Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Sections 3 to 11 of the Limitation Act,1963 deals with
A)
the limitation of suit and appeals
B)
suit and applications
C)
suits, appeals and applications
D)
suit only
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: suits, appeals and applications.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Law of evidence is
A)
a substantive law
B)
a procedural law
C)
both (a) & (b)
D)
neither (a) nor (b)
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: a procedural law.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which of the following types of evidence means ‘testimony’?
A)
Direct evidence
B)
Circumstantial evidence
C)
Both (a) and (b)
D)
None of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Direct evidence.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
If a dumb witness gives witness in writing that is known as
A)
oral evidence
B)
documentary evidence
C)
circumstantial evidence
D)
none of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: oral evidence.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
An individual, being a citizen of India and having a capital of________crores of rupees or more in his business or profession can apply for grant of a license to issue Digital Signature Certificates.
A)
2
B)
5
C)
10
D)
15
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: 5.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
The res inter alia acta is receivable under__________of the Indian Evidence Act
A)
Section 45
B)
Section 46
C)
Section 47
D)
Section 48
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 46.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Information Technology Act shall not apply to
A)
a negotiable instrument as defined in section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
B)
a power-of-attorney as defined in section 1A of the Powers-of-Attorney Act, 1882
C)
a trust as defined in section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
D)
all of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: all of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Indian Evidence Act came into force on
A)
1st August,1872
B)
1st September 1872
C)
1st April 1872
D)
1st March, 1872
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: 1st September 1872.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which among the following is not correct? Leading questions must not be asked
A)
If objected to by the adverse party
B)
In an examination-in-chief
C)
In a re-examination
D)
In cross examination
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: In an examination-in-chief.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Which of the following safety measures are necessary for using credit card?
A)
Make online transactions only on secure, well established and reputed websites. Always ensure that the address of the website where transactions to be done, starts with ‘https://’.
B)
Change your card PIN (Personal Identification Number) periodically.
C)
Avoid using cyber cafes for Internet Banking purpose
D)
All of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: All of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • Law Paper-III
Who can suspend the license under the Information Technology Act 2000?
A)
Controller
B)
Certifying Authority
C)
ITO
D)
None of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Controller.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Under which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure,1973 an accused can himself be a reliable witness?
A)
Section 315
B)
Section 300
C)
Section 313
D)
Section 317
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Section 315.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Whoever consumes cocaine or morphine shall be punishable
A)
with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both
B)
w
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: with rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees; or with both.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for taking cognizance by the Magistrate
A)
on police report filed under section 173 of the Code
B)
on complaint within the meaning of the section 2(d) of the Code
C)
Suo motu
D)
all of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: all of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Provision regarding lodging FIR has been mentioned in _______ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
A)
Section 154
B)
Section 158
C)
Section 164
D)
Section 172
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: Section 154.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
A puts his hand in pocket of B for stealing money but pocket was empty. A is
A)
Guilty of theft
B)
Not guilty of theft
C)
Guilty of attempt to commit theft
D)
Not guilty of any offence
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Guilty of attempt to commit theft.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Wrongful restrain has been defined under________of the Indian Penal Code.
A)
Section 338
B)
Section 339
C)
Section 340
D)
Section 341
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 339.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Any claim preferred to, or objection made to the attachment of, any property attached under section 83 of the Cr.P.C, by any person other than the proclaimed person shall be filed
A)
within two months from the date of such attachment
B)
within three months from the date of such attachment
C)
within five months from the date of such attachment
D)
within six months from the date of such attachment
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: within three months from the date of such attachment.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Which among the following is not an essential of Criminal breach of trust?
A)
Misappropriation
B)
Negligence
C)
Entrustment
D)
Disposal of property
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Negligence.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Hurt has been defined under ________of the Indian Penal Code.
A)
Section 318
B)
Section 319
C)
Section 320
D)
Section 312
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 319.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
Section 125 of the Cr. P.C is applicable to
A)
Hindus
B)
Muslims
C)
Christians
D)
All of these
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: All of these.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
The power to direct investigation by Magistrate has been provided under _________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
A)
Section 155
B)
Section 156(3)
C)
Section 157
D)
Section 158(1)
This option matches the relevant definition, rule, or standard fact. Answer: Section 156(3).
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
For abduction under the Indian Penal Code, an abducted person should be
A)
less than 16 years of age
B)
less than 17 years of age
C)
less than 18 years of age
D)
of any age
This option is the correct choice under the stated facts or rule. Answer: of any age.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
In case of cognizable offences police can arrest the accused
A)
without warrant
B)
without warrant but prior permission of higher police offcer
C)
only with warrant
D)
none of these
This option matches the definition or rule stated in the question. Answer: without warrant.
Legal Service • 2016 • LAW Paper-II
What is the offence whereof the preparation is punishable?
A)
Theft
B)
Murder
C)
Dacoity
D)
Rape
This option is the applicable definition, provision, or relationship. Answer: Dacoity.
