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Past Questions — 2025
Seats in Legislative Councils are partly filled by:
A)
Direct election
B)
Indirect election
C)
Nomination only
D)
Lottery
The composition of the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) in Indian states is governed by Article 171 of the Constitution. The seats are filled through a combination of indirect elections and nominations, not direct elections.
1. Indirect Election: The majority of members are elected indirectly by electoral colleges consisting of members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs), members of local bodies (municipalities, district boards), graduates, and teachers.
2. Nomination: A portion of the members (1/6th) are nominated by the Governor from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Direct election: Members of the Legislative Council are never elected directly by the general public; that is the process for the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
- Option (c) Nomination only: While nomination is part of the process, it only accounts for a fraction of the seats, not the whole.
- Option (d) Lottery: There is no provision for lottery in the selection of members of any legislative body in India.
No person can be registered in more than one constituency under:
A)
Section 17 of the RP Act, 1950
B)
Section 15 of the RP Act, 1951
C)
Section 19 of the RP Act, 1950
D)
Section 25 of the RP Act, 1951
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 (RP Act 1950) governs the preparation of electoral rolls and the qualification of voters. Section 17 of the RP Act, 1950 explicitly states that 'No person shall be registered in the electoral roll for more than one constituency.' This is a fundamental rule to prevent double voting and ensure the integrity of the democratic process.
Analysis of other options:
- Option b: Section 15 of the RP Act, 1951 deals with the conduct of elections and candidates, not the registration of voters in electoral rolls.
- Option c: Section 19 of the RP Act, 1950 relates to the claim for inclusion of names in the electoral roll, not the prohibition of multiple registrations.
- Option d: Section 25 of the RP Act, 1951 pertains to the appointment of election agents and other administrative conduct of elections.
The last date for making nominations, as per the election notification, must be:
A)
The 7th day after the date of publication of the notification.
B)
The 6th day after the date of publication of the notification.
C)
The 8th day after the date of publication of the notification.
D)
The 10th day after the date of publication of the notification.
According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the associated Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the election notification specifies the schedule for the election process. Specifically, for general elections to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) or Legislative Assemblies, the last date for filing nominations is typically set as the 7th day after the date of publication of the notification. This provides a standardized window for candidates to prepare and submit their nomination papers to the Returning Officer. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed in the election schedule guidelines.
Breach of official duty in electoral roll preparation is covered under:
A)
Section 32
B)
Section 30
C)
Section 28
D)
Section 29
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, Section 32 specifically deals with the 'Breach of official duty in connection with the preparation of electoral rolls'. It stipulates that any person who has a duty to perform under the Act in connection with the preparation of electoral rolls and neglects or refuses to perform that duty, or fails to perform it with due diligence, shall be punishable with a fine.
Breakdown of other options:
- Section 30: Generally relates to the appeal against the decision of the registration officer regarding the inclusion or exclusion of names in the roll.
- Section 28: Relates to the correction of entries in the electoral roll.
- Section 29: Relates to the revision of electoral rolls.
Therefore, Section 32 is the specific provision governing the penalty for breach of official duty during the preparation of the rolls.
Who determines Council constituencies?
A)
President
B)
Prime Minister
C)
Election Commission
D)
Governor
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the delimitation of constituencies (the process of determining the boundaries of territorial constituencies) is the primary responsibility of the Election Commission. Specifically, the Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India, but it works in close coordination with the Election Commission, and the Election Commission is the constitutional authority tasked with the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections. In the context of the RP Act 1950, the determination and allocation of seats and the boundaries of constituencies are managed through the mechanism overseen by the Election Commission.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. President: While the President appoints the Delimitation Commission, the President does not personally 'determine' the constituencies.
- b. Prime Minister: The Prime Minister has no constitutional or statutory role in the delimitation of constituencies to ensure political neutrality.
- d. Governor: The Governor is the head of the state but does not have the authority to determine electoral constituencies, as this is a centralized process to maintain uniformity and fairness.
Section 126 of The RP Act, 1951 prohibits any public meeting during the period of:
A)
24 hours before the conclusion of the poll.
B)
48 hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of the poll.
C)
The entire day of polling.
D)
72 hours before the polling day.
Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, deals with the prohibition of public meetings during the period of silence before polling. According to the statute, no public meeting shall be held for the purpose of canvassing, whether by a candidate or any other person, during the period of forty-eight hours ending with the hour fixed for the conclusion of the poll and no public meeting shall be held for the purpose of canvassing under any pavilion or similar structure at any place in the constituency.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the statutory period is 48 hours, not 24.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the prohibition starts two days prior to the closing of the poll, not just on the polling day.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the law specifies 48 hours, not 72 hours.
The continued functions of Courts and Tribunals in the State of Mizoram, established under Section 45 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 are explicitly terminated if they are inconsistent with the Act or if:
A)
the appropriate Government fails to make adaptations within two years.
B)
their expenditure is not authorised by the Governor within 6 months.
C)
the Central Government exercises its power to remove difficulties under Section 47.
D)
other provision is made by a competent Legislator or other authority
Section 45 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986, deals with the 'Continuance of Courts and Tribunals'. According to the legal framework of the Act, existing courts and tribunals continue to function to ensure there is no legal vacuum upon the state's formation. However, this continuity is subject to two main conditions: first, that their functions are not inconsistent with the provisions of the Act, and second, that they continue only until 'other provision is made' by a competent legislature or authority. This is a standard transitional provision in constitutional and state-forming acts to allow the new government time to establish its own judicial infrastructure. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they introduce arbitrary timelines or powers (like the removal of difficulties under Section 47) that do not govern the termination of the continued functions of courts under Section 45.
In the RP Act, 1950, District Election Officers are mentioned in:
A)
Section 13AA
B)
Section 13B
C)
Section 14
D)
Section 21
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, Section 13AA specifically deals with the appointment and duties of the District Election Officer. This section empowers the Election Commission to appoint a District Election Officer for each district to supervise the preparation of electoral rolls and other related administrative tasks.
Breakdown of other options:
- Section 13B typically relates to the appointment of Electoral Registration Officers in specific contexts or amendments.
- Section 14 deals with the 'Preparation of rolls' and the duties of the Electoral Registration Officer.
- Section 21 relates to the 'Correction of entries in electoral rolls'.
Therefore, the specific mention of the District Election Officer is found in Section 13AA.
The provisions of Section 31 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 which deals with assets and liabilities shall not apply to or in relation to:
A)
Any institution, undertaking or project the expenditure in relation to which is immediately before the appointed day met from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
B)
Any institution, undertaking or project financed exclusively by private donations and endowments before the appointed day.
C)
Any institution, undertaking or project funded solely by international grants before the appointed day.
D)
Any institution, undertaking or project whose expenditure was met from the Consolidated Fund of India from the appointed day.
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986, governs the transition of administration and assets from the Union to the State of Mizoram. Section 31 specifically addresses the transfer of assets and liabilities. According to the legal provisions of this Act, the transfer of assets and liabilities to the State Government does not extend to institutions, undertakings, or projects whose expenditures were being met directly from the Consolidated Fund of India immediately before the 'appointed day'. This is because such entities remain under the financial and administrative jurisdiction of the Central Government. Option (b) and (c) are incorrect as they refer to private or international funding, which are not the primary legal exclusions mentioned in Section 31. Option (d) is incorrect because the exclusion applies to expenditure met 'immediately before' the appointed day, not 'from' the appointed day.
The authority responsible for the conduct of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures is the:
A)
President of India
B)
Chief Justice of India
C)
Election Commission of India
D)
Parliament of India
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Constitutional Mandate: Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament and the State Legislatures are vested in the Election Commission of India (ECI).
2. Scope of Authority: The ECI is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India to ensure they are free and fair.
3. Analysis of other options:
- (a) President of India: While the President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner, the President does not conduct the elections.
- (b) Chief Justice of India: The CJI heads the judiciary and has no administrative role in conducting general elections.
- (d) Parliament of India: Parliament makes the laws governing elections (such as the Representation of the People Act), but the execution and conduct of the elections are handled by the ECI to maintain neutrality.
Under Section 24 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986, “proceedings shall be deemed to be pending in a court until that court has disposed of all issues between the parties, including any issues with respect to:”
A)
The transfer orders
B)
The allocation of assets
C)
The taxation of the costs of the proceedings
D)
The legislative authority
Section 24 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986, deals with the continuity of legal proceedings. According to the legal language of this section, proceedings are considered 'pending' in a court until all issues between the parties have been fully disposed of. This specifically includes the finalization of the 'taxation of costs' (the process by which the court determines the amount of legal costs one party must pay to another).
