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Past Questions

MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Who is designated as the head of the District Police under Para 47 of the Mizoram Police Manual?

A) District Magistrate
B) Superintendent of Police
C) Deputy Inspector General of Police
D) Officer In charge of Police Station
According to the Mizoram Police Manual, Para 47 specifically defines the administrative structure of the district police. The Superintendent of Police (SP) is designated as the head of the District Police. The SP is responsible for the general administration, discipline, and operational efficiency of all police personnel and police stations within the district. Why other options are incorrect: - a. District Magistrate: While the DM has overall law and order authority in the district (Executive Magistrate), they are not the head of the 'Police' force; they oversee the police in a supervisory capacity regarding law and order. - c. Deputy Inspector General of Police: The DIG is a higher-ranking officer who oversees a Range (comprising multiple districts), not a single district. - d. Officer In charge of Police Station: The OC (or SHO) is the head of a specific Police Station, which is a subordinate unit under the District Police headed by the SP.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Which of the following is NOT listed as a major penalty?

A) Removal from service
B) Reduction to a lower stage in the same time scale
C) Withholding increment with cumulative effect
D) Warning
Option D is correct: Warning.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

What does the term “Police Officer” include under Section 2 (1)(j) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011?

A) Any member of Mizoram Police constituted under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011
B) Any person appointed under any other law to perform police duties
C) Any member of Mizoram Police of the rank of Assistant Inspector of Police (ASI)and above
D) Any member of Mizoram Police Service (MPS)
Under Section 2 (1)(j) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the term 'Police Officer' is defined broadly to encompass any member of the Mizoram Police who has been constituted under the provisions of the said Act. - Option (a) is correct as it aligns with the statutory definition provided in the Act, ensuring that all personnel within the force, regardless of rank, are recognized as police officers for the purpose of the Act's application. - Option (b) is incorrect because while other laws may appoint persons to perform police duties, the specific definition under Section 2(1)(j) of this Act refers to the force constituted under the 2011 Act. - Option (c) is incorrect because the definition of 'Police Officer' is not restricted to the rank of ASI and above; it includes all members of the force. - Option (d) is incorrect because the Mizoram Police Service (MPS) refers to a specific cadre of officers, whereas the term 'Police Officer' under the Act is inclusive of the entire police force, including non-gazetted and subordinate ranks.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

The SDPO is responsible to the Superintendent of Police (SP) in respect of:

A) Only law and order matters
B) All aspects of police functioning in the subdivision
C) Only administrative matters
D) Only criminal investigation
Option B is correct: All aspects of police functioning in the subdivision.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for obstructing a police officer?

A) One month
B) Two months
C) Three months
D) Six months
Option C is correct: Three months.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Under the RTI Act, 2005, a “public authority” includes any authority, body, or institution of self-government established or constituted by:

A) Private contracts only
B) The Constitution, Parliament, State Legislature, or notification/order of the appropriate Government
C) Foreign governments only
D) Political parties only
Option B is correct: The Constitution, Parliament, State Legislature, or notification/order of the appropriate Government.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Under Section 19 of the Arms Act, who may demand the production of a licence from a person carrying arms or ammunition?

A) Any citizen
B) Any police officer or any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government
C) Only a Judicial Magistrate
D) Only the District Collector
Option B is correct: Any police officer or any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

According to Section 15 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the validity period of a firearm licence issued under Section 3 (unless revoked earlier)?

A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) 7 years
Option C is correct: 5 years.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

A major punishment may be imposed on a Police Officer only when:

A) The officer admits guilt
B) The Superintendent of Police approves it
C) A Departmental Enquiry has been conducted against the officer
D) A warning has been issued twice
Option C is correct: A Departmental Enquiry has been conducted against the officer.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

According to the Arms Act, “firearms” means arms designed or adapted to discharge a projectile by the action of:

A) Compressed air only
B) Mechanical force only
C) Any explosive or other forms of energy
D) Human force only
Option C is correct: Any explosive or other forms of energy.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

The General Diary (GD) is written in:

A) Duplicate with carbon paper
B) Single copy
D) Duplicate without carbon paper
Option A is correct: Duplicate with carbon paper.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

The objective of awarding punishment in the Police Force is primarily:

A) Only corrective in nature
B) Corrective in nature and secondarily a deterrent
C) Only deterrent in nature
D) Punitive in nature with no scope for correction
Option B is correct: Corrective in nature and secondarily a deterrent.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Who is the Chairperson of the Police Establishment Board?

A) Chief Secretary
B) Home Minister
C) Governor
D) Director General of Police
Option D is correct: Director General of Police.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Under the RTI Act, information concerning the life or liberty of a person must be provided within:

A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 48 hours
D) 24 hours
Option C is correct: 48 hours.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Under the RTI Act, 2005, within how many days must a first appeal be filed after receiving a response or upon the expiry of the prescribed time limit for receiving a response?

A) 21 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
Option D is correct: 30 days.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005 what does the acronym VCNB stand for?

