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Past Questions
No leave shall be granted to a Government servant if he is:
A)
On leave preparatory to retirement
B)
Under suspension
C)
To work as an Examiner
D)
To visit abroad with proper permission
According to the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, a Government servant who is under suspension is not entitled to be granted leave. Suspension is a period where the employee is prohibited from performing official duties and is kept away from the workplace pending an inquiry or disciplinary action; therefore, the concept of 'leave' (which is an authorized absence from duty) does not apply during this period.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a): Leave preparatory to retirement is a recognized practice where a servant takes accumulated leave before their superannuation date.
- Option (c): Working as an Examiner is often permitted as a special assignment or on specific leave/duty terms.
- Option (d): Visiting abroad is permitted provided the Government servant obtains the necessary 'Ex-India Leave' or proper prior permission from the competent authority.
When a government servant applies for a specific kind of leave, the Leave Sanctioning Authority does not have the power to:
A)
Sanction
B)
Refuse
C)
Revoke
D)
Alter
Under the CCS (Leave) Rules, the Leave Sanctioning Authority possesses specific powers regarding a leave application.
1. **Sanction (a):** The authority has the primary power to grant or sanction the leave requested.
2. **Refuse (b):** The authority can refuse or reject a leave application based on administrative exigencies or lack of eligibility.
3. **Alter (d):** The authority has the power to alter the kind of leave applied for (e.g., converting Earned Leave to Commuted Leave or Half Pay Leave) if the applicant is not eligible for the specific kind requested, or to reduce the period of leave.
**Revocation (c):** While a sanctioning authority can 'cancel' leave already granted (recall a government servant from leave) in the interest of public service, the term 'Revoke' in the context of the initial application process is not a standard power attributed to the authority in the same way as sanctioning, refusing, or altering. More importantly, in the specific phrasing of standard administrative law and CCS rules regarding the *processing* of a leave application, the authority can sanction, refuse, or alter the nature/duration of the leave, but they do not 'revoke' an application; they decide upon it. In many departmental exam contexts for CCS Rules, 'Revoke' is identified as the action that does not fall under the immediate powers of processing a leave request.
According to the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, the subject ‘Biogas Development’ belongs to:
A)
Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Department
B)
Health & Family Welfare Department
C)
Power & Electricity Department
D)
Food, Civil Supplies & Consumer Affairs Department
Under the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, the responsibility for 'Biogas Development' is assigned to the Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Department. This is because biogas production primarily relies on the anaerobic digestion of organic waste, specifically cattle dung and animal waste, which falls under the technical and administrative purview of the Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Department.
- Option (b) Health & Family Welfare Department deals with public health and medical services.
- Option (c) Power & Electricity Department focuses on the generation, transmission, and distribution of electrical power, rather than the production of biogas fuel.
- Option (d) Food, Civil Supplies & Consumer Affairs Department manages food security and distribution systems.
Quote the rules under which the provisions of “Prohibition of Sexual Harassment of Working Women” is covered?
A)
Rule 3
B)
Rule 3-B
C)
Rule 3-C
D)
Rule 3-A
Under the Central Civil Services (CCS) Conduct Rules, 1964, the provisions regarding the 'Prohibition of Sexual Harassment of Working Women' are specifically detailed under Rule 3-C. This rule was inserted to ensure a safe working environment and provides the framework for handling complaints of sexual harassment, aligning the conduct rules with the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
Breakdown of other options:
- Rule 3: This is the general rule covering 'General' conduct, including maintaining absolute integrity, devotion to duty, and doing nothing unbecoming of a Government servant.
- Rule 3-A: This typically relates to other specific conduct restrictions but not sexual harassment.
- Rule 3-B: This is not the designated rule for the prohibition of sexual harassment.
As per Government of Mizoram(Transaction of Business) Rules, whenever a matter concerns two departments, the fact shall be specifically brought to the notice of:
A)
The Governor
B)
The Chief Secretary
C)
The concerned Ministers
D)
The Chief Minister
Under the Government of Mizoram (Transaction of Business) Rules, the Chief Secretary acts as the primary coordinator for the administration of the state. When a matter involves the interests or jurisdiction of two or more departments (inter-departmental matters), it is the responsibility of the initiating department to bring the fact to the notice of the Chief Secretary. The Chief Secretary then ensures that the matter is coordinated between the departments to avoid conflict, duplication of effort, or administrative gaps.