- Option (a) 'transfer orders' refers to administrative movements and is not the defining factor for the conclusion of a court proceeding under this section.
- Option (b) 'allocation of assets' is a specific outcome of certain types of cases but not the general legal definition of when a proceeding is deemed 'pending' across all cases.
- Option (d) 'legislative authority' refers to the power to make laws, which is unrelated to the procedural status of a pending court case.
Under Section 30 of the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, who determines the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the state of Mizoram and its share in Union duties of excise, estate duty and taxes on income?
A)
The Governor of Mizoram in consultation with the Finance Commission.
B)
Parliament by law, under Article 158 of the Constitution.
C)
The President, by order.
D)
The Comptroller and Auditor-General.
Under Section 30 of the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, the determination of grants-in-aid of the revenues of the State of Mizoram and its share in Union duties of excise, estate duty, and taxes on income is vested in the President of India. The Act specifies that the President shall, by order, determine these amounts. This is a standard constitutional and legislative mechanism for managing financial relations between the Union and the State under specific transitional or special acts.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the Governor does not have the authority to determine Union grants-in-aid.
- Option (b) is incorrect because while Parliament makes laws, the specific mechanism under Section 30 of this Act delegates the determination to the President by order; furthermore, Article 158 of the Constitution relates to the conditions of the Governor's office, not financial grants.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) is responsible for auditing accounts, not determining the allocation of grants or shares of revenue.
The President may authorize expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State of Mizoram for a period not exceeding six months, pending sanction by:
A)
Parliament
B)
The Governor of Mizoram
C)
The Legislative Assembly of the State of Mizoram
D)
The Central Government
Under the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, specifically regarding the financial administration and the Consolidated Fund of the State, the President of India holds certain powers to ensure the continuity of governance. In instances where expenditure is required but the formal appropriation process has not yet been completed, the President may authorize the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of the State of Mizoram. However, this is a temporary measure. Such expenditure is subject to the subsequent sanction and approval of the Legislative Assembly of the State of Mizoram, which is the sovereign body responsible for the state's budget and financial appropriations. The period for this temporary authorization is limited to six months to ensure that the executive remains accountable to the legislature. Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect because the Parliament handles Union funds, the Governor acts on behalf of the state but does not 'sanction' the budget (the Assembly does), and the Central Government is the executive arm, not the legislative sanctioning body for state funds.
A candidate can withdraw their candidature by submitting a notice in the prescribed form to the Returning Officer before:
A)
3 p.m. on the day fixed for withdrawal.
B)
5 p.m. on the day fixed for withdrawal.
C)
3 p.m. on the day after the last date of nomination.
D)
5 p.m. on the day after the last date of nomination.
According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the corresponding Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 (specifically Rule 25), a candidate who has been nominated may withdraw their candidature by delivering a notice of withdrawal to the Returning Officer. The statutory deadline for the submission of this notice is 3 p.m. on the date fixed for the withdrawal of candidatures.
- Option (a) is correct as it aligns with the legal time limit (3 p.m.).
- Option (b) is incorrect because 5 p.m. is not the prescribed cutoff time for withdrawal.
- Options (c) and (d) are incorrect because the withdrawal must happen by the specific 'day fixed for withdrawal' as per the election schedule, not simply 'the day after the last date of nomination', and the time limit remains 3 p.m.
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 is an example of Parliament’s power to:
A)
Form new states and alter areas of existing states under Article 3 of the Constitution.
B)
Grant Union Territory status to a state.
C)
Amend the Constitution without a majority.
D)
Legislate on state list matters.
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 was the legislative instrument used by the Parliament of India to elevate Mizoram from a Union Territory to a full-fledged State of the Indian Union. Under the Constitution of India, Article 3 empowers the Parliament to form a new state by separation of territory from any state, or by uniting two or more states or parts of states, or by increasing or diminishing the area of any state. The transition of Mizoram to statehood on February 20, 1987, was a direct exercise of this power.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (b) is incorrect because the Act granted 'State' status to a 'Union Territory', not the other way around.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the creation of a state under Article 3 is considered a legislative act and does not require a formal Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 (it only requires a simple majority).
