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Past Questions
What is the name of a 78-year-old man in Mizoram who commutes 3 kilometres daily from his native Khuangleng village to New Hruaikawn village to attend his classes while wearing a school uniform and toting a bag full of books?
A)
Lalnunthara
B)
Lalpiangthara
C)
Lalremthara
D)
Lalringthara
Lalnunthara is a 78-year-old man from Mizoram who gained national and international attention for his inspiring dedication to education. He commutes daily from his native village, Khuangleng, to New Hruaikawn village to attend classes. He is well-known for wearing a school uniform and carrying a bag of books, embodying the philosophy that learning has no age limit. The other options (Lalpiangthara, Lalremthara, and Lalringthara) are distractors with similar-sounding Mizo names but are not the individual associated with this specific news story.
The Central government has amended the All-India Services (Death-cum-Retirement Benefits) Amendment Rules, 2023. With this, which of the followings has the authority to take action against IAS, IPS, and IFoS pensioners now?
A)
High Court
B)
Supreme Court
C)
Election Commission of India
D)
The Centre
The All-India Services (Death-cum-Retirement Benefits) Amendment Rules, 2023, were introduced by the Central Government to streamline the process of taking disciplinary action against retired officers of the All-India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS). Previously, the authority to initiate action against pensioners often resided with the state governments where the officers last served. Under the 2023 amendment, the Central Government (The Centre) has been empowered to take action against these pensioners, ensuring a more centralized and uniform mechanism for accountability and the withholding or withdrawal of pensions in cases of misconduct or corruption. Options a, b, and c are incorrect because the High Court and Supreme Court are judicial bodies that adjudicate disputes rather than initiate administrative disciplinary proceedings, and the Election Commission of India is a constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, not for managing the service benefits or disciplinary actions of civil servants.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas
A)
Methane
B)
Carbon dioxide
C)
Hydrofluorocarbons
D)
Nitrogen
Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are gases in Earth's atmosphere that trap heat. They allow sunlight to pass through the atmosphere but prevent the heat that sunlight brings from leaving the atmosphere.
1. **Methane (CH4)**: A potent greenhouse gas produced during the production and transport of coal, natural gas, and oil, as well as from livestock and other agricultural practices. (Incorrect option)
2. **Carbon dioxide (CO2)**: The primary greenhouse gas emitted through human activities, such as the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation. (Incorrect option)
3. **Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)**: Synthetic, powerful greenhouse gases used in refrigeration and air conditioning. (Incorrect option)
4. **Nitrogen (N2)**: Nitrogen makes up about 78% of Earth's atmosphere. It is a diatomic molecule with a very strong triple bond, making it chemically stable and unable to absorb infrared radiation. Therefore, it does not contribute to the greenhouse effect. (Correct option)
Right to vote” can be placed in which among the following categories?
A)
Fundamental Right
B)
Constitutional Obligation
C)
Fundamental Duty
D)
Legal Right
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Analysis of Right to Vote**: In the Indian constitutional framework, the right to vote is established by Article 326 of the Constitution, which provides for adult suffrage. However, the actual mechanism and the right to exercise this vote are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. **Why it is a Legal Right**: A legal right is one that is created and enforced by a statute (law). Since the right to vote is subject to conditions laid down by law (such as registration in the electoral roll, age requirements, and disqualifications under the Representation of the People Act), it is classified as a statutory or legal right rather than a fundamental right.
3. **Why not a Fundamental Right (Option a)**: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution and are justiciable directly in the Supreme Court under Article 32. The right to vote is not listed in Part III. While the Supreme Court has noted that it is a 'constitutional right' in some contexts, in the strict categorization of rights (Fundamental vs. Legal), it falls under Legal/Statutory.
4. **Why not a Constitutional Obligation (Option b)**: An obligation is a duty one is bound to perform. Voting in India is a right, not a mandatory legal obligation (there is no penalty for not voting).
5. **Why not a Fundamental Duty (Option c)**: Fundamental Duties are listed under Article 51A. Voting is not mentioned as one of the eleven fundamental duties of an Indian citizen.
Which Mizo folktale is associated with phaipheng?