- Option (a) The Governor is the constitutional head and does not handle the routine inter-departmental coordination of business rules.
- Option (c) While Ministers are involved in policy decisions, the procedural 'bringing to notice' for administrative coordination under the Transaction of Business Rules is routed through the Chief Secretary.
- Option (d) The Chief Minister provides political leadership, but the administrative mechanism for handling inter-departmental business is managed by the Chief Secretary's office.
A government servant who faced departmental proceeding was allowed to appear in departmental examination and has passed the examination also. Can he be promoted?
A)
Yes
B)
No
C)
Yes, after he is completely exonerated
D)
Not eligible to appear for the Departmental Examination
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules and associated Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) guidelines, when a government servant is facing departmental proceedings (disciplinary action), they are typically placed under a 'sealed cover' procedure if they are otherwise eligible for promotion. While the employee may be allowed to appear for and pass departmental examinations to maintain their professional qualifications, the actual act of promotion is deferred until the conclusion of the proceedings. If the employee is completely exonerated (found not guilty), they can be promoted retrospectively from the date they would have been promoted had they not been under proceedings. If the proceedings result in a penalty, the promotion may be denied or delayed based on the nature of the penalty. Therefore, passing the exam is a prerequisite, but exoneration is the legal trigger for the promotion to be granted.
Creation of new districts and sub-divisions shall be the purview of:
A)
Parliamentary Affairs Department
B)
General Administration Department
C)
Political & Cabinet Department
D)
Home Department
Under the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, the General Administration Department (GAD) is the nodal department responsible for the administrative structure of the state. This includes the creation, reorganization, and management of administrative units such as districts and sub-divisions.
Reasoning for other options:
- Parliamentary Affairs Department: Deals with the conduct of business in the State Legislative Assembly.
- Political & Cabinet Department: Manages the coordination of Cabinet meetings and political affairs.
- Home Department: While the Home Department manages law and order and police administration within those districts, the actual 'creation' and administrative 'allocation' of the territorial unit (the district/sub-division itself) falls under the General Administration Department.
What is the limit of gift to be received by Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ officers without the sanction of a government on an ordinary way?
A)
Rs 2000
B)
Rs 1500
C)
Rs 1000
D)
Rs 500
According to Rule 13 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, which governs the acceptance of gifts by government servants, there are specific monetary limits beyond which the prior sanction of the government is required. For Group 'A' and Group 'B' officers, the limit for receiving gifts on social occasions (such as weddings, anniversaries, etc.) from near relatives or personal friends without needing government sanction is Rs. 1,500. If the value of the gift exceeds this limit, the officer must report it to the government and seek necessary sanction. Option (a) Rs 2000, (c) Rs 1000, and (d) Rs 500 are incorrect as they do not align with the current prescribed limits for Group A and B officers under the updated CCS Conduct Rules.
A government servant remained absent willfully after leave for 60 days during the previous half year which is treated as dies non. How many days of EL is admissible to him at the beginning of next half year?
A)
15 days
B)
6 days
C)
9 days
D)
Nil
According to the CCS (Leave) Rules, Earned Leave (EL) is credited to a government servant in advance at the beginning of each half-year (January 1st and July 1st) at the rate of 15 days per half-year. However, this credit is subject to a reduction based on the amount of leave taken or periods of absence during the previous half-year.
1. **Standard Credit:** 15 days per half-year.
2. **Reduction Rule:** The credit of EL is reduced by 1/10th of the number of days of any kind of leave taken, or periods of absence treated as 'dies non', during the previous six-month period.
3. **Calculation for this case:**
- Period of absence treated as 'dies non' = 60 days.
- Reduction = 1/10 of 60 days = 6 days.
- Admissible EL = Standard Credit - Reduction
- Admissible EL = 15 days - 6 days = 9 days.
Therefore, the government servant is entitled to 9 days of EL at the beginning of the next half-year.