- Option (d) is incorrect because while Parliament has certain powers to legislate on state matters under specific circumstances (Articles 249-253), the creation of a state is a structural change to the Union's geography under Article 3, not a matter of legislative jurisdiction over the State List.
“Booth Capturing” includes: (i) Seizing a polling station and preventing votes (ii) Threatening any elector and preventing him from going to the polling station (iii) Seizing or damaging EVMs Choose the correct option:
A)
(i) only
B)
(ii) only
C)
(iii) only
D)
(i), (ii), and (iii)
Under Section 135A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, 'Booth Capturing' is defined broadly to ensure the integrity of the electoral process. According to the Act, booth capturing includes:
1. **Seizing a polling station**: When a person or group takes control of the polling station to prevent the free exercise of electoral rights (corresponds to statement i).
2. **Preventing electors from voting**: This includes threatening, intimidating, or using force to prevent any elector from going to the polling station or exercising their right to vote (corresponds to statement ii).
3. **Interference with voting machinery**: This includes the seizure, damage, or unauthorized manipulation of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) or voting papers to record fake votes or prevent genuine votes from being cast (corresponds to statement iii).
Since all three statements (i), (ii), and (iii) fall under the legal definition of booth capturing as per the RP Act 1951, option (d) is the correct choice.
As per Section 3 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986, the State of Mizoram was formed from the territories which, immediately before the appointed day, were comprised in:
A)
The State of Assam
B)
The Union Territory of Mizoram
C)
The Lushai Hills District
D)
The State of Manipur
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 was enacted to provide for the establishment of the State of Mizoram. 2. Section 3 of the Act explicitly states that the State of Mizoram shall be formed from the territories which, immediately before the appointed day (February 20, 1987), were comprised in the Union Territory of Mizoram. 3. Historically, the region was part of the Lushai Hills District of Assam, then became an autonomous district, then a Union Territory in 1972, and finally achieved full statehood in 1987. Therefore, immediately before the 'appointed day' of the 1986 Act, it was a Union Territory. Option (a) is incorrect because it was not part of the State of Assam immediately before 1987. Option (c) refers to an earlier administrative status. Option (d) is geographically and politically incorrect.
The security deposit for a candidate belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in case of an election from a Parliamentary constituency is:
A)
10,000
B)
15,000
C)
25,000
D)
12,500
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, specifically Section 33, candidates are required to furnish a security deposit to prevent non-serious candidates from contesting elections. For elections to the Parliament (Lok Sabha), the general security deposit is ₹25,000. However, the Act provides a concession for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). For these candidates, the security deposit is reduced by half. Therefore, 50% of ₹25,000 equals ₹12,500.
- Option (a) 10,000: Incorrect.
- Option (b) 15,000: Incorrect.
- Option (c) 25,000: This is the general security deposit for non-SC/ST candidates.
- Option (d) 12,500: Correct, as it is the statutory reduced rate for SC/ST candidates for Parliamentary elections.
The counting of votes is undertaken under the supervision of the:
A)
Presiding Officer
B)
Electoral Registration Officer
C)
Returning Officer
D)
Chief Electoral Officer
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the Returning Officer (RO) is the statutory authority responsible for the overall conduct of the election in a specific constituency. While the Presiding Officer manages the polling station during the voting process, the responsibility for the counting of votes, the declaration of the result, and the supervision of the counting center rests solely with the Returning Officer.
Breakdown of options:
- a. Presiding Officer: Responsible for the conduct of polls at a specific polling station, not the overall counting process.
- b. Electoral Registration Officer: Responsible for the preparation and revision of the electoral rolls.
- d. Chief Electoral Officer: The head of election administration at the State level, who oversees the process but does not personally supervise the counting of votes for individual constituencies.
Section 3 of The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 establishes the State of Mizoram as comprising the territories which immediately before the appointed day were comprised in:
A)
The North-Eastern Areas
B)
The State of Tripura
C)
The existing Union territory of Mizoram
D)
The territories determined by the Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies Order, 1976.
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 was enacted to provide for the establishment of the State of Mizoram. Section 3 of this Act explicitly states that the State of Mizoram shall comprise the territories which immediately before the appointed day (February 20, 1987) were comprised in the existing Union territory of Mizoram.
