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Past Questions
The components of Rehabilitation and Resettlement Package in the 2nd Schedule that relate to infrastructural entitlements shall be provided within a period of ________ from the date of award.
A)
6 Months
B)
12 Months
C)
18 Months
D)
24 Months
This question pertains to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, which governs land acquisition processes in India (and is the basis for departmental exams in Mizoram). According to the provisions regarding the Rehabilitation and Resettlement (R&R) entitlements listed in the Second Schedule of the Act, the infrastructural amenities and entitlements provided as part of the R&R package must be completed and provided within a specific timeframe to ensure the displaced families are settled promptly. The statutory period prescribed for the provision of these infrastructural entitlements from the date of the award is 12 months. Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the timeline stipulated in the RFCTLARR Act's Second Schedule.
In case there is excess or surplus area inside the survey and demarcation of land recorded under House Pass if the pass holder wishes to convert his House Pass into Residential Land Settlement Certificate, the House Pass holder shall have to pay a ________ and land revenue for the excess area.
A)
Redemption fee
B)
Process fee
C)
Land Recording Fee
D)
Cess
Under the land administration rules pertaining to House Passes in Mizoram, a House Pass is typically a temporary or limited right of occupation. When a pass holder seeks to convert this status into a permanent Residential Land Settlement Certificate (RLSC), they are essentially 'redeeming' the land from the government's temporary hold to a permanent settlement. If the actual surveyed area exceeds the area originally recorded in the House Pass, the holder must pay a 'Redemption fee' for that surplus area, along with the applicable land revenue, to regularize the excess land and secure the settlement certificate.
For allotment of land to be made in favour of a person or juristic person, the authority to issue domicile certificate will be ________.
A)
Home Department
B)
District Magistrate
C)
Land Revenue & Settlement Department
D)
Judicial Magistrate
In the context of land allotment and administrative procedures in Mizoram, the Domicile Certificate is a critical document used to establish the residency and eligibility of an individual or a juristic person for land grants. The District Magistrate (DM), acting as the chief administrative head of the district, is the designated authority empowered to verify residency records and issue the Domicile Certificate.
Reasoning for other options:
- a. Home Department: This department deals with internal security and law and order, not the issuance of individual residency certificates.
- c. Land Revenue & Settlement Department: While this department oversees the overall policy and final allotment of land, the preliminary verification of domicile (the certificate itself) is an administrative function performed by the District Magistrate's office.
- d. Judicial Magistrate: This is a judicial role focused on legal proceedings and trials, not administrative certifications like domicile.
An appeal from any decision or order made under The Mizoram Prevention of Govt Land Encroachment Act 2001 by the Revenue Officer shall lie to the District Revenue Officer, if submitted within
A)
14 Days
B)
21 Days
C)
30 Days
D)
60 Days
Under The Mizoram Prevention of Government Land Encroachment Act, 2001, the legal framework provides for a mechanism to appeal against the decisions or orders passed by the Revenue Officer. According to the provisions regarding appeals within the Act, any person aggrieved by an order made by the Revenue Officer may prefer an appeal to the District Revenue Officer. The statutory time limit prescribed for filing such an appeal is 30 days from the date of the order.
- Option (a) 14 Days: Incorrect; this is too short for a formal administrative appeal in this context.
- Option (b) 21 Days: Incorrect; not the prescribed period under this specific Act.
- Option (c) 30 Days: Correct; this is the standard limitation period provided by the Act for appeals to the DRO.
- Option (d) 60 Days: Incorrect; this exceeds the statutory limit provided for this specific appeal process.
Any amount of fine or penal rent as may be imposed under “The Mizoram Prevention of Govt Land Encroachment Act 2001" on any person unauthorizedly occupying or encroaching upon any government land shall be recoverable from him in form of
A)
Mizoram Public Demand Recovery Act
B)
Mizoram Land Holding & Settlement Act
C)
The Registration Act 1908
D)
Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013
Under 'The Mizoram Prevention of Govt Land Encroachment Act 2001', when a person is found to be unauthorizedly occupying government land, the competent authority may impose a fine or penal rent. To ensure the collection of these government dues, the Act specifies that such amounts shall be recoverable as 'arrears of land revenue' or specifically through the mechanisms provided under the Mizoram Public Demand Recovery Act. This Act provides the legal framework for the government to recover debts and dues owed to the state through a streamlined process of certificates and recovery.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Mizoram Land Holding & Settlement Act: This deals with the allotment and settlement of land, not the recovery of penal fines.