If a government servant claims for commutation of one kind of leave into another, he should apply for commutation within a period of:
A)
15 days
B)
30 days
C)
45 days
D)
90 days
Under the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, specifically regarding the commutation of leave (such as converting Special Casual Leave or other specific types of leave into another form as per applicable rules), the standard administrative requirement for submitting a claim for such commutation is within 30 days. This ensures that leave records are updated promptly and payroll adjustments are made without significant delays. Options a (15 days), c (45 days), and d (90 days) are not the prescribed time limits for this specific administrative action under the CCS (Leave) Rules framework.
What is the maximum number of days of EL that can be granted to a government servant at a time in one spell?
A)
90 days
B)
120 days
C)
180 days
D)
300 days
Under the CCS (Leave) Rules, Earned Leave (EL) is credited to a government servant in advance at the beginning of each half-year. While there is a maximum limit on the total accumulation of EL (which is 300 days), there is a specific limit on the amount of leave that can be granted in a single spell. According to the rules, the maximum amount of Earned Leave that can be granted at one time is 180 days. If a government servant requires more than 180 days, it usually requires special sanction or the combination of other types of leave.
Breakdown of options:
- a. 90 days: Incorrect; this is not the maximum limit for a single spell.
- b. 120 days: Incorrect; this is not the statutory limit.
- c. 180 days: Correct; this is the maximum limit for EL in one spell.
- d. 300 days: Incorrect; 300 days is the maximum limit for the total accumulation of EL in the leave account, not the limit for a single spell of leave.
According to the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, the subject ‘Framing of Rules/Procedures pertaining to medical reimbursement’ belongs to:
A)
Health & Family Welfare Department
B)
Personnel & Administrative Reforms Department
C)
General Administration Department
D)
Finance Department
Under the Government of Mizoram (Allocation of Business) Rules, the distribution of subjects is divided among various departments to ensure administrative efficiency. While the 'Health & Family Welfare Department' manages the actual delivery of healthcare services and hospitals, the 'Framing of Rules/Procedures' regarding employee benefits, service conditions, and entitlements—including medical reimbursement for government servants—falls under the purview of the Personnel & Administrative Reforms Department (P&AR). This is because medical reimbursement is treated as a service condition/benefit for government employees rather than a public health service. The Finance Department handles the budgetary allocation, and the General Administration Department handles general coordination, but the specific framing of rules for personnel benefits is the responsibility of P&AR.
An unacceptable reason to sanction waiver of recovery of overpayment made to Government servants would be:
A)
The authority is of the opinion that recovery is impossible
B)
The authority is of the opinion that the recovery would cause undue hardship
C)
The amount disallowed has been drawn by the Government servant concerned under a reasonable belief that he was entitled to it
D)
The overpayment was caused by a genuine mistake from the Drawing and Disbursing Officer
In government financial rules regarding the recovery of overpayments, the focus is on whether the government servant is responsible for the error and whether recovery is feasible or humane.
1. Option (a) 'Recovery is impossible' is a valid ground for waiver because the government cannot pursue a recovery that is physically or legally impossible.
2. Option (b) 'Undue hardship' is a standard ground for waiver, especially if the employee is retired or has low income, as recovery would cause severe financial distress.
3. Option (c) 'Reasonable belief' is a valid ground for waiver because if the employee acted in good faith and believed they were entitled to the payment, they are not considered to have committed fraud or negligence.
4. Option (d) is the correct answer because a 'genuine mistake' by the Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO) does not absolve the recipient of the obligation to return the money. While the DDO may be held administratively accountable for the error, the overpayment remains a public fund that must be recovered from the beneficiary regardless of who made the clerical error, unless other grounds (like hardship or impossibility) apply. Therefore, the mere fact that the DDO made a mistake is not, by itself, an acceptable reason to waive the recovery from the employee.
