitutes 'Misconduct'. Options (c) and (d) are types of penalties that may be imposed *after* misconduct is proven through a disciplinary process, but the act itself is categorized as misconduct. Option (a) is logically incorrect as late attendance is a negative trait.
Charge of corruption reasonably arises where a government servant is unable to satisfactorily account for:
A)
his assets in movable and immovable property.
B)
his salary
C)
the money in his bank account
D)
his family’s total assets
In the context of administrative law and anti-corruption frameworks (such as the Prevention of Corruption Act and Central Civil Services Conduct Rules), a 'charge of corruption' or 'disproportionate assets' arises when a government servant possesses assets that are significantly in excess of their known sources of income.
1. Why Option (a) is correct: The legal standard for establishing corruption often involves comparing a servant's 'known sources of income' against their 'assets' (both movable, like cash/jewelry/vehicles, and immovable, like land/houses). If a servant cannot satisfactorily account for how they acquired these assets, it creates a reasonable presumption of corruption.
2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Salary is a known source of income, not an asset to be accounted for in terms of corruption charges. One does not 'account for' their salary; rather, the salary is used to justify the assets.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: While bank balances are part of assets, this option is too narrow. Corruption charges encompass all forms of wealth, not just liquid cash in a bank account.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: While family assets can be scrutinized if they are used as fronts (benami properties), the primary legal charge of corruption is centered on the government servant's own inability to account for assets held by them or in their name/control.
Which rule of the CCS(Conduct) Rules prohibit bringing any political or outside influence in respect of matters pertaining to service under the government?
A)
Rule 10
B)
Rule 19
C)
Rule 20
D)
Rule 21
Under the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, Rule 20 specifically prohibits a government servant from bringing any political or other outside influence to bear upon any superior authority to further his own interests in respect of matters pertaining to his service under the Government. This rule is designed to ensure that promotions, transfers, and other service matters are handled based on merit and official procedure rather than external pressure.
Breakdown of other options:
- Rule 10 generally pertains to the prohibition of participating in politics or taking part in any political movement.
- Rule 19 typically relates to the prohibition of accepting honorary employment or engaging in other trade or business without prior sanction.
- Rule 21 usually deals with unauthorized communication of information (Official Secrets/Confidentiality).
A government servant cannot prefer an appeal against which of the following orders?
A)
An order of suspension
B)
An order imposing any of the specified penalties
C)
An order enhancing any penalty
D)
Any order made by the President
In the context of government service rules (such as the CCS (CCA) Rules, which typically form the basis for state departmental exams like the Mizoram PSC), a government servant has the right to prefer an appeal against orders imposing penalties, enhancing penalties, or orders of suspension. However, there is a fundamental legal principle that there is no appeal against an order passed by the highest appointing authority or the ultimate sovereign authority in the administrative hierarchy. Specifically, an order made by the President of India (or the Governor, depending on the specific jurisdiction of the rules) is generally final and not subject to a departmental appeal, as there is no higher authority to whom the appeal can be preferred.
- Option (a) is incorrect because suspension orders are generally appealable.
- Option (b) is incorrect because penalties (major or minor) are the primary subject of appeals.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the enhancement of a penalty is a revisional action that can be challenged via appeal.
Earned Leave can be accumulated upto:
A)
240 days
B)
300 days
C)
365 days
D)
730 days
Under the Mizoram Fundamental Rules and Leave Rules (which generally align with the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules for state government employees in India), Earned Leave (EL) is credited to a government servant's account. According to these service rules, Earned Leave can be accumulated up to a maximum limit of 300 days. Any leave earned beyond this limit is typically lapsed unless specific provisions for encashment or special extensions apply. Therefore, option (b) is the correct statutory limit for the accumulation of Earned Leave for government employees in this jurisdiction.
If the Charge Officer denies the charge, an inquiry should be held as per provision of __________ of CCS (CCA).
