Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which section of the Indian Evidence Act provides about hostile witness?
A)
Section 134
B)
Section 148
C)
Section 154
D)
Section 155
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Section 154.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Facts which are the occasion, cause, or effect, immediately or otherwise of relevant facts are relevant. This provision has been mentioned under_________of the Indian Evidence Act.
A)
Section 7
B)
Section 8
C)
Section 9
D)
Section 10
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Section 7.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
The maxim ‘falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’ is
A)
A sound rule of law
B)
A sound rule of evidence
C)
Both (a) and (b)
D)
None of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: None of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Tape recorded conversation is relevant with certain precautions was laid down in case of
A)
R. M Malkani vs State of Maharashtra
B)
Dr.Prafulla Bala Desai vs State of Maharashtra
C)
Bhuboni sahu vs Emperor
D)
None of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: R. M Malkani vs State of Maharashtra.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
The Bhuboni Sahu vs The King is related with
A)
Accomplice
B)
Estoppel
C)
Privileged communication
D)
Conspiracy
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Accomplice.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to common design, is a relevant fact under ______________ of the Indian Evidence Act.
A)
Section 13
B)
Section 12
C)
Section 11
D)
Section 10
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: Section 10.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
The “plea of alibi” is relevant in _________of the Indian Evidence Act
A)
Section 9
B)
Section 10
C)
Section 11
D)
Section 12
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Section 11.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
The case Mirza Akbar vs Emperor is related with
A)
Dying Declaration
B)
Confession
C)
Relevancy of Conspiracy
D)
None of these
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Relevancy of Conspiracy.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Indian Evidence Act came into force on
A)
1st August,1872
B)
1st September 1872
C)
1st April 1872
D)
1st March, 1872
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: 1st September 1872.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Law of evidence is
A)
a substantive law
B)
a procedural law
C)
both (a) & (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: a procedural law.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Standard of proof in criminal cases is
A)
Preponderance of probability
B)
Beyond reasonable doubt
C)
Up to the satisfaction of the Court
D)
None of these
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Beyond reasonable doubt.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which among the following is not correct? Leading questions must not be asked
A)
If objected to by the adverse party
B)
In an examination-in-chief
C)
In a re-examination
D)
In cross examination
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: In an examination-in-chief.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which of the following types of evidence means ‘testimony’?
A)
Direct evidence
B)
Circumstantial evidence
C)
Both (a) and (b)
D)
None of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Direct evidence.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Under which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure,1973 an accused can himself be a reliable witness?
A)
Section 315
B)
Section 300
C)
Section 313
D)
Section 317
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Section 315.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Whoever consumes cocaine or morphine shall be punishable
A)
with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both
B)
w
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for taking cognizance by the Magistrate
A)
on police report filed under section 173 of the Code
B)
on complaint within the meaning of the section 2(d) of the Code
C)
Suo motu
D)
all of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: all of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Provision regarding lodging FIR has been mentioned in _______ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
A)
Section 154
B)
Section 158
C)
Section 164
D)
Section 172
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Section 154.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
A puts his hand in pocket of B for stealing money but pocket was empty. A is
A)
Guilty of theft
B)
Not guilty of theft
C)
Guilty of attempt to commit theft
D)
Not guilty of any offence
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Guilty of attempt to commit theft.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Wrongful restrain has been defined under________of the Indian Penal Code.
A)
Section 338
B)
Section 339
C)
Section 340
D)
Section 341
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 339.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Any claim preferred to, or objection made to the attachment of, any property attached under section 83 of the Cr.P.C, by any person other than the proclaimed person shall be filed
A)
within two months from the date of such attachment
B)
within three months from the date of such attachment
C)
within five months from the date of such attachment
D)
within six months from the date of such attachment
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: within three months from the date of such attachment.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Which among the following is not an essential of Criminal breach of trust?
A)
Misappropriation
B)
Negligence
C)
Entrustment
D)
Disposal of property
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Negligence.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Hurt has been defined under ________of the Indian Penal Code.
A)
Section 318
B)
Section 319
C)
Section 320
D)
Section 312
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 319.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Section 125 of the Cr. P.C is applicable to
A)
Hindus
B)
Muslims
C)
Christians
D)
All of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: All of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
The power to direct investigation by Magistrate has been provided under _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
A)
Section 155
B)
Section 156(3)
C)
Section 157
D)
Section 158(1)
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 156(3).
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
For abduction under the Indian Penal Code, an abducted person should be
A)
less than 16 years of age
B)
less than 17 years of age
C)
less than 18 years of age
D)
of any age
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: of any age.