A)
Kungawrhi
B)
Thailungi
C)
Rimenhawihi
D)
Chhura leh Nahaia
In Mizo folklore, 'Kungawrhi' is one of the most famous and poignant legends. The story revolves around a beautiful maiden named Kungawrhi who is captured by a powerful spirit or giant. A central element of this tale is the 'phaipheng' (a traditional Mizo bamboo instrument or a specific type of rhythmic sound/song associated with the narrative), which plays a crucial role in the communication or the tragic events surrounding her captivity and the attempts to rescue her.
Comparing the options:
- a. Kungawrhi: Directly associated with the phaipheng narrative.
- b. Thailungi: A different folk story focusing on different themes.
- c. Rimenhawihi: A tale of beauty and tragedy, but not primarily associated with the phaipheng.
- d. Chhura leh Nahaia: A story of friendship and wit, distinct from the phaipheng legend.
The Mizo believed that on the death of a man, his soul left him from the top of his
A)
neck
B)
leg
C)
head
D)
mouth
In traditional Mizo folk beliefs and ancestral customs, it was believed that upon the death of a person, the soul (thlarau) departed from the body through the crown of the head. This belief is rooted in the traditional Mizo understanding of the transition from the physical world to the afterlife (Mithikhu). Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the specific cultural and spiritual tenets regarding the exit point of the soul in Mizo tradition.
As per RBI reports, Indian banks wrote-off bad loans worth Rs 2.09 lakh crore during financial year
A)
2022-23
B)
2021-22
C)
2020-21
D)
2019-20
According to the data released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its annual reports and subsequent parliamentary disclosures, scheduled commercial banks in India wrote off bad loans (technical write-offs) amounting to approximately Rs 2.09 lakh crore during the financial year 2021-22. This figure represented a significant increase compared to previous years as banks sought to clean up their balance sheets.
- Option (a) 2022-23: The write-off figures for this period were different and reported later.
- Option (c) 2020-21: The write-off amount was lower than the Rs 2.09 lakh crore mark.
- Option (d) 2019-20: The write-off amount was significantly lower than the figure mentioned in the question.
Casey Phair became the youngest ever player to appear at the World Cup at just 26 days after celebrating her 16th birthday. She plays for
A)
Germany
B)
USA
C)
South Korea
D)
Mexico
Casey Phair is an American soccer player who made history during the 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup. She became the youngest player to ever appear in a Women's World Cup match when she came on as a substitute for the United States Women's National Team (USWNT) in their match against Spain. At the time of her appearance, she was 16 years and 26 days old, breaking the previous record. Therefore, she plays for the USA.
Which of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution are related to Right to freedom of Religion?
A)
Article 16 to 19
B)
Article 19 to 22
C)
Article 23 & 24
D)
Article 25 to 28
Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. The Right to Freedom of Religion is specifically guaranteed under Articles 25 to 28:
1. Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
2. Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
3. Article 27: Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
4. Article 28: Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) Article 16 to 19: Article 16 relates to equality of opportunity in public employment; Articles 19-22 relate to the Right to Freedom (Protection of life and personal liberty).
- Option (b) Article 19 to 22: These constitute the 'Right to Freedom' (e.g., freedom of speech, protection in respect of conviction for offences).
- Option (c) Article 23 & 24: These constitute the 'Right against Exploitation' (prohibition of traffic in human beings, forced labour, and child labour).
The depletion rate per unit of natural resource can be calculated as:
A)
Depletion rate = (Depletion base - salvage value)/total unit to be extracted
B)
Depletion rate = (Depletion base + salvage value)/total unit to be extracted
C)
Depletion rate = (Depletion base × salvage value)/total unit to be extracted
D)
Depletion rate = (Depletion base ÷ salvage value)/total unit to be extracted
Depletion is the accounting process of allocating the cost of extracting natural resources (such as minerals, oil, or timber) over the period they are consumed. To calculate the depletion rate per unit using the units-of-production method, the following logic is applied:
1. **Determine the Depletable Base**: This is the total cost of the resource minus its estimated salvage value (the value of the land or asset after the resource has been fully extracted).
2. **Calculate the Rate**: The depletable base is then divided by the total estimated recoverable units of the resource.
Formula: Depletion Rate = (Cost - Salvage Value) / Total Estimated Units.
Comparing this to the options:
- Option (a) correctly subtracts the salvage value from the depletion base (cost) and divides by the total units.
- Option (b) is incorrect because adding the salvage value would overstate the cost to be depleted.
- Option (c) and (d) are mathematically incorrect as multiplication and division of the base by the salvage value do not represent the cost allocation principle.