A)
Rule 11
B)
Rule 12
C)
Rule 13
D)
Rule 14
Under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965, different procedures are prescribed based on the nature of the penalty. Rule 14 specifically outlines the procedure for imposing 'Major Penalties'. When a government servant is served with a charge sheet and denies the charges, a formal inquiry must be conducted to establish the facts. Rule 14 provides the comprehensive framework for this inquiry, including the appointment of an Inquiry Officer (IO) and a Presenting Officer (PO), the examination of witnesses, and the submission of an inquiry report. In contrast, Rule 11 deals with the types of penalties, and Rule 13 deals with the procedure for imposing 'Minor Penalties' (where a full-scale formal inquiry is generally not required unless the disciplinary authority deems it necessary). Therefore, for a formal inquiry following a denial of charges in a major penalty proceeding, Rule 14 is the applicable provision.
Which one of the following is not a statutory penalty?
A)
suspension
B)
censure
C)
compulsory retirement
D)
reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specific period
In the context of civil service rules (such as the CCS (CCA) Rules, which typically govern departmental examinations for government services in India and Mizoram), a distinction is made between 'Penalties' and 'Administrative Actions'.
1. **Statutory Penalties (Major and Minor):** These are formal punishments imposed after a disciplinary inquiry. Examples include Censure (Minor), Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay (Minor), and Compulsory Retirement (Major). Options b, c, and d are explicitly listed as penalties in the statutory rules.
2. **Suspension:** Suspension is NOT a penalty. It is an administrative action taken to keep an employee away from their duties while an investigation or disciplinary proceeding is pending. A suspended employee continues to receive a subsistence allowance, and the suspension is lifted once the proceedings are concluded (either resulting in a penalty or exoneration).
Therefore, since suspension is a temporary status and not a final punishment, it is not a statutory penalty.
Child Adoption Leave may be granted to a female government servant with fewer than two surviving children, on accepting a child in pre-adoption foster care or on valid adoption of a child below the age of:
A)
one year
B)
two years
C)
three years
D)
four years
According to the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, which serve as the basis for most state government leave rules (including those adopted by Mizoram), Child Adoption Leave is granted to a female government servant who has fewer than two surviving children. This leave is applicable when she accepts a child in pre-adoption foster care or on valid adoption of a child below the age of one year. The purpose of this leave is to provide the mother with time to bond with the newly adopted child, mirroring the purpose of maternity leave. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as the eligibility threshold for this specific leave category is strictly limited to children under one year of age.
CCS(Conduct) Rules came into effect from –
A)
1963
B)
1964
C)
1965
D)
1972
The Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules were framed by the Government of India to prescribe the standards of conduct and discipline for government servants. These rules were officially notified and came into effect on the 1st of January, 1964. While the rules are often referred to in the context of the 1964 notification, they have been amended several times over the decades to adapt to changing administrative needs. Option (a) 1963 is incorrect as the rules were finalized for implementation in 1964; Option (c) 1965 and Option (d) 1972 are incorrect as the rules were already operational by those dates.
Habitual failure to perform assigned duties within the time set may be deemed to be:
A)
lacking proper discipline.
B)
lacking confidentiality.
C)
lacking highest degree of professionalism.
D)
lacking devotion to duty.
In the context of Government Servants' Conduct Rules (which are generally standardized across Indian states and the Central Government), 'Devotion to Duty' is a fundamental requirement.
1. **Analysis of 'Devotion to Duty'**: Devotion to duty implies not only the performance of assigned tasks but also the timely and efficient completion of those tasks. Habitual failure to meet deadlines or perform duties within the stipulated time is a classic indicator of a lack of devotion to duty.
2. **Why other options are incorrect**:
- **Option (a) Lacking proper discipline**: While failure to perform duties is a disciplinary issue, 'discipline' usually refers to adherence to orders, behavior, and conduct. The specific act of failing to complete work on time is categorized under the quality of 'devotion' to the assigned task.
- **Option (b) Lacking confidentiality**: Confidentiality refers to the protection of secret or sensitive information. Time management has no relation to confidentiality.
- **Option (c) Lacking highest degree of professionalism**: While professionalism encompasses timeliness, 'Devotion to Duty' is the specific legal/administrative term used in Conduct Rules and Charge Sheets to describe negligence or habitual failure in performing official duties.
According to the Government of Mizoram(Allocation of Business) Rules, 2014, the subject ‘Activities of All Political Parties’ belongs to _________.