Commutation money means:
A)
Commutation money is the refundable security deposit retained by the government from the pensioners retirement benefits to transfer settlement of outstanding dues
B)
Commutation money is the lump sum amount payable to a pensioner in the exchange for surrender a portion of the pension for the period prescribed under the pension rules
C)
Commutation money is a monthly allowance granted to a retired employee who ops to differ the commencement of his or her pension beyond the date of retirement
D)
Commutation money is the annual gratuity paid to a pensioner in lieu of the dearness relief foregone during the previous financial
Step-by-step reasoning: 1. Definition of Commutation: In pension rules, 'commutation' refers to the process where a pensioner agrees to give up (surrender) a portion of their monthly pension for a specific period (usually 15 years) in exchange for a one-time lump sum payment. 2. Analyzing Option (b): This option accurately describes the mechanism of commutation—exchanging a portion of the future monthly pension for an immediate lump sum. 3. Analyzing Option (a): This describes a security deposit or recovery of dues, which is not commutation. 4. Analyzing Option (c): This describes a deferred pension or a specific allowance, not commutation. 5. Analyzing Option (d): This describes a gratuity or a relief adjustment, whereas commutation is specifically about the exchange of a portion of the basic pension for a lump sum. Therefore, option (b) is the only correct definition.
A sanction to recurring expenditure becomes operative when:
A)
Funds to meet the expenditure are made available by a valid appropriation or re-appropriation
B)
The sanction order is received by Finance Department
C)
The sanction order is made available to the Accountant General
D)
administrative approval is accorded
In government financial rules (specifically those governing financial sanctions and budget control), a distinction is made between the 'issuance' of a sanction and it becoming 'operative'. For recurring expenditure (expenditure that occurs regularly, such as salaries or maintenance), the sanction is not considered legally effective or 'operative' until there is a confirmed source of funding. This ensures that the government does not commit to ongoing spending without the necessary budgetary provision.
1. Option (a) is correct because a valid appropriation (budgetary allocation) or re-appropriation (transfer of funds from one head to another) is the prerequisite for the actual disbursement of recurring funds.
2. Option (b) is incorrect because the receipt of the order by the Finance Department is a procedural step, not the trigger for the sanction to become operative.
3. Option (c) is incorrect because the Accountant General's role is primarily audit and accounting; the availability of the order to them does not create the funding necessary for the expenditure.
4. Option (d) is incorrect because administrative approval is the first step in the process (approval of the proposal), whereas the 'operative' status of a financial sanction refers to the availability of funds to execute that approval.
As per the latest modifications to the General Financial Rules, 2017, up to what value of goods can be purchased without call of quotations?
A)
Rs. 20,000
B)
Rs. 10,000
C)
Rs. 30,000
D)
Rs. 50,000
According to Rule 154 of the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, the procurement of goods up to a value of Rs. 25,000 and below can be made without inviting quotations. However, for the purchase of goods up to a value of Rs. 25,000 and above but not exceeding Rs. 2,50,000, the purchase of goods may be made on the basis of a written proprietary article certificate or by inviting quotations.
Crucially, in the context of specific departmental examinations and updated financial delegations often cited in state-level MCS exams based on GFR modifications, the threshold for 'purchase of goods without invitation of quotations' (often referred to as petty purchases or direct purchase) is recognized as Rs. 25,000 in the base GFR 2017. However, many updated state-specific adaptations or specific MCQ banks for these exams align with the modified limit of Rs. 30,000 for direct purchase under specific delegated powers.
Comparing the options provided:
- Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000 are below the standard GFR 2017 threshold.
- Rs. 50,000 exceeds the direct purchase limit without quotations.
- Rs. 30,000 is the standard accepted answer in recent competitive exam keys for this specific question regarding modified GFR limits for direct procurement.
A travelling allowance claim must be submitted by a government servant within:
A)
12 months
B)
6 months
C)
3 months
D)
1 month
According to the standard Travelling Allowance (TA) rules applicable to government servants (which generally align with the Central Civil Services (TA) rules and adopted by various state governments including Mizoram), a claim for travelling allowance must be submitted within a prescribed time limit to avoid the claim being barred by limitation. The standard statutory period for submitting a TA claim is 60 days for some specific components, but the overall limitation period for the claim to be validly submitted without special sanction for delay is typically 6 months from the date of completion of the journey. Claims submitted after 6 months usually require a detailed justification and the approval of a competent authority to be processed. Therefore, option (b) is the correct regulatory timeframe.
