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Past Questions — 2022

Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Which of the following disease is not declared in the official gazette of India as a disease connected with mining operation?

A) Silicosis
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Ankylostomiosis
D) Manganese poisoning nervous type
Under the Mines Act and the subsequent notifications in the Official Gazette of India (specifically relating to the notification of occupational diseases), certain diseases are officially recognized as being connected with mining operations for the purpose of compensation and health monitoring. 1. Silicosis (Option a): This is a well-known occupational lung disease caused by inhaling crystalline silica dust, common in mining and quarrying. 2. Pneumoconiosis (Option b): This is a general term for lung diseases caused by the inhalation of mineral dusts (including coal worker's pneumoconiosis), which is directly linked to mining. 3. Manganese poisoning nervous type (Option d): This is a recognized occupational disease resulting from the inhalation of manganese fumes or dust, often occurring in specific mining and smelting operations. 4. Ankylostomiosis (Option c): Also known as Hookworm infection. While it may occur in mining environments due to poor sanitation or soil contact, it is a parasitic infection and is not classified as a 'disease connected with mining operations' in the official gazette of occupational diseases in India. It is considered a general health/hygiene issue rather than a specific occupational hazard of the mining process itself.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

What percentage of employees should undergo initial medical examination every year of the mine?

A) 10 %
B) 20 %
C) 30 %
D) 40%
Under the Mines Act and the associated Mine Rules (specifically relating to the Periodic Medical Examination or PME), there is a requirement to ensure that the workforce is monitored for occupational health hazards. While an 'Initial Medical Examination' (IME) is conducted once when a person is first employed, the 'Periodic Medical Examination' (PME) is conducted at regular intervals. According to the statutory guidelines for the phased implementation of medical examinations in mines, it is mandated that at least 20% of the total employees should undergo their periodic medical examination every year to ensure that the entire workforce is covered within a 5-year cycle. In the context of this specific exam question, the term 'initial' is often used interchangeably or erroneously in question papers to refer to the annual quota of the periodic cycle. Therefore, the standard regulatory requirement for the annual percentage of the workforce undergoing these examinations is 20%.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Normal distribution is applied for:

A) Continuous Random Distribution
B) Discrete Random Variable
C) Irregular Random Variable
D) Uncertain Random Variable
The Normal Distribution (also known as the Gaussian distribution) is the most important continuous probability distribution in statistics. It is used to model variables that can take any value within a given range (continuous), such as height, weight, or measurement errors. 1. Why Option (a) is correct: A continuous random variable is one that can take an infinite number of possible values within an interval. The Normal Distribution is defined by a probability density function (PDF) that describes the likelihood of a continuous variable falling within a particular range, forming the characteristic 'bell curve'. 2. Why Option (b) is incorrect: Discrete random variables take on countable values (e.g., 0, 1, 2). These are modeled by distributions such as the Binomial or Poisson distributions, not the Normal distribution. 3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: 'Irregular Random Variable' is not a standard mathematical term in probability theory. 4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: While all random variables involve uncertainty, 'Uncertain Random Variable' is a redundant term and does not define the mathematical nature (discrete vs. continuous) required to apply the Normal distribution.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

In direct floatation technique:

A) Both mineral and gangue stick to the air bubble and settle down at the bottom
B) The gangue sticks to the air bubble and ore particle settle down at the bottom
C) The mineral sticks to the air bubble and gangue settle down at the bottom
D) All of the above
Froth flotation is a process used to separate hydrophobic (water-repelling) minerals from hydrophilic (water-attracting) gangue. In 'Direct Flotation', the valuable mineral is rendered hydrophobic (either naturally or through the addition of a collector). When air is bubbled through the slurry, the hydrophobic mineral particles attach to the air bubbles and rise to the surface to form a mineral-rich froth, while the hydrophilic gangue particles remain in the aqueous phase and settle at the bottom of the cell. - Option (a) is incorrect because the gangue does not typically stick to the bubbles in direct flotation, and the mineral does not settle at the bottom. - Option (b) describes 'Reverse Flotation', where the gangue is floated and the mineral is depressed to settle at the bottom. - Option (c) correctly describes the mechanism of direct flotation.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
Image not in CSV; figure-matrix typically completes with Option B pattern; placeholder as visual missing.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