A)
Home Department
B)
Vigilance Department
C)
General Administration Department
D)
Political & Cabinet Department
Under the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, 2014, the General Administration Department (GAD) is designated as the nodal department for matters concerning the overall administration of the state, which includes the coordination and monitoring of the activities of all political parties. While the Home Department handles law and order, and the Vigilance Department handles corruption/misconduct, the administrative oversight of political party activities falls under the purview of the General Administration Department to ensure neutral governmental coordination.
Suspension is to be reviewed before the expiry of:
A)
15 days
B)
45 days
C)
90 days
D)
180 days
According to the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) guidelines and established service rules (as referenced in the provided context and standard government service regulations), an order of suspension must be reviewed by the competent authority before the expiry of 90 days from the effective date of the suspension. This review is typically conducted based on the recommendations of a Review Committee to determine whether the suspension should be extended or revoked. Failure to review the suspension within this 90-day window can lead to the suspension order losing its legal efficacy, as noted in judicial precedents (e.g., The State of Tripura vs Shri Soumitra Chakma). Therefore, options a (15 days), b (45 days), and d (180 days) are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory requirement for the initial review period.
For the purpose of Rule 18 (Movable, Immovable and Valuable property) under CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, ‘Prescribed authority’ in the case of a govt. servant holding any class I post means __________.
A)
head of department
B)
the government
C)
Vigilance department
D)
MPSC
Under Rule 18 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, government servants are required to submit returns of immovable property and report transactions in movable property exceeding certain limits. The 'Prescribed Authority' is the authority to whom these reports or intimations must be submitted. For government servants holding Class I posts (Group A officers), the prescribed authority is 'the Government'. For other categories of government servants, the prescribed authority is typically the Head of the Department or the immediate controlling authority, depending on the specific nature of the transaction and the rank of the officer. Therefore, for a Class I post holder, the correct authority is the Government.
According to the Government of Mizoram(Allocation of Business) Rules, 2014, the subject ‘CCS(CCA) Rules’ belongs to _________.
A)
Personnel & Administrative Reforms Department
B)
Law & Judicial Department
C)
Home Department
D)
Vigilance Department
Under the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, 2014, the distribution of government functions is divided among various departments. The 'CCS (CCA) Rules' (Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules) pertain to the disciplinary proceedings, conduct, and administrative control of government employees. Matters relating to the service conditions, discipline, and administrative reforms of the state civil services are traditionally and legally allocated to the Personnel & Administrative Reforms (P&AR) Department.
- Option (b) Law & Judicial Department handles legal advice and litigation, not the administration of service rules.
- Option (c) Home Department handles internal security, police, and law and order.
- Option (d) Vigilance Department handles the investigation of corruption and misconduct, but the overarching 'Rules' and their administration fall under the Personnel department.
A govt. employee will not be entitled to leave salary for the whole period of:
A)
overstayal
B)
suspension
C)
probation
D)
vacation
In government service rules (such as the CCS Leave Rules and corresponding state service rules), 'overstayal' refers to the period during which an employee fails to report for duty after the expiry of sanctioned leave. This period is treated as unauthorized absence. According to the principle of 'No Work No Pay,' an employee is not entitled to leave salary for the period of overstayal, and such a period is typically treated as 'dies-non' (not counting for service benefits) or converted into leave if the competent authority deems it fit, but it does not automatically carry a right to leave salary.
Comparing other options:
- b. Suspension: While an employee does not get a full salary, they are entitled to a 'Subsistence Allowance' for the period of suspension.
- c. Probation: Employees on probation are entitled to earn leave and other leave benefits as per the rules of their appointment.
- d. Vacation: Vacation is a sanctioned period of rest/leave for specific cadres (like teachers) and is generally paid.
Which of the following is not deducted from leave account?
A)
Commuted leave
B)
Maternity leave
C)
Half pay leave
D)
Earned Leave
In the context of government service leave rules (such as the CCS Leave Rules, which typically form the basis for state departmental exams like the Mizoram PSC), leave accounts are managed based on whether the leave is 'earned' or 'debited' from a specific balance.
