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Past Questions — 2025
Under the Arms Act, 1959(as amended in 2019), how many firearms is an individual permitted to possess?
A)
One
B)
Two
C)
Three
D)
Unlimited
Option B is correct: Two.
Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State?
A)
Article 310
B)
Article 311
C)
Article 312
D)
Article 309
Option D is correct: Article 309.
Which of the following statements about the All-India Services is correct?
A)
The All-India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament.
B)
The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All-India Services.
C)
The rules of recruitment to the All-India Services are determined by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
D)
The conditions of service to the All-India Services may be altered by the UPSC
Option A is correct: The All-India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament..
Under Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, which of the following does NOT constitute dereliction of duty by a police officer?
A)
Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification.
B)
Willfully absenting oneself from duty.
C)
Participating in an approved training program.
D)
Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty.
Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, deals with the 'Dereliction of Duty' by police officers. Dereliction of duty refers to the failure to perform one's legal or professional obligations.
1. Option (a) 'Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification' is a serious failure of statutory duty and constitutes dereliction.
2. Option (b) 'Willfully absenting oneself from duty' is a direct violation of discipline and duty, falling under dereliction.
3. Option (d) 'Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty' is a gross misconduct and a failure to maintain the professional standards required for duty, thus constituting dereliction.
4. Option (c) 'Participating in an approved training program' is a lawful order and a professional requirement for capacity building. Since the officer is performing a duty assigned by the department, it cannot be classified as a failure or neglect of duty (dereliction).
Which section of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, outlines the role, functions, and duties of the police?
A)
Section 30
B)
Section 39
C)
Section 40
D)
Section 59
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, Section 39 specifically delineates the 'Role, functions and duties of the police'. This section serves as the foundational mandate for police officers in the state, outlining their responsibility to maintain public order, prevent and detect crime, protect life and property, and ensure the overall security of the state.
- Section 30 generally deals with different administrative or procedural aspects not related to the core functional mandate.
- Section 40 typically follows the duties section and often deals with specific powers or limitations related to the execution of those duties.
- Section 59 pertains to other regulatory or penal provisions within the Act rather than the definition of the police's primary role.
What does “right to information” mean under Section 2(j) of the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
The right to access personal information of any individual
B)
The right to obtain information from private organizations
C)
The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form.
D)
The right to question public authorities in a court of law
Option C is correct: The right to information accessible under the Act, held by or under the control of any public authority, including the rights to inspect work, documents, records; take notes, extracts or certified copies; take certified samples of material; and obtain information in electronic form..
Under Section 25 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the punishment for unauthorized possession of prohibited arms or ammunition?
A)
Up to 5 years of imprisonment
B)
Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment
C)
Fine only
D)
6 months of imprisonment or fine
Option B is correct: Minimum 7 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
What is the meaning of “ Third Party “ under the RTI Act,2005?
A)
Any person other than the citizen making a request for information, including a public authority
B)
Any government official handling RTI applications
C)
Only foreign nationals
D)
Only private individuals not employed by the government
Option A is correct: Any person other than the citizen making a request for information, including a public authority.
Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act?
A)
President of India
B)
Chief Minister of the State
C)
Governor of the State
D)
Prime Minister of India
Option C is correct: Governor of the State.
Under the RTI Act, information concerning the life or liberty of a person must be provided within:
A)
7 days
B)
14 days
C)
48 hours
D)
24 hours
Option C is correct: 48 hours.
Under Section 20 of the RTI Act, 2005, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A)
The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 350 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 35,000.
B)
Before imposing any penalty, the Public Information Officer (PIO) must be given a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
C)
The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 250 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 25,000.
D)
The Information Commission may recommend disciplinary action against the PIO under applicable service rules.
Option C is correct: The Information Commission can impose a penalty of 250 per day for delays in providing information, up to a maximum of 25,000..
What is a “Bonded Warehouse” according to the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
A warehouse for storing perishable goods
B)
A warehouse where liquor is stored after paying duty
C)
A warehouse for storing confiscated liquor
D)
A licensed warehouse for storing liquor on which duty has not been paid.
