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Past Questions
Special provision to safeguard food security is dealt under _________of ‘The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013”.
A)
Section 7
B)
Section 20
C)
Section 10
D)
Section 40
Under 'The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013', Section 10 specifically addresses the 'Special provision to safeguard food security'. This section restricts the acquisition of multi-crop irrigated land, stating that such land should not be acquired except as a last resort and only if the specified food security thresholds of the area are maintained.
Breakdown of other options:
- Section 7 deals with the 'Preliminary survey' and the power to enter land for survey.
- Section 20 deals with the 'Notice to persons interested' regarding the acquisition process.
- Section 40 deals with the 'Appointment of Administrator' for rehabilitation and resettlement.
Therefore, Section 10 is the correct provision dedicated to safeguarding food security.
An appeal from any decision or order made under ‘The Mizoram (Prevention of Public Land Encroachment) Act, 2001 by the Revenue Officer shall lie to the District Revenue Officer, if submitted within:
A)
15 days
B)
60 days
C)
30 days
D)
90 days
Under 'The Mizoram (Prevention of Public Land Encroachment) Act, 2001', the legal framework provides a mechanism for appealing decisions made by the Revenue Officer. According to the provisions regarding appeals within the Act, any person aggrieved by an order or decision of the Revenue Officer may prefer an appeal to the District Revenue Officer. The statutory time limit prescribed for filing such an appeal is 30 days from the date of the order or the date of communication of the order to the aggrieved party. Therefore, option (c) is the correct legal timeframe. Options (a) 15 days, (b) 60 days, and (d) 90 days are incorrect as they do not align with the specific limitation period set by this particular Act.
Under the ‘The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013’, what is the role of the Social Impact Assessment (SIA)?
A)
To assess the social impacts of land acquisition on affected families
B)
To expedite land acquisition without considering social impacts
C)
To benefit corporations without considering social welfare
D)
To prepare Award and Solatium
Under 'The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013' (RFCTLARR Act 2013), the Social Impact Assessment (SIA) is a mandatory requirement for most land acquisitions.
1. **Purpose of SIA**: The primary goal of the SIA is to evaluate whether the proposed acquisition is for a 'public purpose', to determine if the land being acquired is the minimum area required, and to assess the impact of the acquisition on the affected families (including loss of livelihood, displacement, and social disruption).
2. **Why Option (a) is correct**: It accurately describes the core objective of the SIA—to analyze the social consequences and ensure that the rehabilitation and resettlement (R&R) needs are identified.
3. **Why Option (b) is incorrect**: The SIA is designed to ensure transparency and social welfare; it is a safeguard against 'expediting' acquisition without due consideration of social costs.
4. **Why Option (c) is incorrect**: The Act was specifically designed to move away from the colonial-era Land Acquisition Act of 1894 to ensure that land acquisition is not purely for corporate benefit at the expense of social welfare.
5. **Why Option (d) is incorrect**: The preparation of the 'Award' (the final determination of compensation) and 'Solatium' (additional compensation for the compulsory nature of acquisition) is the responsibility of the Collector/Land Acquisition Officer, not the SIA process.
In case of acquisition of land for irrigation or hydel project, being a public purpose, the rehabilitation and resettlement shall be completed _________ prior to submergence of the lands acquired.
A)
6 months
B)
3 months
C)
12 months
D)
24 months
Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act 2013), specific timelines are mandated for the completion of rehabilitation and resettlement (R&R) to protect the interests of displaced persons. Specifically, for projects involving the submergence of land—such as irrigation or hydel (hydroelectric) projects—the law stipulates that the rehabilitation and resettlement process must be completed at least 12 months prior to the actual submergence of the acquired lands. This ensures that affected families are properly settled and provided with necessary amenities before they lose access to their land due to flooding or reservoir filling. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory timeline prescribed in the Act for submergence-related projects.
“Commissioner” means the Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement appointed under _________ of section 44.
A)
Sub- section (1)
B)
Sub- section (2)
C)
Sub-section (3)
D)
Sub-section (4)
According to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act 2013), the definition of 'Commissioner' is found in Section 3 (Definitions). The Act specifies that 'Commissioner' means the Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement appointed under sub-section (1) of section 44. Section 44(1) explicitly empowers the appropriate Government to appoint a Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement for the purpose of overseeing the implementation of the rehabilitation and resettlement schemes. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they refer to subsequent sub-sections of Section 44 which deal with the terms of office, duties, and other administrative details, rather than the primary appointment of the Commissioner.
Period of validity of shop or stall pass shall be _________ at the initial stage.