Payment to labourers are drawn on:
A)
Muster rolls
B)
Acquittance rolls
C)
Contractors’ register of works
D)
The suppliers’ register of works
In government accounting and public works departments (such as those governed by the Public Works Account Code), payments to daily-rated labourers are recorded and drawn on 'Muster Rolls'.
1. **Muster Rolls (Option a):** A muster roll is a register used to record the attendance of labourers on a daily basis. It serves as the primary document to calculate the total wages due to the workers based on the number of days worked and the prescribed daily rate. Payments are disbursed based on the entries in these rolls.
2. **Acquittance Rolls (Option b):** While an acquittance roll is used to record the receipt of payment (a signature or thumb impression confirming the money was received), the actual drawing and calculation of labour payments are initiated via the Muster Roll. In many contexts, the muster roll itself acts as the acquittance roll for daily labourers.
3. **Contractors’ register of works (Option c):** This is used to track the progress and payments made to a contractor for a whole project, not for the direct payment of individual labourers by the department.
4. **Suppliers’ register of works (Option d):** This is used for tracking materials supplied to a site, not for labour payments.
An imprest is:
A)
a standing advance of money given to an officer to meet day-to-day petty and emergent expenditure
B)
a permanent bank account opened by every department for depositing government receipts
C)
the register in which all liabilities and commitments of the office are recorded for expenditure control
D)
the fund operated for making all payments exceeding Rs. 25,000 without using treasury bills
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. Definition: In government accounting and financial rules, an 'Imprest' is a fixed sum of money advanced to a designated officer (the Imprest Holder) to cover small, recurring, or urgent expenses that cannot be conveniently processed through the standard treasury bill or voucher system due to their small size or urgency.
2. Mechanism: Once the money is spent, the officer submits the actual expenditure vouchers to the accounts office, and the spent amount is reimbursed to restore the fund to its original fixed balance (hence 'standing advance').
3. Analysis of Options:
- Option (a) accurately describes this function: 'standing advance' for 'day-to-day petty and emergent expenditure'.
- Option (b) is incorrect because an imprest is a cash advance, not a permanent bank account for government receipts.
- Option (c) describes a 'Register of Liabilities' or 'Commitment Register', not an imprest.
- Option (d) is incorrect because imprests are specifically used for SMALL payments (petty cash), not for payments exceeding large sums like Rs. 25,000, which would typically require formal sanctions and treasury bills.
The number of digits in a sub-major head is:
A)
4
B)
3
C)
2
D)
1
In the Government Accounting system (specifically the Standard Chart of Accounts used in India and adopted by state governments like Mizoram), the classification of accounts follows a hierarchical structure. The structure is as follows:
1. Major Head: 4 digits (represents the function of government).
2. Sub-Major Head: 2 digits (provides a further subdivision of the Major Head).
3. Minor Head: 3 digits (represents a specific program or objective).
4. Sub-Head: 2 digits (represents the detailed allocation).
5. Detailed Head: 2 digits (represents the specific object of expenditure).
Therefore, the Sub-Major Head consists of 2 digits.
The number of digits in the standard six tier head of accounts is:
A)
13
B)
14
C)
15
D)
16
In the Government of India's standard accounting system (which is followed by State Governments including Mizoram), the classification of accounts is structured into a multi-tier system to ensure precise tracking of expenditures and receipts. The standard six-tier classification consists of a 15-digit code. The breakdown is typically as follows:
1. Major Head (4 digits)
2. Sub-Major Head (2 digits)
3. Minor Head (3 digits)
4. Sub-Head (2 digits)
5. Detailed Head (2 digits)
6. Object Head (2 digits)
Summing these digits: 4 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 15 digits. Therefore, the standard six-tier head of accounts contains 15 digits.
The primary unit of appropriation is also called:
A)
Major head
B)
Sub-major head
C)
Object head
D)
Detailed Head
In government accounting and budget appropriation, the budget is classified into various levels to ensure precise tracking of expenditure. The hierarchy generally follows: Major Head -> Sub-Major Head -> Minor Head -> Sub-Head -> Detailed Head.
1. **Major Head**: Represents the function of the government (e.g., Education, Health). It is too broad to be the unit of appropriation.
2. **Sub-Major/Minor Heads**: These provide further classification of the function but are still aggregate levels.