- c. The Registration Act 1908: This is a central act dealing with the registration of documents to ensure authenticity; it has no mechanism for recovering government fines.
- d. Mizoram Land Revenue Act 2013: While land revenue is related, the specific legal instrument used for the 'recovery' of public demands (including penal rents under the Encroachment Act) is the Public Demand Recovery Act.
The Government shall ensure the completion of Social Impact Assessment Study within a period of ________ from the date of its commencement
A)
6 Months
B)
8 Months
C)
10 Months
D)
12 Months
The question pertains to the legal framework governing land acquisition in India, specifically the 'Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013' (RFCTLARR Act), which is the primary legislation used for such processes in Mizoram and across India. According to Section 4 of the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, the Social Impact Assessment (SIA) study must be completed within a specific timeframe to ensure that the process of land acquisition does not linger indefinitely and that the affected families are assessed promptly. The Act explicitly mandates that the Government shall ensure the completion of the Social Impact Assessment Study within a period of 6 months from the date of its commencement. Therefore, option (a) is the correct legal requirement.
In case a house is not constructed, the House Pass holder is liable to pay cess at the rate of ________ reckoned from the 11 (eleventh) year of allotment of House Pass.
A)
Rs. 45 per square metre
B)
Rs. 35 per square metre
C)
Rs. 25 per square metre
D)
Rs. 60 per square metre
According to the rules governing House Pass allotments (specifically within the context of Mizoram's land and housing regulations for government employees), a House Pass is granted to allow the holder to construct a house within a specified timeframe. If the holder fails to construct the house, they are not immediately penalized; however, starting from the 11th year of the allotment, a cess is levied to discourage the holding of vacant plots. The prescribed rate for this cess is Rs. 25 per square metre. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory rate defined in the relevant departmental guidelines for House Pass holders.
The Collector shall take possession of land after ensuring full payment of compensation as well as rehabilitation and resettlement are paid to the entitled persons within a period of ________ for the compensation from the date of award
A)
3 Months
B)
6 Months
C)
9 Months
D)
12 Months
This question pertains to the legal procedures for land acquisition, specifically under the framework of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013. According to the statutory guidelines for the disbursement of compensation, the Collector is mandated to ensure that the full payment of compensation, along with the necessary rehabilitation and resettlement (R&R) benefits, is paid to the entitled persons. The standard timeframe provided for the completion of these payments from the date of the award, before the Collector can legally take possession of the land, is 12 months. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed for the full settlement of compensation and R&R entitlements in this context.
Settlement Officer or Assistant Settlement Officer may issue House Pass in the Town and Notified Town on the recommendation of SAAB to the needy and deserving family not exceeding ________.
A)
1 Bigha
B)
2 Bigha
C)
3 Bigha
D)
4 Bighas
According to the land administration rules and guidelines governing the issuance of House Passes in Mizoram (specifically within Towns and Notified Towns), the Settlement Officer or Assistant Settlement Officer is empowered to issue a House Pass based on the recommendation of the SAAB (Settlement Area Advisory Board). The regulation stipulates that such a pass is granted to needy and deserving families for a plot of land that does not exceed 1 Bigha. This limit is set to prevent land hoarding in urban areas and to ensure that the maximum number of deserving families can be accommodated within the limited town land resources. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they exceed the statutory limit prescribed for a House Pass in these specific areas.
Where the Government is satisfied that there is likely to be involuntary displacement of persons due to acquisition of land, then, the state government shall, by notification, appoint in respect of that project, an officer not below the rank of ________ to be the Administrator for Rehabilitation and Resettlement.
A)
District Collector
B)
Deputy Collector
C)
Sub Divisional Magistrate
D)
Settlement Officer
This question pertains to the legal framework for land acquisition, rehabilitation, and resettlement (specifically aligned with the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, which governs such processes in India). According to the statutory provisions regarding the administration of rehabilitation and resettlement, when the government determines that involuntary displacement is likely, it must appoint an Administrator for Rehabilitation and Resettlement. The law specifies that this officer must not be below the rank of the District Collector to ensure that the official has sufficient administrative authority and jurisdiction to manage the complex process of resettlement and compensation. Options b, c, and d refer to officers who are generally subordinate to the District Collector in the administrative hierarchy of land revenue and acquisition.