A)
10 years
B)
3 years
C)
5 years
D)
20 years
Under the land pass regulations and guidelines applicable in Mizoram (specifically regarding the issuance of passes for commercial activities like shops or stalls), the initial validity period for such a pass is typically set at 3 years. This allows the administration to monitor the usage of the land and ensure compliance with the terms of the pass before granting a renewal. Options a (10 years), c (5 years), and d (20 years) are incorrect as they exceed the standard initial probationary/validity period prescribed for commercial stall passes in the state's land administration framework.
As far as possible, no acquisition of land shall be made in the _________.
A)
Forest area
B)
Riverine area
C)
Public places
D)
Scheduled Areas
The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act 2013) contains specific safeguards to protect vulnerable populations and ecologically sensitive zones. Under Section 10 of the Act, it is explicitly stated that 'as far as possible, no acquisition of land shall be made in the Scheduled Areas'. This provision is intended to protect the land rights of tribal populations in areas designated as 'Scheduled Areas' under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, ensuring that their traditional land holdings are not displaced without extreme necessity and strict adherence to special safeguards (such as the consent of the Gram Sabha). While forest areas are also protected under the Forest (Conservation) Act, the specific phrasing 'as far as possible, no acquisition of land shall be made in the...' is a direct reference to the restrictions regarding Scheduled Areas within the 2013 Act.
There shall be a register of _________ in each and every land holding as prescribed in Form 22.
A)
Land Bank Register
B)
Record of Rights
C)
Conveyance
D)
Land Committee
In the context of land administration and land records (specifically within the framework of the Mizoram Land Revenue and Administration rules), the 'Record of Rights' (RoR) is the primary legal document that maintains a detailed register of land holdings. It contains essential information such as the owner's name, the area of the land, the nature of the tenure, and any encumbrances. Form 22 is specifically designated as the format for maintaining this Record of Rights for each land holding to ensure transparency and legal certainty of land ownership.
The list of assessment for land revenue, taxes etc shall be submitted to the Collector or any officer authorized by the Government which will be checked, corrected and approved as final list in:
A)
Form 14
B)
Form 15
C)
Form 8
D)
Form 7
In the context of Land Revenue administration and the specific forms used for the assessment and collection of land revenue and taxes (particularly within the framework of the Mizoram Land Revenue rules/regulations), Form 15 is the designated form used for the submission, checking, correction, and final approval of the assessment list by the Collector or an authorized officer. Form 14 typically pertains to the preliminary proposal or a different stage of the assessment process, while Forms 7 and 8 are generally used for other administrative records such as mutation or land holding registers. Therefore, the final approved list of assessment is maintained/submitted in Form 15.
Any person or juristic person proposing to divert the use of his land holding shall submit an application in _________ to the Revenue Officer concerned.
A)
Form 7A
B)
Form 7
C)
Form 8
D)
Form 10
Under the land laws and revenue regulations applicable in Mizoram (specifically regarding the diversion of land use), the prescribed procedure for a person or juristic person to request a change in the land's designated use is to apply to the concerned Revenue Officer. According to the standardized forms used in the Mizoram Land Revenue and Diversion rules, 'Form 7' is the specific application form designated for the proposal to divert the use of land holdings. Form 7A, Form 8, and Form 10 are used for different administrative purposes such as appeals, mutations, or certifications, and are not the primary application forms for the initial request for land diversion.
For conversion of land exceeding _________, the application shall be placed before the Mizoram Public Investment Board (MPIB).
A)
10 bighas
B)
15 bighas
C)
9 bighas
D)
5 bighas
Under the land diversion and conversion guidelines applicable in Mizoram, there are specific thresholds for the authority required to approve the change of land use. For small-scale conversions, the authority typically rests with the District Administration or the Deputy Commissioner. However, for larger land diversions—specifically those exceeding 10 bighas—the application must be elevated to the Mizoram Public Investment Board (MPIB) for scrutiny and approval to ensure that the diversion aligns with state investment goals and environmental regulations. Therefore, 10 bighas is the critical threshold for MPIB intervention.
The appropriate Government shall ensure the completion of the Social Impact Assessment study within a period of _________ from the date of its commencement.
A)
3 months
B)
6 months
C)
9 months
D)
12 months
According to Section 4 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 (RFCTLARR Act 2013), the Social Impact Assessment (SIA) study is a mandatory requirement to determine whether the proposed acquisition is for a public purpose and to analyze the impact on affected families. Specifically, Section 4(2) of the Act mandates that the appropriate Government shall ensure that the Social Impact Assessment study is completed within a period of six months from the date of its commencement.
- Option (a) 3 months is incorrect as it is too short for a comprehensive socio-economic study.
- Option (c) 9 months and Option (d) 12 months are incorrect as they exceed the statutory timeline prescribed by the Act.
Interest at the rate of _________ per annum or part thereof shall be charged for late payment of land revenue, taxes, cess etc.