A) Village Crime Notification Board
B) Village Criminal Network Bulletin
C) Village Crime Note Book
D) Verified Criminal Name Book
In the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the VCNB refers to the 'Village Crime Note Book'. This is a crucial record maintained at the village/police outpost level to track local criminal activities, history sheets of habitual offenders, and crime patterns within a specific village jurisdiction. It serves as a primary intelligence tool for the police to monitor local elements and maintain law and order. Options a, b, and d are incorrect as they are not recognized terminology within the administrative and operational framework of the Mizoram Police Manual.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

According to the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, what does the term “Internal Security” means?

A) Preservation of sovereignty and integrity of the State from disruptive and anti-national forces from within the State.
B) Any violent activity of a group using explosives, inflammable substances, firearms in order to achieve its political objectives.
C) Maintenance of public order during natural disasters.
D) Protection of the state from external military threats.
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, 'Internal Security' is specifically defined to address threats originating from within the borders of the state. 1. Option (a) is correct because it accurately reflects the legal definition of Internal Security, which focuses on preserving the sovereignty and integrity of the State against disruptive and anti-national forces operating internally. 2. Option (b) describes the definition of 'Terrorism' or 'Terrorist Acts' rather than the broader concept of Internal Security. 3. Option (c) refers to 'Disaster Management' or 'Public Order' during emergencies, which is a subset of police duties but not the definition of Internal Security. 4. Option (d) refers to 'External Security' or 'National Defense,' which falls under the jurisdiction of the Union Government (Ministry of Defence/Army) rather than the State Police Act.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

What is the meaning of “ Public place” under the ML(PC) Act, 2014?

A) Any private residence where liquor is consumed
B) Any public conveyance, hotel, shop, or any other place intended for use by, or accessible to the public
C) Only government-owned buildings
D) Any place where liquor is sold
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the term 'Public Place' is defined broadly to ensure the effectiveness of prohibition laws. 1. **Correct Option (b):** The Act defines a public place as any place that is intended for use by the general public or is accessible to them. This specifically includes public conveyances (buses, taxis), hotels, shops, markets, and open spaces. This broad definition allows law enforcement to penalize the consumption or possession of liquor in areas where it would be visible to or affect the general public. 2. **Incorrect Option (a):** A private residence is generally excluded from the definition of a 'public place' unless it has been converted into a commercial establishment or is otherwise accessible to the public. 3. **Incorrect Option (c):** While government buildings are public places, the definition is not limited 'only' to them; it encompasses any place (private or public ownership) that is open to the public. 4. **Incorrect Option (d):** While a place where liquor is sold (like an illegal den) may be a public place, the definition of 'public place' is based on accessibility and intent of use, not solely on the activity of selling liquor.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Under Section 11 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014, who has the authority to declare “dry days” in Mizoram?

A) The Chief Minister
B) The Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
C) The State Legislative Assembly
D) The District Magistrate
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the administration of liquor laws is centralized through the Excise and Narcotics department. Section 11 specifically empowers the Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics to declare 'dry days' (days on which the sale or supply of liquor is prohibited) by issuing a notification in the Official Gazette. - Option (a) The Chief Minister: While the CM heads the executive, the statutory power for this specific administrative function is delegated to the Commissioner. - Option (c) The State Legislative Assembly: The Assembly creates the law (the Act), but it does not handle the day-to-day administrative declaration of dry days. - Option (d) The District Magistrate: While the DM has significant enforcement and licensing powers under the Act, the authority to declare state-wide dry days rests with the Commissioner.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

What must be provided at every Police Station and Out Post?

A) Only a signboard
B) Only a notice board
C) A complaint register only
D) A notice board and a signboard
Option D is correct: A notice board and a signboard.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV

Which of the following is an exception to the inquiry requirement under Article 311(2)of the Constitution of India?

A) The employee requests retirement
B) The employee is absent without leave
C) The employee has been convicted on a criminal charge
D) The employee has completed 20 years of service
Option C is correct: The employee has been convicted on a criminal charge.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II

Under FR&SR, Administrator means:

A) an administrator of Union Territories and the Governor of Assam.
B) all the state Governors
C) Secretaries in the Central and State Governments
D) Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretaries
Option A is correct: an administrator of Union Territories and the Governor of Assam..
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II

The proviso to Rule 10 (7) of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 provides that review of suspension shall not be necessary if the Government servant continues to be under suspension due to:

A) detention in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise.
B) a disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated or is pending.
C) a case against him in respect of any criminal offence is under investigation, inquiry or trial
D) engagement in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the state.
Option A is correct: detention in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise..
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II

Travelling allowance shall not be drawn more than________ for any particular examination or standard of examination.

A) once
B) thrice
C) four times
D) twice
Option D is correct: twice.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II

A Government servant under suspension shall be entitled to:

A) one-third of his last salary drawn.
B) one-fourth of his last salary drawn.
C) his full salary.
D) a subsistence allowance at an amount equal to the leave salary.
Option D is correct: a subsistence allowance at an amount equal to the leave salary..