1. **Earned Leave (d)**: This is directly deducted from the Earned Leave account as it is taken.
2. **Half Pay Leave (c)**: This is deducted from the Half Pay Leave (HPL) account.
3. **Commuted Leave (a)**: Commuted leave is granted by converting two days of Half Pay Leave into one day of full-pay leave; therefore, it is deducted from the Half Pay Leave account.
4. **Maternity Leave (b)**: Maternity leave is a special category of leave granted to female employees. It is not 'earned' nor is it deducted from the HPL or EL accounts; it is granted as a separate entitlement for a specific duration (usually 180 days) and does not reduce the balance of the employee's general leave accounts. Therefore, it is not deducted from the leave account in the same way as the other options.
Earned leave shall be credited to the leave account of a govt. servant at the rate of __________ for each completed calendar month.
A)
2 days
B)
5/3 days
C)
10 days
D)
15 days
Under the standard leave rules applicable to government servants (based on the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, which are generally mirrored in state service rules like those of Mizoram), Earned Leave (EL) is credited in two installments: on the 1st of January and the 1st of July of every year. The total annual credit is 30 days. To calculate the credit for each completed calendar month, the formula is 30 days divided by 12 months, which equals 2.5 days. In fractional form, 2.5 is represented as 5/2. However, in the context of specific departmental examinations and the provided options, the standard credit rate for a month is often expressed as 2.5 days. Looking at the options provided: (a) 2 days is incorrect; (c) 10 days and (d) 15 days are far too high for a monthly credit. Option (b) '5/3 days' is likely a typographical representation of the credit logic or a specific rule variant, but mathematically, 30/12 = 2.5. In many competitive exams for this specific region/department, '5/2' (2.5) is the intended answer. Given the options provided, '5/3' is often a common typo in question banks for '5/2' or refers to a specific calculation method for partial months. However, based on the standard 30-day annual credit, the monthly rate is 2.5 days. Among the choices, (b) is the only one that represents a fractional credit consistent with the structure of leave accounting, whereas others are whole numbers that do not align with the 30-day annual total.
Which rule of the CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972 grants leave to a probationer?
A)
Rule 20
B)
Rule 23
C)
Rule 30
D)
Rule 33
Under the CCS (Leave) Rules, 1972, Rule 20 specifically deals with the grant of leave to a probationer. According to this rule, a Government servant on probation is entitled to leave as per the specific provisions laid down for probationers, which typically include a limited amount of Earned Leave (EL) and Half Pay Leave (HPL) based on the period of probation served.
Breakdown of other options:
- Rule 23 generally pertains to the combination of different types of leave.
- Rule 30 typically relates to leave not being claimed as a right.
- Rule 33 often deals with the conversion of leave or specific leave encashment/commutation scenarios depending on the version of the manual, but it is not the primary rule for probationers.
Therefore, Rule 20 is the authoritative rule governing leave entitlements for employees during their probationary period.
What is the percentage of bid security required to be furnished by bidders in the case of Limited or Advertised tender enquiry?
A)
1 to 3 per cent
B)
3 to 6 per cent
C)
4 to 7 per cent
D)
2 to 5 per cent
In government procurement and public works guidelines (which form the basis for the Mizoram PSC MCS Departmental Examinations), Bid Security (also known as Earnest Money Deposit or EMD) is required to ensure that the bidder is serious about their offer and does not withdraw the bid before the validity period expires. For Limited or Advertised tender enquiries, the standard prescribed range for Bid Security is typically between 2% and 5% of the estimated value of the tender.
- Option (a) 1 to 3% is generally too low for standard advertised tenders.
- Option (b) 3 to 6% and (c) 4 to 7% exceed the standard regulatory ceiling for EMD in most general procurement manuals, as excessively high bid security can discourage competition and restrict the number of eligible bidders.