If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15, then three-tenth of that number is:
A)
35
B)
36
C)
45
D)
54
Step 1: Let the unknown number be represented by 'x'.
Step 2: Translate the first part of the problem into an algebraic equation. 'One-third of one-fourth of a number is 15' can be written as: (1/3) * (1/4) * x = 15.
Step 3: Simplify the equation: (1/12) * x = 15.
Step 4: Solve for x by multiplying both sides by 12: x = 15 * 12 = 180.
Step 5: Now, find 'three-tenth of that number'. This is calculated as: (3/10) * 180.
Step 6: Perform the calculation: (3 * 180) / 10 = 540 / 10 = 54.
Comparing this result to the options:
a. 35 (Incorrect)
b. 36 (Incorrect)
c. 45 (Incorrect)
d. 54 (Correct)
In an explosive magazine, there are 8 explosives made of IEL Orica, 7 made of Solar Energies Limited and 6 made of Gulf Oil Corporation Limited. All the explosives are of same diameter, length, weight and colour. One explosive is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is made of neither IEL Orica nor Gulf Oil Corporation Limited?
A)
2/3
B)
1/2
C)
1/3
D)
2/5
Step-by-step solution:
1. **Identify the total number of outcomes**: The total number of explosives in the magazine is the sum of explosives from all three companies.
Total = (IEL Orica) + (Solar Energies Limited) + (Gulf Oil Corporation Limited)
Total = 8 + 7 + 6 = 21 explosives.
2. **Identify the favorable outcomes**: The question asks for the probability that the picked explosive is 'neither IEL Orica nor Gulf Oil Corporation Limited'.
This means the explosive must be from the remaining company, which is Solar Energies Limited.
Number of favorable outcomes = 7 (Solar Energies Limited).
3. **Calculate the probability**: Probability (P) is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of outcomes.
P = (Number of Solar Energies Limited explosives) / (Total number of explosives)
P = 7 / 21
4. **Simplify the fraction**:
7 / 21 = 1 / 3.
Comparing this result to the options:
- Option a (2/3) is incorrect.
- Option b (1/2) is incorrect.
- Option c (1/3) is correct.
- Option d (2/5) is incorrect.
The probability that a hydraulic shovel randomly picked up from a production unit is defective is 0.1. The probability that out of 10 hydraulic shovels randomly picked up, 3 are defective is:
A)
0.001
B)
0.057
C)
0.106
D)
0.002
This problem follows a Binomial Distribution because there are a fixed number of independent trials (10 shovels), two possible outcomes (defective or not defective), and a constant probability of success (defective).
1. **Identify the parameters:**
- n (number of trials) = 10
- k (number of successes/defective shovels) = 3
- p (probability of success/defective) = 0.1
- q (probability of failure/not defective) = 1 - p = 0.9
2. **Apply the Binomial Probability Formula:**
P(X = k) = C(n, k) * (p^k) * (q^(n-k))
P(X = 3) = C(10, 3) * (0.1^3) * (0.9^(10-3))
3. **Calculate the components:**
- C(10, 3) = (10 * 9 * 8) / (3 * 2 * 1) = 120
- 0.1^3 = 0.001
- 0.9^7 ≈ 0.4782969
4. **Final Calculation:**
P(X = 3) = 120 * 0.001 * 0.4782969
P(X = 3) = 0.12 * 0.4782969
P(X = 3) ≈ 0.057395
Rounding to three decimal places, we get 0.057. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Annual return of a mine preceding year shall be submitted on or before __________ of every year.
A)
1st February
B)
14th January
C)
30th April
D)
31st October
Under the Metalliferous Mines Regulations (MMR) and Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) in India, the owner, agent, or manager of a mine is required to submit an annual return for the preceding calendar year. According to the statutory requirements (specifically Regulation 10 of MMR 1961 and corresponding provisions in CMR), the annual return must be submitted to the Chief Inspector or the Regional Inspector on or before the 1st of February of every year. This return contains critical data regarding production, manpower, safety records, and other operational statistics of the mine for the previous year. Options b, c, and d are incorrect as they do not align with the statutory deadline prescribed in the mining regulations.
Appeal to Chief Inspector against order of Regional Inspector under CMR, 2017 can be made within __________ days.
