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Past Questions — 2024
The decrease in the general price level of goods and services is called
A)
Deflation
B)
Stagflation
C)
Devaluation
D)
Recession
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. The question asks for the term describing a decrease in the general price level of goods and services.
2. Deflation is defined as a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is the opposite of inflation.
3. Evaluating other options:
- Stagflation (b) is a condition characterized by slow economic growth, relatively high unemployment, and rising prices (inflation).
- Devaluation (c) is the deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country's currency relative to another currency or standard.
- Recession (d) is a period of temporary economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced, generally identified by a fall in GDP in two successive quarters.
Therefore, option (a) is the only correct term for a decrease in the general price level.
Who received best actor award in Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2024?
A)
Vicky Kaushal
B)
Shahrukh Khan
C)
Ayushman Khurrana
D)
Shahid Kapoor
At the Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards (DPIFF) 2024, Vicky Kaushal was honored with the Best Actor award for his critically acclaimed performance in the movie 'Sardar Udham'.
Analysis of options:
- a. Vicky Kaushal: Correct. He won the Best Actor award at the 2024 DPIFF.
- b. Shahrukh Khan: While a top actor, he did not win the Best Actor award at this specific event for 2024.
- c. Ayushman Khurrana: Not the recipient of the Best Actor award at the 2024 DPIFF.
- d. Shahid Kapoor: Not the recipient of the Best Actor award at the 2024 DPIFF.
Note: It is important to distinguish between the 'Dadasaheb Phalke Award' (India's highest award in cinema, given by the Government of India for lifetime contribution) and the 'Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards' (DPIFF), which is a separate annual award ceremony for specific performances. This question refers to the latter.
Which Organisation publishes worldwide list of endangered species?
A)
International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN)
B)
World Wide Fund for Nature(WWF)
C)
United Nation Environmnent Programme(UNEP)
D)
United Nations Development Programme(UNDP)
The correct answer is the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN publishes the 'IUCN Red List of Threatened Species', which is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF): While WWF is a major conservation organization that works to protect endangered species, it does not maintain the official global scientific list of extinction risks.
- c. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): UNEP is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda, but the specific task of listing endangered species is delegated to the IUCN.
- d. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP): UNDP focuses on sustainable development, poverty eradication, and democratic governance, rather than the biological classification of endangered species.
Thomas Cup is related to which among the following sports?
A)
Table Tennis
B)
Lawn Tennis
C)
Badminton
D)
Golf
The Thomas Cup is the world men's team championship in badminton. It is held every two years and is the counterpart to the Uber Cup, which is the world women's team championship in badminton.
Analysis of other options:
- Table Tennis: Major championships include the World Table Tennis Championships.
- Lawn Tennis: Major championships include the four Grand Slams (Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open) and the Davis Cup (men's team) and Billie Jean King Cup (women's team).
- Golf: Major championships include the Masters, U.S. Open, The Open Championship, and PGA Championship.
Who said ‘Live as if you were to die tomorrow, learn as if you were to live forever’?
A)
Swami Vivekananda
B)
Mahatma Gandhi
C)
Rabindranath Tagore
D)
BRAmbedkar
The quote 'Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever' is widely attributed to Mahatma Gandhi. It reflects his philosophy of mindfulness, urgency in living a virtuous life, and the lifelong pursuit of knowledge.
Analysis of other options:
- Swami Vivekananda focused on strength, spirituality, and the potential of the youth (e.g., 'Arise, awake, and stop not until the goal is reached').
- Rabindranath Tagore was a poet and philosopher known for his works on nature, humanity, and nationalism (e.g., Gitanjali).
- B.R. Ambedkar focused on social justice, equality, and the legal framework of India (e.g., 'Educate, Agitate, Organize').
Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
A)
Nepal
B)
China
C)
Maldives
D)
Afghanistan
SAARC stands for the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. It is an intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia. The current member states of SAARC are: 1. Afghanistan, 2. Bangladesh, 3. Bhutan, 4. India, 5. Maldives, 6. Nepal, 7. Pakistan, and 8. Sri Lanka.