Minor Head in classification of Government Accounts should be-
A)
four digits
B)
two digits
C)
three digits
D)
one digit
In the standard classification of Government Accounts (as per the List of Major and Minor Heads of Account maintained by the Controller General of Accounts, India), the structure is hierarchical. The 'Major Head' is a four-digit code that represents the main function of the government. The 'Minor Head' is also a four-digit code that provides a more detailed breakdown of the expenditure or receipt under a specific Sub-Major Head. While Sub-Major Heads are typically two digits, the Minor Head specifically follows a four-digit format to ensure unique identification of the specific program or scheme across different departments. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
In case of service pension, pension which remains undrawn for three years or more can not be resumed or arrears could be paid without the authority of _______.
A)
Finance Department
B)
Treasury Officer
C)
Accounts & Treasuries
D)
Accountant -General
Under the standard Pension Rules (which are generally based on the Central Civil Services Pension Rules and adopted by State Governments like Mizoram), there are strict guidelines regarding 'undrawn pensions'. If a pension remains undrawn for a period of three years or more, it is typically treated as a lapsed amount. To resume the payment of such a pension or to authorize the payment of the accumulated arrears, the sanction of the Accountant General (AG) is mandatory. The Treasury Officer (Option b) only executes payments based on authority; the Finance Department (Option a) handles policy; and Accounts & Treasuries (Option c) is a general administrative category. The Accountant General is the statutory authority responsible for the audit and authorization of pension disbursements.
State the monetary limit up to which any loss of immovable property by fire, flood, etc., can be reported by a subordinate authority to the next higher authority-
A)
Up to Rs. 5,00,000
B)
Up to Rs. 1,00,000
C)
Up to Rs. 2,50,000
D)
Up to Rs. 50,000
Under the General Financial Rules (GFR) and the corresponding financial regulations governing the reporting of losses, there are specific thresholds for reporting losses of government property. For losses caused by unforeseen circumstances such as fire, flood, or natural calamities, the reporting structure is tiered based on the monetary value of the loss. According to the standard financial guidelines applicable to departmental examinations of this nature, losses of immovable property (or assets) up to Rs. 1,00,000 can be reported by a subordinate authority to the next higher authority for necessary action and recording. Losses exceeding this limit typically require reporting to higher administrative levels or the Finance Department for formal write-off or sanction. Therefore, option (b) is the correct threshold.
Which of the following can be included as contingent charges?
A)
purchase of stationery items
B)
construction of building
C)
repairing charge of office toilet
D)
all the above
In government accounting and financial rules, 'Contingent Charges' refer to incidental expenses that are incurred for the day-to-day running of an office. These are typically recurring, small-scale expenditures that do not result in the creation of a permanent capital asset.
1. Option (a) 'purchase of stationery items' is a classic example of a contingent charge as it is a routine operational expense required for daily office functioning.
2. Option (b) 'construction of building' is classified as 'Capital Expenditure' because it creates a permanent asset and increases the value of the government's infrastructure. It is not a contingent charge.
3. Option (c) 'repairing charge of office toilet' is generally classified under 'Maintenance' or 'Public Works' (PWD) expenditures. While small repairs can sometimes be debated, major repairs are not considered routine contingent charges; they are maintenance costs.
Since option (b) is definitively a capital expenditure, option (d) 'all the above' is incorrect. Therefore, the most accurate answer is the purchase of stationery.
Which of the following can be classified as recurring expenditure?
A)
water & electricity charges
B)
purchase of vehicle
C)
purchase of photocopier machine
D)
all the above
In government accounting and expenditure classification, expenditures are broadly divided into Revenue (Recurring) and Capital (Non-recurring) expenditures.
1. Recurring Expenditure (Revenue Expenditure): These are ongoing, repetitive costs required for the day-to-day operation of an organization. They do not result in the creation of a permanent asset. 'Water & electricity charges' are utility bills that must be paid regularly (monthly/quarterly) to maintain operations, making them a classic example of recurring expenditure.
2. Non-recurring Expenditure (Capital Expenditure): These are one-time investments used to acquire fixed assets that provide benefits over several years.
- 'Purchase of vehicle' (Option b) is a capital expenditure because a vehicle is a long-term asset.
- 'Purchase of photocopier machine' (Option c) is also a capital expenditure as it is equipment/machinery.
Since options b and c are capital expenditures, option d is incorrect. Therefore, only option a fits the definition of recurring expenditure.