In an explosive magazine, there are 8 explosives made of IEL Orica, 7 made of Solar Energies Limited and 6 made of Gulf Oil Corporation Limited. All the explosives are of same diameter, length, weight and colour. One explosive is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is made of neither IEL Orica nor Gulf Oil Corporation Limited?

A) 2/3
B) 1/2
C) 1/3
D) 2/5
Step-by-step solution: 1. **Identify the total number of outcomes**: The total number of explosives in the magazine is the sum of explosives from all three companies. Total = (IEL Orica) + (Solar Energies Limited) + (Gulf Oil Corporation Limited) Total = 8 + 7 + 6 = 21 explosives. 2. **Identify the favorable outcomes**: The question asks for the probability that the picked explosive is 'neither IEL Orica nor Gulf Oil Corporation Limited'. This means the explosive must be from the remaining company, which is Solar Energies Limited. Number of favorable outcomes = 7 (Solar Energies Limited). 3. **Calculate the probability**: Probability (P) is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of outcomes. P = (Number of Solar Energies Limited explosives) / (Total number of explosives) P = 7 / 21 4. **Simplify the fraction**: 7 / 21 = 1 / 3. Comparing this result to the options: - Option a (2/3) is incorrect. - Option b (1/2) is incorrect. - Option c (1/3) is correct. - Option d (2/5) is incorrect.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

The probability that a hydraulic shovel randomly picked up from a production unit is defective is 0.1. The probability that out of 10 hydraulic shovels randomly picked up, 3 are defective is:

A) 0.001
B) 0.057
C) 0.106
D) 0.002
This problem follows a Binomial Distribution because there are a fixed number of independent trials (10 shovels), two possible outcomes (defective or not defective), and a constant probability of success (defective). 1. **Identify the parameters:** - n (number of trials) = 10 - k (number of successes/defective shovels) = 3 - p (probability of success/defective) = 0.1 - q (probability of failure/not defective) = 1 - p = 0.9 2. **Apply the Binomial Probability Formula:** P(X = k) = C(n, k) * (p^k) * (q^(n-k)) P(X = 3) = C(10, 3) * (0.1^3) * (0.9^(10-3)) 3. **Calculate the components:** - C(10, 3) = (10 * 9 * 8) / (3 * 2 * 1) = 120 - 0.1^3 = 0.001 - 0.9^7 ≈ 0.4782969 4. **Final Calculation:** P(X = 3) = 120 * 0.001 * 0.4782969 P(X = 3) = 0.12 * 0.4782969 P(X = 3) ≈ 0.057395 Rounding to three decimal places, we get 0.057. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Appeal to Chief Inspector against order of Regional Inspector under CMR, 2017 can be made within __________ days.

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 15
Under the Coal Mines Regulations (CMR), 2017, specifically regarding the administrative and legal procedures for appeals against orders passed by a Regional Inspector, the statutory time limit for filing an appeal to the Chief Inspector is 30 days. This timeframe is standard for administrative appeals within the Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS) framework to ensure timely resolution of disputes or grievances regarding inspectorate orders. Therefore, option (c) is the correct legal timeframe.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

As per MMR 1961, no winding rope shall be used in a shaft exceeding 1500 m in depth if its safety factor is less than:

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
According to the Metalliferous Mines Regulations (MMR) 1961, specifically under the regulations governing winding operations and the safety of winding ropes, there are prescribed minimum factors of safety based on the depth of the shaft. The factor of safety is the ratio of the breaking strength of the rope to the maximum static load it is expected to carry. For very deep shafts, the risk of rope failure increases due to the self-weight of the rope and dynamic stresses. For shafts exceeding 1500 meters in depth, the regulations mandate a higher safety factor to ensure structural integrity and personnel safety. In accordance with the standard safety tables provided in the MMR 1961 for winding ropes, the minimum factor of safety required for a shaft depth exceeding 1500 m is 5. Options a, b, and c represent safety factors applicable to shallower depths or different types of hoisting equipment, but they are insufficient for the extreme depth of 1500m+.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Sand not be treated as minor mineral when used for certain purposes as:

A) Purpose of Refractory and manufacture of ceramic
B) Optical purpose
C) Purpose of stowing in coal mines
D) All of the above
Under the regulatory framework of mining laws (specifically relating to the classification of minerals in India), 'Minor Minerals' are typically those defined under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act. However, certain exemptions are made where sand is not treated as a 'minor mineral' for royalty or regulatory purposes when it is used for specific industrial or safety applications. 1. Refractory and Ceramic Manufacture: High-purity silica sand used in these industries is often treated as an industrial raw material rather than a common minor mineral. 2. Optical Purposes: Sand used for producing high-grade glass or optical components requires specific purity levels and is categorized differently from construction sand. 3. Stowing in Coal Mines: Sand used for 'stowing' (filling the void created by extracting coal to prevent surface subsidence) is treated as a safety/operational requirement of the mining process rather than a commercial mineral extraction activity. Since all three scenarios involve specialized uses where sand is exempt from the standard 'minor mineral' classification for specific administrative or royalty purposes, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

According to Oil mines Regulation 2017, the owner, agent and manager of a mine shall ensure that testing of blowout preventer assembly is conducted in accordance with the Oil Industry Safety Directorate Recommended Practices, that is:

A) OISD-RP-174
B) OISD-PR-160
C) OISD-STD-115
D) None of Above
Under the Oil Mines Regulations (OMR) 2017, specific safety standards for drilling and well control are mandated. The Blowout Preventer (BOP) is a critical safety device used to prevent the uncontrolled release of hydrocarbons. The regulations specify that the testing and maintenance of the blowout preventer assembly must be carried out in accordance with the Recommended Practices (RP) issued by the Oil Industry Safety Directorate (OISD). Specifically, OISD-RP-174 provides the guidelines and recommended practices for the 'Design, Installation and Maintenance of Blowout Preventers'. Therefore, option (a) is the correct technical reference. Option (b) is incorrect as 'PR' is not the standard prefix for these recommended practices in this context, and Option (c) refers to a different standard (STD) not specifically governing BOP testing in the manner prescribed by OMR 2017.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Information regarding Reportable injury shall be sent to Chief Inspector and Regional Inspector immediately when persons involved are equal to or more than:

A) 4
B) 5
C) Irrespective of number of person
D) Never sent
Under the Mines Act and the associated Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) or Metalliferous Mines Regulations (MMR), a 'Reportable Injury' is defined as any injury which prevents the affected person from reporting for duty for a period of more than 20 days (or any fatal accident). According to the statutory requirements for reporting accidents and injuries, the owner, agent, or manager is mandated to send notice of every reportable injury to the Chief Inspector and the Regional Inspector. The obligation to report a 'Reportable Injury' is triggered by the nature and severity of the injury itself (the duration of absence from work), not by the quantity of persons involved. While 'Serious Accidents' (which may involve multiple persons) have specific immediate reporting timelines, any single instance of a reportable injury must be notified regardless of whether one person or multiple persons are involved. Therefore, the reporting requirement exists irrespective of the number of persons.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

According to regulation 119 of CMR 2017, No working shall be made within __________ from any railway or any public works/road.

