MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Which of the following services is not considered an All -India Service under Article 312?
A)
Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
B)
Indian Police Service (IPS)
C)
Indian Forest Service (IFS)
D)
Indian Revenue Service(IRS)
Option D is correct: Indian Revenue Service(IRS).
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Who is designated as the head of the District Police under Para 47 of the Mizoram Police Manual?
A)
District Magistrate
B)
Superintendent of Police
C)
Deputy Inspector General of Police
D)
Officer In charge of Police Station
According to the Mizoram Police Manual, Para 47 specifically defines the administrative structure of the district police. The Superintendent of Police (SP) is designated as the head of the District Police. The SP is responsible for the general administration, discipline, and operational efficiency of all police personnel and police stations within the district.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. District Magistrate: While the DM has overall law and order authority in the district (Executive Magistrate), they are not the head of the 'Police' force; they oversee the police in a supervisory capacity regarding law and order.
- c. Deputy Inspector General of Police: The DIG is a higher-ranking officer who oversees a Range (comprising multiple districts), not a single district.
- d. Officer In charge of Police Station: The OC (or SHO) is the head of a specific Police Station, which is a subordinate unit under the District Police headed by the SP.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
According to Article 309 of the Constitution of India, who may make rules regulating recruitment and conditions of service until the appropriate Legislature makes a law on the subject?
A)
The Supreme Court and High Courts
B)
The President for Union services and the Governor for State services (or persons directed by them)
C)
The Prime Minister and Chief Ministers only
D)
The Election Commission
Option B is correct: The President for Union services and the Governor for State services (or persons directed by them).
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
What does the term “Police Officer” include under Section 2 (1)(j) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011?
A)
Any member of Mizoram Police constituted under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011
B)
Any person appointed under any other law to perform police duties
C)
Any member of Mizoram Police of the rank of Assistant Inspector of Police (ASI)and above
D)
Any member of Mizoram Police Service (MPS)
Under Section 2 (1)(j) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the term 'Police Officer' is defined broadly to encompass any member of the Mizoram Police who has been constituted under the provisions of the said Act.
- Option (a) is correct as it aligns with the statutory definition provided in the Act, ensuring that all personnel within the force, regardless of rank, are recognized as police officers for the purpose of the Act's application.
- Option (b) is incorrect because while other laws may appoint persons to perform police duties, the specific definition under Section 2(1)(j) of this Act refers to the force constituted under the 2011 Act.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the definition of 'Police Officer' is not restricted to the rank of ASI and above; it includes all members of the force.
- Option (d) is incorrect because the Mizoram Police Service (MPS) refers to a specific cadre of officers, whereas the term 'Police Officer' under the Act is inclusive of the entire police force, including non-gazetted and subordinate ranks.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Under the RTI Act, 2005, a “public authority” includes any authority, body, or institution of self-government established or constituted by:
A)
Private contracts only
B)
The Constitution, Parliament, State Legislature, or notification/order of the appropriate Government
C)
Foreign governments only
D)
Political parties only
Option B is correct: The Constitution, Parliament, State Legislature, or notification/order of the appropriate Government.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Under Section 19 of the Arms Act, who may demand the production of a licence from a person carrying arms or ammunition?
A)
Any citizen
B)
Any police officer or any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government
C)
Only a Judicial Magistrate
D)
Only the District Collector
Option B is correct: Any police officer or any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Who is the Chairperson of the committee recommending appointments to the State Information Commission?
A)
Governor
B)
Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
C)
Chief Secretary
D)
Chief Minister
Option D is correct: Chief Minister.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
A major punishment may be imposed on a Police Officer only when:
A)
The officer admits guilt
B)
The Superintendent of Police approves it
C)
A Departmental Enquiry has been conducted against the officer
D)
A warning has been issued twice
Option C is correct: A Departmental Enquiry has been conducted against the officer.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
If a prosecution under Section 3 is instituted without the previous sanction of the District Magistrate, it would be:
A)
Automatically valid
B)
Valid if approved later by the police
C)
Contrary to the requirement of Section 39
D)
Punishable by a fine
Option C is correct: Contrary to the requirement of Section 39.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
The General Diary (GD) is written in:
A)
Duplicate with carbon paper
B)
Single copy
D)
Duplicate without carbon paper
Option A is correct: Duplicate with carbon paper.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act?
A)
President of India
B)
Chief Minister of the State
C)
Governor of the State
D)
Prime Minister of India
Option C is correct: Governor of the State.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Who is the Chairperson of the Police Establishment Board?