Analyzing the options:
- Nepal (Option a) is a founding member of SAARC.
- Maldives (Option c) is a founding member of SAARC.
- Afghanistan (Option d) joined SAARC in 2007.
- China (Option b) is located in East Asia and is NOT a member of SAARC, although it maintains diplomatic relations with the member states.
To assist which country India launched ‘Operation Karuna’?
A)
Sri Lanka
B)
Myanmar
C)
Nepal
D)
Bangladesh
Operation Karuna was launched by the Government of India in May 2023 to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief (HADR) to Myanmar. This operation was initiated following the devastating impact of Cyclone Mocha, which hit the Myanmar coast. India dispatched Indian Navy ships (such as INS Aashirvad) and Indian Air Force aircraft to deliver essential supplies, including food, medicines, and water purification tablets, to the affected regions.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Sri Lanka: India launched 'Operation Karuna' in a different context historically, but the current affairs context of 2023-2024 refers specifically to the Myanmar cyclone relief.
- Nepal: While India frequently assists Nepal during earthquakes (e.g., Operation Maitri), 'Operation Karuna' was not the designation for Nepal relief.
- Bangladesh: India provides significant aid to Bangladesh during cyclones, but the specific name 'Operation Karuna' was assigned to the Myanmar mission.
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) will come into force with effect from 1 July 2024 throughout the territory of India and it will replace
A)
Indian Penal Code 1860
B)
Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
C)
Indian Evidence Act 1872
D)
Marriage Act 1947
The Government of India introduced three new criminal laws to modernize the justice system and replace colonial-era legislation. These laws came into effect on July 1, 2024.
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860. The BNS is the primary substantive law that defines offenses and prescribes punishments.
2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973. This is the procedural law.
3. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) replaces the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. This governs the admissibility of evidence.
Therefore, since the question specifically asks what the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaces, the correct answer is the Indian Penal Code 1860.
Who was the first Indian to win a grammy?
A)
Zubin Mehta
B)
Zakir Hussain
C)
Ravi Shankar
D)
Ali Akbar Khan
Pandit Ravi Shankar, the legendary sitar maestro, was the first Indian to win a Grammy Award. He won his first Grammy in 1967 for the album 'West Meets East', a collaboration with violinist Yehudi Menuhin.
Analysis of other options:
- Zubin Mehta: An acclaimed conductor of Indian origin, but not the first Indian to win a Grammy.
- Zakir Hussain: A world-renowned tabla player who has won multiple Grammys, but his wins came much later than Ravi Shankar's.
- Ali Akbar Khan: A master of the sarod who received significant international acclaim, but he was not the first Indian Grammy winner.
Where is Point Calimere located?
A)
Jammu and Kashmir
B)
Tamil Nadu
C)
Dadra & Nagar Havedi
D)
Kerala
Point Calimere is a prominent coastal landmark and a wildlife sanctuary located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It is situated at the southeastern tip of the mainland, specifically in the Nagapattinam district. It is well-known for being a critical nesting site for Olive Ridley sea turtles and as a sanctuary for migratory birds.
Analysis of other options:
- Jammu and Kashmir: Located in the northernmost part of India, it is a landlocked region with no coastline.
- Dadra & Nagar Haveli: This is a union territory located in the western part of India, but Point Calimere is specifically located on the eastern coast (Bay of Bengal).
- Kerala: Located on the southwestern coast (Malabar Coast) of India, whereas Point Calimere is on the southeastern coast.
Who was the first person to reach point Nemo?
A)
Chris Brown
B)
Hrvoje Lukatela
C)
Jules Verne
D)
Vilhjalmur Stefansson
Point Nemo is the oceanic pole of inaccessibility, the place in the ocean that is farthest from land. Because it is so remote, it is rarely visited. In 2009, a team of explorers led by Hrvoje Lukatela (a Croatian adventurer) successfully reached the exact coordinates of Point Nemo.