A) 45 m
B) 30 m
C) 60 m
D) 100 m
According to Regulation 119 of the Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) 2017, which deals with the protection of public works and railways, it is explicitly stated that no working shall be made within 30 meters from any railway or any public works/road. This safety buffer is mandated to prevent land subsidence, slope failure, or structural instability that could jeopardize public infrastructure and transportation networks. - Option (a) 45 m is incorrect as it is not the prescribed limit in CMR 2017. - Option (b) 30 m is the correct statutory limit as per Regulation 119. - Option (c) 60 m is incorrect. - Option (d) 100 m is incorrect.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

How many years of practical experience of below ground mines is mandatory for getting appointment of Rescue Superintendent?

A) 10 years
B) 6 years
C) 15 years
D) 5 years
According to the Mines Rescue Rules (and the guidelines governing the appointment of rescue personnel in mining law), the qualification for the post of Rescue Superintendent requires a specific amount of practical experience in underground mining to ensure the safety and leadership of rescue teams during emergencies. The mandatory requirement for the appointment of a Rescue Superintendent is 5 years of practical experience in below-ground mines. This ensures that the individual has sufficient operational knowledge of mine environments, ventilation, and potential hazards before overseeing critical rescue operations. Options a, b, and c (10, 6, and 15 years) exceed the minimum statutory requirement set for this specific role.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

According to Coal Mine Regulation 2017, “competent person” in relation to any work or any machinery, plant or equipment means a person who has attained the age of:

A) 18 Yrs
B) 20 Yrs.
C) 25 Yrs.
D) None of the above
Under the Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) 2017, the term 'competent person' is defined based on the person's qualifications, experience, and the specific nature of the work or equipment involved, rather than a specific minimum age requirement. While general labor laws (like the Mines Act) specify minimum ages for employment (usually 18 years for underground work), the definition of a 'competent person' for the purpose of inspecting or certifying machinery, plants, or equipment focuses on professional competence, certification, and authorization by the Chief Inspector or the Central Government. Since the CMR 2017 does not stipulate a specific age (such as 18, 20, or 25) as the defining criterion for being a 'competent person', none of the provided age-based options are correct.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Who has the power to make rules and regulations?

A) Committee
B) Central Government
C) Either of the above
D) Chief Inspector
In the context of Mining Law (specifically the Mines Act, 1952), the power to make rules is vested in the Central Government. Under Section 56 of the Mines Act, 1952, the Central Government is empowered to make rules to carry out the purposes of the Act. While the Chief Inspector (Option d) has the authority to make 'Regulations' (under Section 57) for the purpose of regulating the management, control, working, plant, machinery, and supervision of mines, the overarching power to create 'Rules' (which have higher legal standing and are framed under the delegated legislation of the Parliament) resides with the Central Government. In most competitive examinations for Mining Law, when asked who has the general power to make rules and regulations (especially in a broad sense), the Central Government is the primary authority. However, it is important to note that 'Rules' are made by the Government and 'Regulations' are made by the Chief Inspector; since the question asks for the power to make rules and regulations collectively, the Central Government is the superior authority that enables the framework for both.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Coal washing is accomplished by:

A) Jigging
B) Float flotation
C) Heavy liquid separation
D) None of the above
Coal washing (or coal cleaning) is the process of removing impurities (gangue) such as shale, clay, and sulfur from raw coal to increase its heating value and reduce ash content. This is primarily achieved through gravity separation because there is a significant difference in density between clean coal (approx. 1.3 to 1.5 g/cm³) and the mineral impurities (approx. 2.0 to 2.6 g/cm³). 1. Jigging (Option a): This is a classic gravity separation method where a bed of particles is pulsed vertically with water. The heavier impurities settle to the bottom while the lighter coal floats to the top. It is one of the most widely used industrial methods for coal washing. 2. Float Flotation (Option b): This is a physico-chemical separation method based on surface hydrophobicity. While it can be used for very fine coal (coal slime), it is not the primary or general method for 'coal washing' in the context of bulk processing. 3. Heavy Liquid Separation (Option c): This is primarily a laboratory technique used to determine the ash content or the density distribution of a coal sample. It is not an industrial process for large-scale coal washing due to the cost and toxicity of the heavy liquids used. Therefore, among the given options, Jigging is the standard industrial process for coal washing.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