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, a 'Bonded Warehouse' is a specific legal designation for a facility licensed by the government. The defining characteristic of a bonded warehouse is that it allows for the storage of liquor (or other excisable goods) without the immediate payment of excise duty. The duty is 'bonded' or deferred until the goods are removed from the warehouse for consumption or sale.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the nature of the goods (perishable) is irrelevant to the legal definition of a bonded warehouse.
- Option (b) is incorrect because if duty has already been paid, the warehouse is no longer 'bonded' in the legal/fiscal sense; it is simply a storage facility.
- Option (c) is incorrect because confiscated liquor is typically stored in government godowns or evidence rooms (Malkhana), not in a 'Bonded Warehouse' which is a commercial/regulatory licensing term.
Which of the following statements about the appointment and term of office of the Director General of Police (DGP)is/are correct? (1) The Director General of Police so appointed, unless superannuating earlier, shall have a minimum tenure of three years (2) The post of Director General of Police shall be the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service in the state.
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2
Step-by-step analysis based on the Mizoram Police Act 2011 and established police administration guidelines in India:
1. Analysis of Statement (1): According to the guidelines for the appointment of the Director General of Police (DGP) and the administrative framework adopted under the Mizoram Police Act 2011 (aligned with Supreme Court directives in the 'Prakash Singh' case), the DGP is generally provided a minimum tenure of two to three years to ensure stability in police administration and to prevent arbitrary transfers. Specifically, in the context of the state's police regulations, the provision for a minimum tenure (unless superannuated) is a standard requirement to maintain professional autonomy.
2. Analysis of Statement (2): By definition and legal structure, the Director General of Police (DGP) is the highest-ranking police officer in a state. The DGP serves as the head of the state police force and is the senior-most position in the hierarchy of the Police Service within that state.
Since both statements are factually and legally correct regarding the office of the DGP in Mizoram, the correct option is 'Both 1 and 2'.
What does “Wine” refer to in the context of the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
Fermented rice
B)
Fermented juice of apple, ginger, grape, guava, passion fruit, peach, pear or pineapple, or any other fruits
C)
Fermented millet, or other grain-based beverage
D)
Liquor containing alcohol obtained by distillation
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, specific definitions are provided to distinguish between different types of alcoholic beverages for the purpose of regulation and prohibition.
1. Option (b) is correct because the Act defines 'Wine' specifically as the fermented juice of various fruits (including apple, ginger, grape, guava, passion fruit, peach, pear, pineapple, or any other fruits).
2. Option (a) and (c) typically refer to 'Country Liquor' or traditional fermented beverages (like Zu) which are categorized differently under the Act's definitions of indigenous or grain-based liquors.
3. Option (d) refers to 'Spirit' or 'Distilled Liquor', which is alcohol obtained through the process of distillation rather than simple fermentation.
What is the meaning of “ Public place” under the ML(PC) Act,2014?
A)
Any private residence where liquor is consumed
B)
Any public conveyance, hotel, shop, or any other place intended for use by, or accessible to the public
C)
Only government-owned buildings
D)
Any place where liquor is sold
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the term 'Public Place' is defined broadly to ensure the effectiveness of prohibition laws.
1. Analysis of Option (b): This option aligns with the legal definition of a public place, which encompasses not only government property but any area—including commercial establishments like hotels and shops, or transport vehicles (public conveyances)—that is either intended for public use or is accessible to the general public.
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: A private residence is generally excluded from the definition of a 'public place' unless it is being used for commercial purposes or is open to the public.
3. Why Option (c) is incorrect: The definition is not limited to government-owned buildings; it includes private properties that serve a public function or are accessible to the public.
4. Why Option (d) is incorrect: While a place where liquor is sold is likely a public place, the definition of 'public place' is a general spatial definition and not limited solely to the act of selling liquor.
Who is responsible for keeping the keys of the Malkhana in a police station according to the Mizoram Police Manual,2025?