Analysis of other options:
- Chris Brown: A famous singer, not an explorer.
- Jules Verne: A novelist who wrote 'Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea'; while the name 'Nemo' is borrowed from his character Captain Nemo, Verne himself never visited the geographical Point Nemo.
- Vilhjalmur Stefansson: An Arctic explorer known for his work in the North Pole regions, not the South Pacific.
‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ (Digital Gateway) was launched by Shri Piyush Goyal to
A)
Prevent distress sale by farmers
B)
Provide financial assistance to small-scale farmers
C)
Facilitate access to healthcare services for rural farmers
D)
Promote Sustainable Development Goals
The 'e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi' is a digital gateway launched by the Government of India (introduced by Shri Piyush Goyal) specifically designed to provide a warehouse receipt financing system. The primary objective of this initiative is to allow farmers to store their produce in warehouses when market prices are low and use the warehouse receipts to obtain loans from banks. This prevents 'distress sales,' where farmers are forced to sell their crops immediately after harvest at very low prices due to a lack of storage facilities or immediate need for cash.
- Option (b) is incorrect because while it involves financing, it is specifically 'warehouse receipt financing' rather than general financial assistance.
- Option (c) is incorrect as the portal is related to agricultural commerce and finance, not healthcare.
- Option (d) is incorrect because while it may contribute to broader goals, the specific purpose of this portal is the prevention of distress sales through digital warehouse receipts.
An antibacterial enzyme present in saliva and tears is called
A)
Ribozyme
B)
Lipase
C)
Isomerase
D)
Lysozyme
The correct answer is Lysozyme. Lysozyme is a glycoside hydrolase enzyme found in secretions such as saliva, tears, and mucus. It acts as a primary defense mechanism of the innate immune system by attacking the cell walls of certain bacteria. Specifically, it catalyzes the hydrolysis of 1,4-beta-linkages between N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) in peptidoglycan, which causes the bacterial cell wall to rupture (lysis), thereby killing the bacteria.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Ribozyme: These are RNA molecules that have the ability to catalyze specific biochemical reactions, similar to protein enzymes, but they are not antibacterial agents in saliva.
- b. Lipase: These are enzymes that break down fats (lipids) into glycerol and fatty acids. While present in saliva (lingual lipase), their function is digestive, not antibacterial.
- c. Isomerase: These are enzymes that catalyze the structural rearrangement of isomers (converting one isomer into another) and do not possess antibacterial properties.
According to the recent Asian Development Bank report, what is the expected growth rate of the Indian economy in 2024?
A)
8.1%
B)
7.8%
C)
7.0%
D)
6.9%
In its 'Asian Development Outlook' (ADO) report released in early 2024, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) projected India's economic growth rate for the financial year 2024-25. The ADB forecasted a growth rate of 7.0%, citing strong domestic demand, a push in public investment, and a recovery in the services sector as primary drivers. While other institutions like the IMF or World Bank may provide slightly different figures, the specific ADB report referenced in the context of 2024 competitive exams points to 7.0%. Options a (8.1%), b (7.8%), and d (6.9%) do not align with the ADB's primary forecast for the 2024 period.
Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?
A)
Sixth Schedule
B)
Seventh Schedule
C)
Eighth Schedule
D)
Ninth Schedule
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It allows for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Regional Councils, granting them significant autonomy to make laws on land, forests, water, and village administration to protect the indigenous culture and rights of the tribal populations.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Seventh Schedule: Deals with the division of powers between the Union and the States via three lists (Union List, State List, and Concurrent List).
- Eighth Schedule: Lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
- Ninth Schedule: Was added to protect certain laws (primarily land reform laws) from judicial review.
Who is the exponent of the theory of economic drain of India during the British rule?