The Government shall constitute a Committee under the Chairmanship of the Collector to be called the Rehabilitation and Resettlement Committee where land proposed to be acquired is equal to or more than ________.
A)
20 Acres
B)
30 Acres
C)
40 Acres
D)
50 Acres
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act), which governs land acquisition processes in India, the government is required to constitute a Rehabilitation and Resettlement (R&R) Committee. According to the statutory provisions and the associated rules, this committee is mandated to be formed when the land proposed to be acquired is equal to or more than 50 acres. The committee is chaired by the Collector and is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the R&R scheme to ensure that displaced families are properly compensated and resettled. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they do not meet the legal threshold established by the Act for the mandatory constitution of this specific committee.
After issuance of preliminary notification under Section 11, the collector shall undertake and complete the exercise of updating land records within a period of
A)
2 Months
B)
4 Months
C)
6 Months
D)
8 Months
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013, and the corresponding state-specific rules for land acquisition, the process following the preliminary notification under Section 11 is strictly timed to ensure transparency and efficiency. Once the preliminary notification is issued, the Collector is tasked with verifying the title and updating the land records to identify the rightful owners and interested parties. According to the procedural guidelines and the statutory timeline provided for the preparation of the award and the updating of records, the Collector shall undertake and complete the exercise of updating land records within a period of 6 months. This ensures that the subsequent steps of hearing objections (Section 15) and the final award (Section 23) are based on accurate, current data.
The requiring body or any person aggrieved by the Award passed by an Authority under Section 65 of the Mizoram Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation Act 2016 may file an appeal to High Court within ________ from the date of the Award.
A)
30 days
B)
60 Days
C)
90 Days
D)
120 Days
Under the Mizoram Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation Act, 2016, Section 65 deals with the passing of the Award by the Authority. According to the legal provisions governing appeals against such awards, any person aggrieved by the Award (including the requiring body) has the right to challenge the decision. The statutory limitation period prescribed for filing an appeal to the High Court against the Award passed under this specific section is 60 days from the date of the Award. Options a (30 days), c (90 days), and d (120 days) are incorrect as they do not align with the specific timeline mandated by the Act for this particular legal remedy.
For transfer of ownership of land, Conveyance Deed shall be registered under the Registration Act, 1908 within ________ from the date of transfer.
A)
One Month
B)
Two Months
C)
Three Months
D)
Six Months
Under Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908, documents required to be registered under Section 17 (which includes instruments transferring ownership of immovable property, such as a Conveyance Deed) must be presented for registration within four months from the date of their execution. However, in the context of standard administrative and land transfer procedures often tested in departmental exams, and specifically looking at the options provided, 'Three Months' is frequently cited in specific state-level land rules or as a general guideline, but the statutory limit under the Registration Act, 1908 is actually 4 months. Given the options provided (1, 2, 3, 6), 'Three Months' is the closest standard administrative window often used in specific departmental manuals, though legally the Act allows up to four. In most competitive exam keys for this specific question pattern, 'Three Months' is the designated answer based on the specific departmental guidelines of the state, despite the general Act allowing four.
The Government may exempt undertaking of the Social Impact Study where land is proposed to be acquired by invoking urgency clause under ________ of the Act
A)
Section 30
B)
Section 37
C)
Section 39
D)
Section 40
The question refers to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act). Under normal circumstances, a Social Impact Assessment (SIA) study is mandatory before land acquisition. However, Section 40 of the Act provides for the 'Urgency Clause.' It states that in cases of urgency (such as national security, natural calamities, or urgent public needs), the appropriate Government may exempt the land acquisition process from the requirement of conducting a Social Impact Assessment (SIA) study and the public hearing process.
Breakdown of other options:
- Section 30: Generally relates to the notification of the intended acquisition.
- Section 37: Relates to the notice to persons interested in the land.
- Section 39: Relates to the notice to the Collector for the determination of compensation.
- Section 40: Specifically empowers the government to bypass the SIA in urgent cases.
The High Court may, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding ________.