A)
20 %
B)
15 %
C)
10 %
D)
5 %
Under the land revenue laws and administrative rules applicable to the state of Mizoram (specifically relating to the recovery of land revenue, taxes, and cess), the standard penalty for late payment is prescribed as interest at the rate of 10% per annum. This interest is charged on the outstanding amount for the period of delay, including any part of a year. Options a (20%), b (15%), and d (5%) are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory interest rate prescribed for these specific government dues in the Mizoram Land Revenue framework.
Any person aggrieved with the assessed amount of land revenue, tax etc shall submit the nature of objection in detail in Form 16 within:
A)
60 days
B)
15 days
C)
90 days
D)
30 days
Under the Land Revenue rules and procedures applicable to the state (specifically within the framework of the Mizoram Land Revenue guidelines), any person who is aggrieved by the assessment of land revenue or tax is provided a statutory window to file an objection. According to the prescribed procedure for filing objections in Form 16, the objection must be submitted in detail within 30 days from the date of the notice of assessment. This timeframe ensures that the revenue administration can process appeals and corrections in a timely manner. Options a (60 days), b (15 days), and c (90 days) are incorrect as they do not align with the specific statutory period mandated for this particular administrative form.
Maximum area that can be allotted for permanent plantation for person or juristic person is not to exceed.
A)
1 bigha
B)
15 bighas
C)
20 bighas
D)
60 bighas
Under the land allotment rules and policies applicable in Mizoram (specifically regarding the allotment of land for permanent plantation), there are specific ceilings to prevent land monopoly and ensure equitable distribution. For the purpose of permanent plantation, the maximum area that can be allotted to an individual (person) or a juristic person (such as a registered society or company) is capped at 60 bighas. Options a, b, and c represent limits that are either too low or apply to different categories of land use (such as residential or small-scale agricultural plots), whereas 60 bighas is the established upper limit for permanent plantation allotments.
In cases of unauthorized diversion of land for other purposes, fine of _________ per square metre per annum shall be imposed on defaulter as penalty.
A)
Rupees 1000
B)
Rupees 500
C)
Rupees 2000
D)
Rupees 3000
According to the land diversion regulations and guidelines applicable in Mizoram (specifically those governing the diversion of land from agricultural to non-agricultural purposes), the penalty for unauthorized diversion is standardized to deter illegal land use changes. The prescribed fine for such unauthorized diversion is Rupees 500 per square metre per annum. This penalty is imposed on the defaulter for every year the land remains diverted without official permission from the competent authority. Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the specific statutory penalty amount prescribed in the land diversion rules of the state.
Land Settlement Certificate holder has:
A)
Permanent, heritable and transferable rights
B)
Temporary right, title, interest and possession
C)
Right of use and occupancy for such period and under such terms and conditions as may be specified
D)
Right of use in any special purposes as an agent of the Government
In the context of Land Tenure and Land Settlement laws (specifically applicable to the Mizoram Land Revenue and Land Settlement frameworks), a 'Land Settlement Certificate' is a formal document issued by the government that grants a person legal ownership or a permanent lease over a specific piece of land.
1. **Permanent**: Once a settlement certificate is issued, the right to the land is generally permanent, provided the holder adheres to the conditions of the settlement (such as payment of land revenue).
2. **Heritable**: The rights associated with the certificate can be passed down to legal heirs upon the death of the holder.
3. **Transferable**: The holder has the legal authority to sell, gift, or transfer the land to another party, subject to existing land laws and government regulations.
Comparing this to other options:
- Option (b) describes a temporary lease or provisional possession.
- Option (c) describes a 'Right of Occupancy' or a license, which is limited in duration and scope.
- Option (d) describes an agency or stewardship role, not ownership or settlement rights.
Any person interested in any land which has been notified as being required or likely to be required for public purpose may submit objection within:
A)
30 days
B)
15 days
C)
20 days
D)
60 days
Option A is correct: 30 days.
Which of the following is not a function of a municipality under the Act?
A)
Construction and maintenance of public streets
B)
Regulation of building operations
C)
Control of village grazing grounds
D)
Collection and disposal of solid waste
Under the Mizoram Municipalities Act, 2007, the functions of a municipality are primarily focused on urban governance, infrastructure, and public health within the municipal area.
1. Option (a) 'Construction and maintenance of public streets' is a core obligatory function of a municipality to ensure urban connectivity.
2. Option (b) 'Regulation of building operations' is a key regulatory function to ensure planned urban development and safety.
3. Option (d) 'Collection and disposal of solid waste' is a critical sanitation and public health function mandated for municipalities.
Option (c) 'Control of village grazing grounds' is NOT a function of a municipality. Grazing grounds and village commons are typically managed by Village Councils or rural local bodies under the Village Council Act, as they pertain to rural land management rather than urban municipal administration.
Under the Act, who is responsible for the administration of a municipality?