Reasoning for other options:
- Option (a) 'The North-Eastern Areas' is too broad, as it encompasses several states and territories.
- Option (b) 'The State of Tripura' is a separate state and not the source territory for Mizoram.
- Option (d) refers to delimitation orders which deal with electoral boundaries, not the constitutional establishment of the state's territorial jurisdiction.
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 primarily deals with:
A)
Allocation of seats and delimitation of constituencies
B)
The actual conduct of elections and related offenses
C)
Preparation of electoral rolls
D)
The structure of the Election Commission
To understand the correct answer, it is essential to distinguish between the two primary acts governing elections in India: the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 and the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951.
1. **RPA 1950** primarily deals with the 'pre-election' stage. This includes the allocation of seats in the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies, the delimitation of constituencies, and the preparation of electoral rolls. Therefore, options (a) and (c) are covered under the 1950 Act.
2. **RPA 1951** primarily deals with the 'actual conduct' of elections. This includes the qualifications and disqualifications of candidates, the nomination process, the conduct of polls, the counting of votes, election petitions, and the definition and punishment of 'corrupt practices' and other election-related offenses. This aligns perfectly with option (b).
3. **Option (d)** is incorrect because the structure, appointment, and powers of the Election Commission are primarily governed by Article 324 of the Constitution of India, although the Acts provide the legal framework for the Commission to operate.
A candidate who loses his deposit forfeits it if he fails to secure more than ____ of the total valid votes polled.
A)
One-third
B)
One-fourth
C)
One-sixth
D)
One-eighth
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and the corresponding Conduct of Elections Rules, a candidate is required to deposit a certain amount of money (security deposit) to contest an election. To prevent non-serious candidates from filing nominations, the law stipulates that the security deposit will be forfeited if the candidate fails to poll a minimum percentage of the total valid votes cast in the constituency. Specifically, a candidate must secure more than one-sixth (1/6th) of the total valid votes polled to have their deposit refunded. If they secure one-sixth or less, the deposit is forfeited to the government.
- Option (a) One-third: Incorrect; this is too high a threshold for deposit refund.
- Option (b) One-fourth: Incorrect; not the statutory requirement.
- Option (d) One-eighth: Incorrect; not the statutory requirement.
Voting by postal ballot is governed by:
A)
Section 60 of RP Act, 1951
B)
Section 60 of RP Act, 1950
C)
Section 50 of RP Act, 1951
D)
Section 50 of RP Act, 1950
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act 1951) governs the actual conduct of elections, including the voting process. Section 60 of the RP Act, 1951 specifically deals with 'Voting by postal ballot'. It provides the legal framework for certain categories of voters (such as service voters, voters on election duty, and others specified by the Election Commission) to cast their votes via postal ballot rather than appearing physically at a polling station.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: The RP Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies, and the qualification of voters, not the mechanics of voting.
- Option c: Section 50 of the RP Act, 1951 relates to the 'Voting to be in secret', not postal ballots.
- Option d: Section 50 of the RP Act, 1950 relates to the 'Preparation of rolls' and administrative procedures for electoral rolls.
An election petition must be presented within ____ days from the date of election of the returned candidate.
A)
30
B)
45
C)
60
D)
90
According to Section 81 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, an election petition must be presented to the High Court within a period of 45 days from the date of the election of the returned candidate. The 'date of election' is generally considered the date on which the result of the election is declared.
- Option (a) 30 days is incorrect as it does not align with the statutory limit set in the RP Act 1951.
- Option (c) 60 days is incorrect.
- Option (d) 90 days is incorrect.
Therefore, the legally mandated timeframe for filing an election petition under the Act is 45 days.
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 was enacted on:
A)
23rd December 1986
B)
30th June 1986
C)
20th February 1987
D)
14th August 1986
The State of Mizoram Act, 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India to provide for the establishment of the State of Mizoram. The Act received the assent of the President of India on December 23, 1986. While the state officially came into existence as a full-fledged state on February 20, 1987 (which is the date of the Appointed Day), the Act itself was enacted/passed on December 23, 1986. Therefore, option (a) is the correct date of enactment, whereas option (c) refers to the date the state was formally inaugurated.