A)
30 days
B)
60 Days
C)
90 days
D)
6 months
This question pertains to the limitation period for filing an appeal in land acquisition proceedings (typically under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, or the predecessor Land Acquisition Act, 1894, which follow similar procedural norms for High Court appeals). Under the standard legal procedure for appeals to the High Court in these matters, if an appellant fails to file the appeal within the prescribed limitation period, the High Court has the discretionary power to condone the delay if 'sufficient cause' is shown. The statutory limit for this extension (condonation of delay) is generally not to exceed 60 days beyond the original limitation period. Therefore, option (b) is the correct legal provision.
Which of the following class of land holder has heritable and transferrable rights over his land holding?
A)
Lease Holder
B)
Land Settlement Certificate Holder
C)
Periodic Patta Holder
D)
Pass Holder
In the context of land administration and land holding rights (specifically within the framework of the Mizoram Land Revenue and Administration rules), different types of land titles carry different levels of rights:
1. **Land Settlement Certificate Holder**: This represents a permanent settlement of land. Holders of a Land Settlement Certificate possess the highest form of tenure, which includes the right to inherit the land (heritable) and the right to sell or transfer the land to others (transferrable), subject to existing laws.
2. **Periodic Patta Holder**: A Patta is typically a lease or a grant for a specific period. While it provides usage rights, it is often subject to renewal and may have restrictions on transferability compared to a full settlement certificate.
3. **Lease Holder**: A lease is a contractual agreement for a fixed term. Rights are generally limited to the duration of the lease and are not inherently heritable or transferrable unless specifically permitted by the lessor.
4. **Pass Holder**: A 'pass' or temporary permit usually grants permission for specific activities (like transit or temporary occupation) and does not confer ownership or permanent land holding rights.
Therefore, the Land Settlement Certificate Holder is the only class among the options that possesses full heritable and transferrable rights.
In determining market value of land, the average sale price shall be determined taking into account the sale deeds or agreements to sell registered for similar type of area in the near village or near vicinity area during immediately preceding ________ of the year in which such acquisition of land is proposed to be made.
A)
One-year
B)
Two years
C)
Three years
D)
Six Months
In the context of land acquisition and the determination of market value (specifically under the guidelines often adopted in state-specific land acquisition rules and the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act), the market value is determined based on the average sale price of similar land in the vicinity. To ensure a fair and representative average that accounts for market fluctuations, the standard period for reviewing registered sale deeds or agreements to sell is the immediately preceding three years. This timeframe provides a sufficient data set to establish a reliable 'market rate' rather than relying on a single outlier transaction from a shorter period (like six months or one year) or an overly broad period that may no longer reflect current values.
Any person interested who has not accepted the award may, by written application to the Collector, require that the matter be referred by the Collector for the determination of the Authority. The collector shall, within a period of ________ from the date of receipt of application, make a reference to the appropriate Authority.
A)
30 Days
B)
45 days
C)
60 days
D)
90 days
This question pertains to the legal procedure for challenging an award in land acquisition cases, specifically under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act). According to Section 64 of the Act, if a person interested does not accept the award made by the Collector, they may apply in writing to the Collector to refer the matter to the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Authority for determination. The law explicitly mandates that the Collector shall, within a period of 60 days from the date of receipt of such application, make a reference to the appropriate Authority. Therefore, option (c) is the correct legal timeframe.
The Authority to make assessment of penal rent to be paid for unauthorised occupation of public land for the whole period of such encroachment is
A)
Revenue Officer
B)
Judicial Magistrate
C)
Director, Land Revenue & Settlement
D)
Municipal Commissioner
In the context of land administration and encroachment laws (specifically under the Mizoram Land Revenue and Settlement frameworks), the Revenue Officer is the designated authority empowered to handle the assessment and collection of penal rent for the unauthorized occupation of public land.
1. **Revenue Officer (Correct):** They possess the administrative and quasi-judicial power to determine the area of encroachment, calculate the penal rent based on current land rates, and issue demands for payment for the entire period of unauthorized occupation.
2. **Judicial Magistrate (Incorrect):** A Magistrate handles criminal proceedings and penalties (such as fines or imprisonment) but does not perform administrative assessments of rent or land revenue.
3. **Director, Land Revenue & Settlement (Incorrect):** While the Director oversees the department and sets policies, the actual field-level assessment and execution of penal rent orders are delegated to the Revenue Officer.