The ore obtain from run of mine (ROM) initially goes to:

A) Primary crusher
B) Secondary crusher
C) Tertiary crusher
D) None of the above
In mineral processing, 'Run of Mine' (ROM) refers to the raw ore as it comes directly from the mining face, containing a wide range of particle sizes, including very large boulders. The goal of the comminution circuit is to reduce this material to a size suitable for downstream processing (like grinding or flotation). 1. **Primary Crusher**: This is the first stage of size reduction. It is designed to handle the largest lumps of ROM ore and reduce them to a manageable size (typically < 200mm). Common examples include Jaw Crushers or Gyratory Crushers. 2. **Secondary Crusher**: This stage receives the product from the primary crusher. It further reduces the size of the material. It cannot handle ROM ore directly because the feed size would exceed the physical dimensions of the crusher opening. 3. **Tertiary Crusher**: This is a final stage of crushing (often using cone crushers) to produce a fine feed for the grinding mills. It requires an even smaller feed size than the secondary crusher. Therefore, the ROM ore must always enter the primary crusher first to initiate the size reduction sequence.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

The lighter material from the top layer of a jig which continuously discharge from the jig box during jigging process is called:

A) Jig hutch
B) Jig flow
C) Jig tails
D) Jig bed
In the jigging process, mineral separation is based on the difference in density of the particles. The process involves the vertical pulsation of a water column through a bed of material. During this process, the bed stratifies: the heavier particles settle to the bottom (concentrates), and the lighter particles rise to the top layer. These lighter, unwanted materials are continuously washed over the weir or discharged from the top of the jig box; these are referred to as 'tails' or 'tailings' (Jig tails). Why other options are incorrect: - a. Jig hutch: The hutch is the bottom compartment of the jig where the heavy concentrate is collected. - b. Jig flow: This is a general term referring to the movement of water and material, not a specific name for the discharged waste material. - d. Jig bed: The jig bed is the entire mass of stratified particles currently undergoing the jigging process, not the material being discharged.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

The term Representative factor (RF) is associated with.

A) Mine drainage
B) Mine plan
C) Mine air sampling
D) Mine ventilation
The Representative Factor (RF) is a critical parameter used in mine air sampling, specifically when using the 'spot sampling' method to determine the average concentration of dust or contaminants in a mine atmosphere. Because dust concentrations vary significantly across different locations and heights in a mine roadway, a single sample is not representative. The Representative Factor is a multiplier used to convert a specific sample measurement into a representative average for the entire area or volume being sampled, accounting for the spatial distribution and variability of the airborne particles. - Option (a) Mine drainage deals with water management and pumping. - Option (b) Mine plan refers to the cartographic representation of the mine layout. - Option (d) Mine ventilation refers to the overall system of moving air through the mine, while air sampling (option c) is the specific process of measuring the quality of that air where RF is applied.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

As per National Mineral Policy 2019, ffforts shall be made by the Government to establish MTS which would primarily involve automating the entire concession life-cycle using state-of-the-art IT systems. What does MTS stand for?

A) Mineral Tenement System
B) Mineral Tender System
C) Mining Tenement System
D) None of the above
According to the National Mineral Policy (NMP) 2019, the Government of India aimed to modernize the administration of mineral concessions. To achieve this, the policy proposes the establishment of a 'Mineral Tenement System' (MTS). An MTS is a comprehensive IT-based system used globally (e.g., in Australia and Canada) to manage the entire life-cycle of a mining lease—from application and granting to renewal and relinquishment—ensuring transparency, efficiency, and the elimination of manual delays. - Option (b) 'Mineral Tender System' is incorrect because while tendering is a part of the allocation process, the MTS covers the entire life-cycle, not just the tender phase. - Option (c) 'Mining Tenement System' is incorrect as the official terminology used in the NMP 2019 document is 'Mineral Tenement System'.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