A)
10
B)
20
C)
30
D)
15
Under the Coal Mines Regulations (CMR), 2017, specifically regarding the administrative and legal procedures for appeals against orders passed by a Regional Inspector, the statutory time limit for filing an appeal to the Chief Inspector is 30 days. This timeframe is standard for administrative appeals within the Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS) framework to ensure timely resolution of disputes or grievances regarding inspectorate orders. Therefore, option (c) is the correct legal timeframe.
As per MMR 1961, no winding rope shall be used in a shaft exceeding 1500 m in depth if its safety factor is less than:
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5
According to the Metalliferous Mines Regulations (MMR) 1961, specifically under the regulations governing winding operations and the safety of winding ropes, there are prescribed minimum factors of safety based on the depth of the shaft. The factor of safety is the ratio of the breaking strength of the rope to the maximum static load it is expected to carry. For very deep shafts, the risk of rope failure increases due to the self-weight of the rope and dynamic stresses. For shafts exceeding 1500 meters in depth, the regulations mandate a higher safety factor to ensure structural integrity and personnel safety. In accordance with the standard safety tables provided in the MMR 1961 for winding ropes, the minimum factor of safety required for a shaft depth exceeding 1500 m is 5. Options a, b, and c represent safety factors applicable to shallower depths or different types of hoisting equipment, but they are insufficient for the extreme depth of 1500m+.
In Section 8 of The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, the maximum period for which a mining lease may be granted shall not exceed __________ years.
A)
Thirty
B)
Twelve
C)
Twenty
D)
Five
According to Section 8 of The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, which deals with the 'Period for which mining leases may be granted', it is explicitly stated that no mining lease shall be granted for a period exceeding thirty years. While the Act allows for the granting of leases for shorter durations, the statutory ceiling for the maximum period of a single lease grant is 30 years. Therefore, option (a) is correct, while options (b) Twelve, (c) Twenty, and (d) Five are incorrect as they do not represent the maximum legal limit prescribed under this specific section of the Act.
Identify the department from which the workmen’s Inspector is not considered:
A)
Mining
B)
Civil
C)
Electrical
D)
Mechanical
In the context of mining safety and legislation (specifically under the Mines Act and associated regulations), the 'Workmen's Inspector' is a representative chosen from the workforce to assist in safety inspections. The technical requirements for mining operations primarily revolve around the extraction process, the machinery used, and the power systems. Therefore, inspectors are typically drawn from the core technical departments: Mining (for excavation and strata control), Mechanical (for haulage, winding, and machinery), and Electrical (for power supply and lighting). Civil engineering, while used in the construction of surface infrastructure, is not considered a primary technical department for the appointment of a specialized Workmen's Inspector focused on the operational safety of the mine workings.
Sand not be treated as minor mineral when used for certain purposes as:
A)
Purpose of Refractory and manufacture of ceramic
B)
Optical purpose
C)
Purpose of stowing in coal mines
D)
All of the above
Under the regulatory framework of mining laws (specifically relating to the classification of minerals in India), 'Minor Minerals' are typically those defined under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act. However, certain exemptions are made where sand is not treated as a 'minor mineral' for royalty or regulatory purposes when it is used for specific industrial or safety applications.
1. Refractory and Ceramic Manufacture: High-purity silica sand used in these industries is often treated as an industrial raw material rather than a common minor mineral.
2. Optical Purposes: Sand used for producing high-grade glass or optical components requires specific purity levels and is categorized differently from construction sand.
3. Stowing in Coal Mines: Sand used for 'stowing' (filling the void created by extracting coal to prevent surface subsidence) is treated as a safety/operational requirement of the mining process rather than a commercial mineral extraction activity.
Since all three scenarios involve specialized uses where sand is exempt from the standard 'minor mineral' classification for specific administrative or royalty purposes, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.
According to Oil mines Regulation 2017, the owner, agent and manager of a mine shall ensure that testing of blowout preventer assembly is conducted in accordance with the Oil Industry Safety Directorate Recommended Practices, that is:
A)
OISD-RP-174
B)
OISD-PR-160
C)
OISD-STD-115
D)
None of Above
Under the Oil Mines Regulations (OMR) 2017, specific safety standards for drilling and well control are mandated. The Blowout Preventer (BOP) is a critical safety device used to prevent the uncontrolled release of hydrocarbons. The regulations specify that the testing and maintenance of the blowout preventer assembly must be carried out in accordance with the Recommended Practices (RP) issued by the Oil Industry Safety Directorate (OISD). Specifically, OISD-RP-174 provides the guidelines and recommended practices for the 'Design, Installation and Maintenance of Blowout Preventers'. Therefore, option (a) is the correct technical reference. Option (b) is incorrect as 'PR' is not the standard prefix for these recommended practices in this context, and Option (c) refers to a different standard (STD) not specifically governing BOP testing in the manner prescribed by OMR 2017.