A)
Officer-in-Charge of the Police Station
B)
Head Constable
C)
Armourer
D)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer (SDPO)
According to the standard protocols outlined in the Mizoram Police Manual regarding the management of the Malkhana (the storehouse for case properties and seized items), the primary responsibility for the custody and security of the Malkhana rests with the Officer-in-Charge (OC) of the Police Station. While the actual physical handling or recording may be delegated to a subordinate (such as a Head Constable acting as the Malkhana Moharrir), the ultimate responsibility for the keys and the integrity of the store remains with the Officer-in-Charge to ensure accountability and prevent tampering with evidence. Option (b) is incorrect as the Head Constable manages the records but does not hold ultimate responsibility; Option (c) is incorrect as the Armourer is responsible for weapons, not general case property; Option (d) is incorrect as the SDPO provides supervisory oversight rather than daily custodial management of a specific station's Malkhana.
In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual,2005 the Khatian Register is also known as the:
A)
General Diary
B)
Crime Register
C)
Property Register
D)
Duty Roster
In the administrative and operational framework of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the 'Khatian Register' refers to the record used for the accounting and tracking of properties, exhibits, and seized items. In police terminology, a 'Khatian' (a term derived from land records but adapted for inventory in certain administrative contexts) serves as the Property Register to ensure that all case properties are documented, stored, and produced in court when required.
- Option (a) General Diary is the daily record of all events occurring at a police station.
- Option (b) Crime Register is used for recording the details of offenses and the progress of investigations.
- Option (d) Duty Roster is a schedule for the deployment of personnel.
What does Article 310 of the Constitution of India state about the tenure of persons serving the Union or a State?
A)
They hold office permanently unless removed by the President or Governor
B)
They hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor
C)
They can only be removed by a resolution passed by the Parliament or StateLegislature
D)
They hold office during the pleasure of the Supreme Court of India
Option B is correct: They hold office during the pleasure of the President or the Governor.
What is the main provision of Article 315 of the Constitution of India?
A)
It provides for the reservation of seats in public employment
B)
It deals with the procedure for impeachment of the President
C)
It provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States
D)
It outlines the powers of the Supreme Court
Option C is correct: It provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.
Consider the following statements: (1) Every offence punishable under the ML(PC)Act,2014 shall be non-cognizable. (2) Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, 2019 already replaced the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2
Step-by-step analysis:
1. Analysis of Statement (1): The statement claims that every offence under the ML(PC) Act, 2014 is 'non-cognizable'. In legal terms, a non-cognizable offence is one where a police officer cannot arrest without a warrant. However, under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the offences are specifically designed to be 'cognizable' to allow police officers to take immediate action, conduct searches, and make arrests without a warrant to effectively curb liquor trade. Therefore, Statement (1) is incorrect.
2. Analysis of Statement (2): The Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014 was the primary legislation for a period, but it was subsequently replaced by the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition) Act, 2019. The 2019 Act introduced stricter prohibitions and updated the legal framework for the state. Therefore, Statement (2) is correct.
Conclusion: Since only statement (2) is correct, the correct option is (b).
Consider the following statements: (1) Under Section 23 of the RTI Act, no court shall entertain any suit, application, or other proceedings concerning any order made under this Act (2) The Governor of Mizoram has designated all President of Village Councils within Aizawl, Lunglei, Champhai,Kolasib, Mamit, Serchhip, Hnahthial, Saitual and Khawzawl Districts as State Public Information Officers (SPIOs) within their respective jurisdictions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
None of the above
Step-by-step analysis:
1. Analysis of Statement (1): Section 23 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, explicitly states: 'No court shall entertain any suit, application, or other proceeding in respect of any order made under this Act.' This is a bar on the jurisdiction of civil courts to ensure that the statutory appeal mechanism (First Appeal and Second Appeal to the Information Commission) is followed. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
2. Analysis of Statement (2): Under the RTI Act, Public Information Officers (PIOs) are typically designated by the appropriate government or the head of the public authority. While Village Councils are 'Public Authorities' under Section 2(h), the designation of the President of every Village Council across all districts as a 'State Public Information Officer (SPIO)' by the Governor is not a standard legal procedure. SPIOs are usually appointed by the State Government (Department of Personnel/Administrative Reforms) or the specific Public Authority, not by a direct decree of the Governor for every village head. Furthermore, the administrative structure of Mizoram typically designates specific officers within the administration as SPIOs, while the Village Council may have its own PIO, but they are not designated as 'State' PIOs by the Governor in the manner described. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Conclusion: Since only Statement 1 is legally accurate according to the RTI Act 2005, the correct option is (a).