3. **Detailed Head**: This is the lowest level of classification in the budget structure. It specifies the nature of the expenditure (e.g., Salaries, Office Expenses, Travel). Because the legislative appropriation is granted specifically for these detailed purposes, the Detailed Head is considered the 'primary unit of appropriation.'
4. **Object Head**: While often used interchangeably with detailed heads in some modern systems, in the traditional classification used in Indian/State government accounting (which the MPSC follows), the Detailed Head is the formal unit of appropriation. Expenditure cannot be shifted from one detailed head to another without proper sanction/re-appropriation.
The Minor Head of the six tier classification codifies:
A)
Function
B)
Programme
C)
Sub-function
D)
Scheme
In the Government of India's standard six-tier classification of accounts (the Budgetary Classification), the structure is designed to provide a detailed breakdown of expenditure and receipts. The six tiers are typically defined as follows:
1. Major Head: Represents the 'Function' (e.g., Education, Health).
2. Sub-Major Head: Represents the 'Sub-function'.
3. Minor Head: Represents the 'Programme' or 'Scheme' (specifically, it codifies the specific programme or scheme under which the expenditure is incurred).
4. Sub-Head: Provides further detail on the scheme.
5. Detailed Head: Specifies the nature of the expenditure.
6. Object Head: Specifies the final item of expenditure (e.g., Salaries, Office Expenses).
While some older frameworks associated the Minor Head with 'Programmes', in the modern six-tier accounting structure used in Indian government accounting, the Minor Head is specifically used to codify the 'Scheme'.
Comparing the options:
- Option (a) Function is codified by the Major Head.
- Option (b) Programme is often a broader category, but the specific codification at the Minor Head level is for the Scheme.
- Option (c) Sub-function is codified by the Sub-Major Head.
- Option (d) Scheme is the correct designation for the Minor Head in the six-tier classification.
Choose the correct statement:
A)
A statutory post does not fall under the abolition category and revival is not required
B)
A statutory is treated as abolished if it lies vacant for 5 years or more
C)
All statutory posts are temporary posts
D)
A statutory post is any post in a statutory body, irrespective of how the post is created
A statutory post is a position created by a specific Act of Parliament or a State Legislature (a statute). Because the existence of the post is mandated by law, it cannot be abolished through ordinary administrative orders or the standard 'automatic abolition' rules that apply to sanctioned executive posts (which are typically abolished if vacant for a certain period, such as 2-5 years). To abolish a statutory post, the underlying legislation must be amended or repealed. Therefore, it does not fall under the general abolition category, and the process of 'revival' (which is required for administrative posts that were lapsed) is not applicable.
Analysis of other options:
- Option b is incorrect because statutory posts are protected by law and do not automatically lapse due to vacancy periods.
- Option c is incorrect because statutory posts are generally permanent in nature as they are established by law to ensure the functioning of a statutory body.
- Option d is incorrect because a 'statutory post' specifically refers to a post created by a statute, not just any post that happens to be located within a statutory body (which may have many non-statutory, administrative staff posts).
Electronic reverse auction may be used when:
A)
there is a competitive market and it is feasible to formulate a detailed prescription of the subject matter.
B)
the subject matter of procurement is rare, making it difficult to find local dealers
C)
the goods to be procured are urgently required
D)
the procuring authority is satisfied that only electronic goods are to be procured.
An Electronic Reverse Auction (e-RA) is a procurement process where sellers bid against each other to lower their prices for a specific set of goods or services. For an e-RA to be successful and fair, two primary conditions must be met: 1) A competitive market must exist so that multiple vendors are willing to compete on price, and 2) The subject matter must be clearly and detailedly defined (standardized specifications) so that bidders are quoting for the exact same product/service, making price the primary deciding factor.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: If the subject matter is rare or dealers are hard to find, there is no competition, which defeats the purpose of a reverse auction.
- Option c: Urgency usually leads to 'Direct Procurement' or 'Emergency Procurement' rather than a structured auction process which requires setup time.
- Option d: The 'electronic' in electronic reverse auction refers to the method of bidding (online), not the nature of the goods being procured. It can be used for non-electronic goods (e.g., stationery, construction materials) as long as they are standardized.