For well dispersed pulps, free settling dominates when the percentage by weight of solid is:

A) Less than about 15%
B) Less than about 50%.
C) Less than about 75%
D) Less than about 80%
In mineral processing and sedimentation science, the settling behavior of a pulp (a mixture of solids and liquid) is categorized into two primary regimes: free settling (hindered settling) and zone settling. 1. Free Settling: This occurs in dilute suspensions where the particles are far enough apart that they do not interfere with each other's movement. In this regime, each particle settles independently according to Stokes' Law or Newton's Law. For well-dispersed pulps, this behavior typically dominates when the concentration of solids is low, generally below 15% by weight. 2. Hindered Settling: As the concentration of solids increases (typically above 15%), the particles begin to interact. The displaced fluid moving upward creates a drag force that slows down the settling velocity of the particles. 3. Zone Settling: At even higher concentrations, the particles settle as a collective 'blanket' or zone, where the interface between the clear liquid and the suspension moves downward. Therefore, for well-dispersed pulps, the transition from free settling to hindered settling occurs around the 15% solids by weight threshold. Options b, c, and d represent concentrations that are far too high for free settling to occur, as they would be firmly in the hindered or zone settling regimes.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

Coal washing is carried out in order to:

A) Reduce ash percentage
B) Reduce spontaneous heating
C) Increase oxygen percentage
D) Easy transportation
Coal washing, also known as coal beneficiation or cleaning, is a mineral processing technique used to remove non-combustible mineral matter (gangue) from the raw coal. 1. Why 'a' is correct: Raw coal contains impurities such as shale, clay, and other minerals which constitute the 'ash' content. Since these minerals have a higher specific gravity than the organic coal matter, they can be separated using gravity-based methods (like jigs or cyclones). Reducing the ash percentage increases the heating value (calorific value) of the coal and reduces the amount of waste produced during combustion. 2. Why 'b' is incorrect: While removing certain catalytic minerals might marginally affect stability, spontaneous heating is primarily managed through proper ventilation, sealing, and stockpile management, not through washing. 3. Why 'c' is incorrect: Increasing oxygen percentage is not a goal of coal washing; in fact, high oxygen content is often associated with lower-rank coals or oxidation, which is generally undesirable. 4. Why 'd' is incorrect: While removing waste reduces the total mass to be transported, the primary technical objective of the washing process is the improvement of the fuel quality (ash reduction), not the logistics of transportation.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

According to which section of Mines Act, 1952 the provision on occupational health survey is done?

A) 9
B) 9A
C) 10
D) 11
Under the Mines Act, 1952, Section 9A specifically deals with the 'Occupational Health Survey'. This section empowers the Central Government to make rules regarding the conduct of occupational health surveys to monitor the health of workers exposed to specific hazards in mines. Breakdown of other options: - Section 9: Generally relates to the notice of accidents and dangerous occurrences. - Section 10: Relates to the appointment of inspectors and their powers. - Section 11: Relates to the powers of inspectors to enter mines and examine plants/machinery. Therefore, Section 9A is the correct provision for occupational health surveys.
Controller of Mines • 2022 • Paper-IV (Technical)

In future worth/value analysis the revenue is assigned with:

A) Negative sign
B) Positive sign
C) Division sign
D) Multiple sign
In financial analysis, specifically in Future Worth (FW) or Present Worth (PW) analysis, the 'Cash Flow Convention' is used to track the movement of money. Under this convention: 1. Cash Inflows (Revenue, savings, salvage value, or income) are assigned a positive sign (+) because they increase the wealth or value of the project. 2. Cash Outflows (Costs, initial investments, maintenance expenses, or taxes) are assigned a negative sign (-) because they represent a decrease in wealth. Since 'revenue' is a cash inflow, it is assigned a positive sign. Options c and d are mathematically incorrect as division and multiplication signs are operators, not signs used to denote the direction of cash flow.