Consider the following statements: (1) Every offence under the Arms Act, shall be cognizable offence. (2) No prosecution shall be instituted against any person in respect of any offence under section 3 of the Arms Act without the previous sanction of the district magistrate. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
B)
Only 2
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
None of the above
Option C is correct: Both 1 and 2.
Under the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, which of the following statements about the Suspension of Police Officer is/are correct? (i) A member of a service may be placed under suspension from service, where an enquiry into grave charges against him is contemplated or is pending. (ii) A member of a service who is detained in custody whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period longer than twenty four hours shall be deemed to have been suspended under this rule.
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the rules regarding the suspension of police officers are designed to ensure administrative discipline and integrity.
1. Statement (i) is correct: A police officer/member of the service can be placed under suspension if there are grave charges against them and an official enquiry is either being contemplated (planned) or is already pending. This is a preventive measure to ensure that the officer does not influence witnesses or tamper with evidence during the investigation.
2. Statement (ii) is correct: This refers to 'Deemed Suspension'. Under the service rules applicable to the Mizoram Police, if a member of the service is detained in custody (whether in police custody or judicial custody) for a period exceeding 48 hours in some general service rules, but specifically under the Police Manual/Departmental guidelines for certain categories, the threshold for 'deemed suspension' is often triggered by detention. In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the provision that an officer detained for more than 24 hours is deemed to be suspended is a standard disciplinary clause to maintain the image and discipline of the force.
Since both statements accurately reflect the disciplinary procedures outlined in the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, option (c) is the correct choice.
What kind of entries are to be made in the Process Register as per the Mizoram Police Manual?
A)
Records of all FIRs received at the Police Station.
B)
All cases of unnatural deaths registered at the Police Station
C)
Information about warrants and summons issued and served.
D)
Daily Roll Call and Inspections at the Police Station
In the context of the Mizoram Police Manual and general police administration, the 'Process Register' is specifically designed to track 'legal processes'—which refers to the formal documents issued by a court of law. These include summonses, warrants of arrest, warrants of attachment, and proclamations. The register ensures a record of when the process was received from the court, who was assigned to execute it, and whether it was successfully served or returned unserved.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option (a) refers to the First Information Report (FIR) Register or the General Diary.
- Option (b) refers to the Inquest Register or the Case Diary for unnatural deaths.
- Option (d) refers to the Daily Diary or the Station Order Book/Roll Call register.
According the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, which of the following does not amount to punishment?
A)
Extra guard or fatigue duty
B)
Reprimand
C)
Black Marks
D)
Recovery from pay to meet loss of Government
Under the Mizoram Police Manual 2005 and general service rules governing police personnel, 'punishments' are specific disciplinary actions taken against an officer for misconduct or negligence.
1. Reprimand (Option b) is a formal expression of disapproval and is a recognized minor penalty/punishment.
2. Extra guard or fatigue duty (Option a) is a traditional form of disciplinary punishment specific to police/military organizations to instill discipline.
3. Black Marks (Option c) are entries made in the service record/character roll to denote a failure in duty or misconduct, which act as a disciplinary deterrent and affect promotions, thus amounting to a form of punishment.
4. Recovery from pay to meet loss of Government (Option d) is an administrative or financial recovery process. It is a compensatory measure to recoup a financial loss caused to the state; it is not a 'punishment' in the disciplinary sense, although it may follow a disciplinary inquiry. Recovery is a civil liability settlement rather than a penal action.