What is the term of imprisonment for the inspector disclosing secret information?
A)
1 year
B)
2 years
C)
3 years
D)
6 month
Under the Mines Act, 1952 (and associated regulations governing the conduct of inspectors), there are strict provisions regarding the confidentiality of information. Specifically, if an Inspector, while performing their duties, discloses any secret information or confidential data obtained during the course of their inspection (such as proprietary technical processes or trade secrets of the mine owner) to an unauthorized person, they are liable for penalties. According to the legal provisions governing the misconduct of inspectors in this specific context, the term of imprisonment for such a breach of confidentiality is up to 6 months, or a fine, or both. Options a, b, and c represent longer durations typically reserved for more severe criminal offenses or systemic safety violations, whereas the disclosure of secret information by an official is categorized under a specific penalty bracket of 6 months.
Information regarding Reportable injury shall be sent to Chief Inspector and Regional Inspector immediately when persons involved are equal to or more than:
A)
4
B)
5
C)
Irrespective of number of person
D)
Never sent
Under the Mines Act and the associated Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) or Metalliferous Mines Regulations (MMR), a 'Reportable Injury' is defined as any injury which prevents the affected person from reporting for duty for a period of more than 20 days (or any fatal accident). According to the statutory requirements for reporting accidents and injuries, the owner, agent, or manager is mandated to send notice of every reportable injury to the Chief Inspector and the Regional Inspector. The obligation to report a 'Reportable Injury' is triggered by the nature and severity of the injury itself (the duration of absence from work), not by the quantity of persons involved. While 'Serious Accidents' (which may involve multiple persons) have specific immediate reporting timelines, any single instance of a reportable injury must be notified regardless of whether one person or multiple persons are involved. Therefore, the reporting requirement exists irrespective of the number of persons.
According to regulation 119 of CMR 2017, No working shall be made within __________ from any railway or any public works/road.
A)
45 m
B)
30 m
C)
60 m
D)
100 m
According to Regulation 119 of the Coal Mines Regulations (CMR) 2017, which deals with the protection of public works and railways, it is explicitly stated that no working shall be made within 30 meters from any railway or any public works/road. This safety buffer is mandated to prevent land subsidence, slope failure, or structural instability that could jeopardize public infrastructure and transportation networks.
- Option (a) 45 m is incorrect as it is not the prescribed limit in CMR 2017.
- Option (b) 30 m is the correct statutory limit as per Regulation 119.
- Option (c) 60 m is incorrect.
- Option (d) 100 m is incorrect.
What should be the maximum plotting errors of a plan made on 1:2000 scale?
A)
10 cm
B)
50 cm
C)
25 cm
D)
5 cm
In mining surveying and statutory plan regulations (such as those outlined in the Coal Mines Regulations or Metalliferous Mines Regulations), the permissible plotting error is defined based on the scale of the map. For a plan drawn to a scale of 1:2000, the standard permissible plotting error is 0.025 mm on the map, which translates to the ground distance.
Calculation:
1. Scale = 1:2000
2. Permissible plotting error for this scale is typically 0.125 mm (or based on the standard of 1 part in 8000 of the scale for certain statutory plans, but the industry standard for 1:2000 is 0.125mm).
3. Ground distance = Map distance × Scale factor
4. Ground distance = 0.125 mm × 2000 = 250 mm = 25 cm.
Therefore, the maximum allowable plotting error for a 1:2000 scale plan is 25 cm.
Mines Act 1952 not to apply where it is in opencast working the number of persons employed on any does not exceed?
A)
20
B)
40
C)
50
D)
100
According to Section 2 of the Mines Act, 1952, the Act applies to all mines. However, there are specific exemptions regarding the application of the Act based on the nature of the mine and the number of employees. Specifically, the Act does not apply to a mine if it is an opencast working and the number of persons employed therein on any day does not exceed 50. If the number of employees exceeds 50 in an opencast working, the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952, become applicable. Therefore, the threshold for non-applicability in opencast workings is 50 persons.