A)
Dadabhai Naoroji
B)
Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C)
Ram Manohar Lohiya
D)
Jai Prakash Narayan
The 'Drain of Wealth' theory was formulated by Dadabhai Naoroji, often referred to as the 'Grand Old Man of India'. In his seminal work, 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', Naoroji argued that a significant portion of India's national wealth was being transferred to Britain without any equivalent economic return. This 'drain' occurred through salaries, pensions, interest on public debt, and trade imbalances, which systematically impoverished the Indian economy.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale: While he was a prominent moderate leader and a political protégé of Naoroji, he did not originate the Drain theory.
- Ram Manohar Lohiya: He was a 20th-century socialist thinker and political leader, active long after the primary formulation of the Drain theory.
- Jai Prakash Narayan: He was a key figure in the socialist movement and the 'Total Revolution' in the 1970s, unrelated to the economic theories of the British colonial era.
Central Administrative tribunal deals with
A)
Recruitment matters
B)
Promotion matters
C)
Disciplinary matters
D)
Recruitment and service matters
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under Article 323-A of the Indian Constitution (inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976) and the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. Its primary purpose is to provide speedy and cost-effective justice to government employees.
1. Scope of Jurisdiction: The CAT adjudicates disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Union.
2. Why 'd' is correct: 'Recruitment and service matters' is a comprehensive term that encompasses all the other options. It includes recruitment (Option a), promotions (Option b), and disciplinary proceedings/actions (Option c), as well as issues related to pay, pensions, and transfers.
3. Why others are incomplete: Options a, b, and c are specific subsets of the CAT's jurisdiction. While the CAT does deal with recruitment, promotion, and disciplinary matters, selecting any one of them individually would be too narrow, as the tribunal's mandate covers the entire spectrum of service-related grievances.
Heinous offences includes the offcences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code or any other law in force is imprisonment for
A)
5 years or more
B)
7 years or more
C)
10 years or more
D)
12 years or more
Under the legal framework in India, specifically regarding the classification of crimes for the purpose of bail and judicial proceedings, 'Heinous Offences' are defined based on the severity of the punishment. According to the guidelines and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, as well as general criminal jurisprudence in India, a heinous offence is one for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or any other law in force is imprisonment for 7 years or more.
- Option (a) 5 years: This does not meet the threshold for 'heinous' classification.
- Option (b) 7 years or more: This is the correct legal threshold for defining heinous crimes.
- Option (c) 10 years: While these are heinous, the threshold starts at 7 years.
- Option (d) 12 years: While these are heinous, the threshold starts at 7 years.
The oath of office is administered to the Governor of a State by the
A)
Chief Justice of India
B)
President
C)
Prime Minister
D)
Chief Justice of the High Court
According to the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India. However, the oath of office and secrecy is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of that respective state. In the absence of the Chief Justice, the senior-most judge of that High Court administers the oath.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) Chief Justice of India: Administers the oath to the President of India, not the Governor.
- Option (b) President: Appoints the Governor but does not administer the oath.
- Option (c) Prime Minister: Has no constitutional role in administering the oath to a Governor.
- Option (d) Chief Justice of the High Court: This is the correct constitutional authority for administering the oath to the Governor.
Which constitutional amendment deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights?
A)
40th Amendment
B)
42nd Amendment
C)
43rd Amendment
D)
44th Amendment
The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Indian Constitution. However, it was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Following this amendment, the Right to Property was converted into a legal right under Article 300A, which states that 'no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.'
Analysis of other options:
- 40th Amendment: Not a primary amendment associated with this change.
- 42nd Amendment (1976): Known as the 'Mini-Constitution,' it introduced several changes including the addition of Fundamental Duties, but did not delete the right to property.
- 43rd Amendment: Not the amendment responsible for this change.
What is the minimum age required to be a Prime Minister of India?
A)
21 years
B)
25 years
C)
30 years
D)
35 years
To determine the minimum age for the Prime Minister of India, we must look at the requirements for membership in the Parliament. The Prime Minister must be a member of either the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
1. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Lok Sabha, the minimum age required under Article 84(a) of the Indian Constitution is 25 years.
2. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha, the minimum age required is 30 years.
Since the question asks for the 'minimum' age required to hold the office, we take the lower of the two thresholds. Therefore, a person who is 25 years old and a member of the Lok Sabha is eligible to be appointed as the Prime Minister.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 21 years: This is the minimum age to contest elections for local bodies (Panchayats/Municipalities) or to be a voter (18), but not for Parliament.
- Option (c) 30 years: This is the minimum age for the Rajya Sabha, but not the absolute minimum for the PM office.
- Option (d) 35 years: This is the minimum age required to be the President or Vice-President of India.
Which of the following river islands has been declared as India’s first island district?
A)
Little Andaman Island
B)
Barren Island
C)
Majuli Island
D)
Umananda Island
Majuli is a large river island located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam. In 2016, the Government of Assam officially declared Majuli as a district, making it the first island district in India. It is renowned for its unique Vaishnavite culture and is one of the largest river islands in the world.
Analysis of other options:
- Little Andaman Island: An island in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago, not a river island or a standalone district.
- Barren Island: The only active volcano in South Asia, located in the Andaman Sea; it is uninhabited.
- Umananda Island: A small river island in the Brahmaputra River (Guwahati), but it is not a district.
Who among the following coined the term ‘Protein revolution’?
A)
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B)
Narendra Modi
C)
Manmohan Singh
D)
PV Narasimha Rao
The term 'Protein Revolution' was coined by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He introduced this concept to emphasize the importance of diversifying India's agricultural focus beyond just cereals (the result of the Green Revolution) to include pulses, legumes, and livestock products. The goal of the Protein Revolution is to combat malnutrition and protein deficiency in the Indian population by increasing the production and accessibility of protein-rich foods.
- Option a (Atal Bihari Vajpayee), Option c (Manmohan Singh), and Option d (PV Narasimha Rao) are incorrect as they did not introduce this specific terminology or policy framework during their respective tenures.
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution is about
A)
Girl Education
B)
Tribal Education
C)
University Education
D)
Free and Compulsory Education
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. This right was inserted into the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making education a Fundamental Right. To implement this right, the Government of India enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) Girl Education: While the state promotes girl education through various schemes (like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao), there is no specific Article 21A dedicated solely to girls; it applies to all children regardless of gender.
- Option (b) Tribal Education: Education for tribal communities is addressed through various Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and specific welfare schemes, but not specifically by Article 21A.
- Option (c) University Education: Article 21A specifically covers primary education (ages 6-14). Higher or University education is not a fundamental right under this article.
Which of the following is incorrect:
A)
Gravitational force of attraction is independent of nature of intervening medium
B)
Gravitational forces are central forces
C)
Gravitational forces are non-conservative forces
D)
Gravitational force of attraction varies inversely as the square of the distance.
The question asks to identify the INCORRECT statement regarding gravitational force. Let's analyze each option based on the laws of physics:
1. **Option (a): Gravitational force of attraction is independent of nature of intervening medium.** This is CORRECT. Unlike electrostatic forces (which are affected by the permittivity of the medium), gravity acts the same regardless of whether there is air, water, or a vacuum between two masses.
2. **Option (b): Gravitational forces are central forces.** This is CORRECT. A central force is a force that acts along the line joining the centers of two interacting bodies. Gravitational force always acts along the line connecting the centers of mass of the two objects.
3. **Option (c): Gravitational forces are non-conservative forces.** This is INCORRECT. Gravitational force is a classic example of a CONSERVATIVE force. A force is conservative if the work done by it on an object moving between two points is independent of the path taken. For gravity, the work done depends only on the initial and final positions (height), not the path taken.
4. **Option (d): Gravitational force of attraction varies inversely as the square of the distance.** This is CORRECT. According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, F = G(m1m2)/r², meaning the force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) between the centers of the masses.
Since option (c) is the only false statement, it is the correct answer to the question.