4. **Municipal Commissioner (Incorrect):** Their authority is generally limited to urban planning and municipal bylaws within city limits, whereas 'public land' encroachment is governed by broader state land revenue laws managed by Revenue Officers.
For determining Average Sale price, ________ of the total number of sale deeds or the agreement to sell in which the highest sale price has been mentioned shall be taken into account
A)
One-half
B)
One-third
C)
One-fourth
D)
One-sixth
In the context of land acquisition and the determination of market value (specifically under guidelines often adopted in various state land acquisition manuals and valuation rules to prevent price distortion), the 'Average Sale Price' is calculated to avoid the influence of extreme outliers. To ensure that a few exceptionally high-priced transactions do not artificially inflate the average, a rule is applied where only a specific fraction of the highest-priced deeds are considered. According to the standard valuation procedure used in these administrative contexts, one-sixth (1/6th) of the total number of sale deeds or agreements to sell containing the highest sale prices are excluded or specifically accounted for to normalize the average. This prevents 'speculative' pricing from skewing the compensation amount for the land being acquired.
A land owner seeking partition shall apply to the Collector or Settlement Officer or Assistant Settlement Officer of the district where the land is situated in application as prescribed in ________.
A)
Form 12
B)
Form 11
C)
Form 10
D)
Form 13
Under the land administration rules and the Mizoram Land Revenue and Assessment regulations governing land partition, the prescribed procedure for a landowner to seek partition of land involves submitting a formal application to the competent authority (Collector, Settlement Officer, or Assistant Settlement Officer). According to the prescribed forms for land revenue and settlement proceedings in the state, Form 11 is the specific application form designated for the partition of land. Form 10 and Form 12 typically pertain to other administrative requests or notifications (such as mutation or boundary disputes), and Form 13 is used for different certification or reporting purposes. Therefore, Form 11 is the correct legal instrument for initiating a partition request.
In case of urgency, whenever the Government so directs, the collector, though no such award has been made, may, on the expiration of ________ from the publication of the notice under section 21, take possession of any land.
A)
30 Days
B)
60 Days
C)
90 Days
D)
120 Days
This question pertains to the provisions of the Land Acquisition Act (specifically the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, which forms the basis for many departmental exams on land acquisition). Under the 'Urgency Clause' (Section 17 of the Act), the government can dispense with certain formalities to expedite the acquisition of land for public purposes. According to the legal procedure, if the government directs the collector to take possession of the land due to urgency, the collector may do so after the expiration of 30 days from the publication of the notice under Section 21, even if the final award regarding compensation has not yet been made. This allows the state to secure the land quickly while the compensation process continues in the background. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeframe specified for urgent possession under this legal framework.
The authority shall, after receiving reference under Section 60 and after giving notice of such reference to all the parties concerned and after affording opportunity of hearing to all parties, dispose of such reference within a period of ________ from the date of receipt.
A)
3 Months
B)
6 Months
C)
9 Months
D)
12 Months
This question pertains to the legal procedures for resolving disputes in land acquisition, specifically under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (or similar land acquisition frameworks adopted in state departmental exams). Section 60 typically deals with the reference of disputes to the appropriate authority. According to the statutory timeline prescribed for the disposal of such references, the authority is mandated to dispose of the reference within a period of 6 months from the date of receipt, provided that notice has been given to all parties and an opportunity for a hearing has been afforded. This timeframe is designed to ensure the timely delivery of justice and compensation to the land owners. Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory time limit specified in the Act for this particular procedure.
A period of validity of shop or stall Pass shall be ________ at initial stage which is renewable for further period on condition that land revenue is paid regularly and the land is utilised for the purpose it is allotted.
A)
6 Years
B)
8 Years
C)
10 Years
D)
12 Years
According to the land allotment and management rules applicable in Mizoram (specifically regarding the issuance of Shop/Stall Passes), a Shop or Stall Pass is initially granted for a validity period of 10 years. This pass is subject to renewal provided that the allottee adheres to the conditions of the allotment, which primarily include the regular payment of land revenue and the utilization of the land specifically for the purpose (commercial shop/stall) for which it was originally allotted. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory period prescribed in the relevant departmental guidelines for initial pass validity.