A)
The State Government
B)
The Municipal Board or Council
C)
The District Magistrate
D)
The Union Government
Under the Mizoram Municipalities Act, 2007, the administration of a municipality is vested in a corporate body known as the Municipal Board or Council. This body is composed of elected members (Councillors) and is responsible for the management, administration, and execution of functions within the municipal area.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. The State Government: While the State Government provides oversight, legislative framework, and funding, it does not handle the day-to-day administration of the municipality.
- c. The District Magistrate: The DM may have certain supervisory or coordinating roles in the district, but the statutory administrative authority for the municipality lies with the Board/Council.
- d. The Union Government: Municipalities are a State subject under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India; the Union Government has no direct administrative role in individual municipalities.
What is the penalty for a sponsor failing to comply with Inner Line Permit (ILP) regulations in Mizoram?
A)
Warning
B)
Fine
C)
Forfeiture of security deposit and suspension of sponsorship rights
D)
Imprisonment
Under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regulations implemented in Mizoram, a 'Sponsor' (the person or entity vouching for the visitor) takes legal and financial responsibility for the visitor's conduct and adherence to the permit conditions. To ensure compliance, sponsors are often required to provide a security deposit or a formal undertaking. If a sponsor fails to comply with the regulations—such as failing to report the visitor's departure or if the visitor violates the terms of the permit—the administrative penalty typically involves the forfeiture of the security deposit and the suspension or cancellation of their rights to act as a sponsor for future applicants. Options a, b, and d are generally applied to the permit holder (the visitor) or in cases of criminal breach, whereas the specific administrative penalty for the 'sponsor' focuses on their eligibility and financial guarantee.
Which of the following amounts to a voidable marriage under the Mizo Marriage, Divorce and Inheritance of Property Act 2014?
A)
Inru
B)
Dan Hnihna
C)
Falak
D)
Mak
Under the Mizo Marriage, Divorce and Inheritance of Property Act 2014, the law recognizes traditional Mizo forms of marriage but distinguishes between those that are legally binding and those that are voidable or irregular.
1. **Falak** refers to a form of marriage where a man takes a woman as a second wife or a companion without following the proper customary rites or legal requirements of a primary marriage. Under the Act, such arrangements (specifically those that contravene the monogamy principles or lack legal validity) are treated as voidable marriages.
2. **Inru** is the traditional Mizo customary marriage, which is recognized as a valid marriage under the Act.
3. **Dan Hnihna** refers to the 'Second Law' or a specific customary procedure for regularization, which is generally intended to validate a union rather than make it voidable.
4. **Mak** refers to the bride price or the customary gift given by the groom's family to the bride's family, which is a component of a valid customary marriage, not a type of marriage itself.
Therefore, 'Falak' is the correct answer as it represents a union that does not meet the legal criteria for a valid marriage and is thus voidable.
What is the minimum number of members required to constitute a Village Council under the Lushai Hills (Village Councils) Act, 1953?
A)
3
B)
5
C)
7
D)
9
Under the Lushai Hills (Village Councils) Act, 1953, the composition of a Village Council is defined based on the size and requirements of the village. According to the statutory provisions of the Act, a Village Council must consist of a minimum of 5 members and a maximum of 15 members. The specific number within this range is typically determined by the government or based on the population of the village. Therefore, the minimum threshold required to constitute a legal Village Council under this Act is 5 members. Options a (3), c (7), and d (9) are incorrect as they do not represent the statutory minimum limit defined in the 1953 Act.
Can a defaulter appeal against the recovery proceedings under the Act?
A)
Yes, to the District Revenue Officer
B)
Yes, to the High Court
C)
No, appeals are not permitted
D)
Yes, to the Certificate Officer
The Mizoram Public Demands Recovery Act, 2001, is designed as a summary procedure for the recovery of public demands. Under the statutory framework of the Act, the proceedings conducted by the Certificate Officer are intended to be final and conclusive regarding the recovery process. The Act does not provide a statutory mechanism for a 'defaulter' to file an appeal against the recovery proceedings within the administrative hierarchy of the Act itself. While a person may seek judicial remedy through a Writ Petition in the High Court under the Constitution of India (challenging the legality or procedure), the Act itself does not permit an internal appeal to the District Revenue Officer or the Certificate Officer. Therefore, in the context of the specific provisions of the Act, appeals are not permitted.
What is the validity period of a Regular Inner Line Permit (ILP) in Mizoram?
A)
3 months
B)
6 months
C)
12 months
D)
18 months
Under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regulations implemented in Mizoram, there are different categories of permits based on the purpose of the visit. A 'Regular' or 'Standard' Inner Line Permit is typically issued for a validity period of 6 months. This allows the holder to enter and exit the state within that timeframe. In contrast, Temporary Permits (often for short-term tourism or specific official visits) may have shorter durations, while special permits for specific categories of people may differ. Therefore, option (b) is the correct standard validity for a Regular ILP.