A)
Chief Secretary
B)
Home Minister
C)
Governor
D)
Director General of Police
Option D is correct: Director General of Police.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Information concerning alleged human rights violations must be provided within:
A)
30 days
B)
45 days
C)
35 days
D)
60 days
Option B is correct: 45 days.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Under the RTI Act, 2005, within how many days must a first appeal be filed after receiving a response or upon the expiry of the prescribed time limit for receiving a response?
A)
21 days
B)
7 days
C)
14 days
D)
30 days
Option D is correct: 30 days.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Under para 1029 of the Mizoram Police Manual, which of the following is NOT classified as a minor penalty that can be imposed on police personnel?
A)
Censure
B)
Removal from service.
C)
Reprimandation
D)
Punishment Drill
Under the disciplinary rules outlined in the Mizoram Police Manual (and aligned with general Civil Service Rules/FRSR), penalties are categorized into 'Minor' and 'Major' penalties.
1. Minor Penalties: These are typically corrective in nature and do not result in the loss of employment or significant permanent reduction in rank. Examples include Censure (a formal expression of disapproval), Reprimandation (a sharp rebuke), and Punishment Drill (specific to disciplined forces like the Police to instill discipline).
2. Major Penalties: These are severe punishments that affect the career status or livelihood of the personnel. 'Removal from service' is a major penalty as it terminates the employment relationship between the state and the individual. Other major penalties usually include compulsory retirement, reduction in rank, or dismissal from service.
Therefore, since the question asks which is NOT a minor penalty, 'Removal from service' is the correct answer as it is classified as a Major Penalty.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
According to the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, what does the term “Internal Security” means?
A)
Preservation of sovereignty and integrity of the State from disruptive and anti-national forces from within the State.
B)
Any violent activity of a group using explosives, inflammable substances, firearms in order to achieve its political objectives.
C)
Maintenance of public order during natural disasters.
D)
Protection of the state from external military threats.
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, 'Internal Security' is specifically defined to address threats originating from within the borders of the state.
1. Option (a) is correct because it accurately reflects the legal definition of Internal Security, which focuses on preserving the sovereignty and integrity of the State against disruptive and anti-national forces operating internally.
2. Option (b) describes the definition of 'Terrorism' or 'Terrorist Acts' rather than the broader concept of Internal Security.
3. Option (c) refers to 'Disaster Management' or 'Public Order' during emergencies, which is a subset of police duties but not the definition of Internal Security.
4. Option (d) refers to 'External Security' or 'National Defense,' which falls under the jurisdiction of the Union Government (Ministry of Defence/Army) rather than the State Police Act.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
The membership of the Village Defense Party (VDP) is characterized as:
A)
Temporary and remunerative
B)
Voluntary and honorary
C)
Mandatory and honorary
D)
Voluntary and salaried
The Village Defense Party (VDP) in Mizoram is a community-based organization designed to assist the police and administration in maintaining law and order, preventing crime, and managing emergencies at the village level. By definition and regulation, VDP membership is 'voluntary,' meaning individuals join of their own free will to serve their community, and 'honorary,' meaning they do not receive a professional salary or remuneration for their services. They act as a bridge between the rural populace and the state security apparatus, embodying the Mizo spirit of 'Tlawmngaihna' (selflessness). Options a, c, and d are incorrect because VDP members are neither salaried employees nor are they forced into mandatory service.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Under Section 11 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014, who has the authority to declare “dry days” in Mizoram?
A)
The Chief Minister
B)
The Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics
C)
The State Legislative Assembly
D)
The District Magistrate
Under the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014, the administration of liquor laws is centralized through the Excise and Narcotics department. Section 11 specifically empowers the Commissioner of Excise & Narcotics to declare 'dry days' (days on which the sale or supply of liquor is prohibited) by issuing a notification in the Official Gazette.
- Option (a) The Chief Minister: While the CM heads the executive, the statutory power for this specific administrative function is delegated to the Commissioner.
- Option (c) The State Legislative Assembly: The Assembly creates the law (the Act), but it does not handle the day-to-day administrative declaration of dry days.
- Option (d) The District Magistrate: While the DM has significant enforcement and licensing powers under the Act, the authority to declare state-wide dry days rests with the Commissioner.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
According to the provisions for the State Security Commission, who among the following is designated to serve as its Chairperson?
A)
The Leader of the Opposition in the State Assembly
B)
The Director General of Police
C)
The Home Minister
D)
The Chief Secretary
Option C is correct: The Home Minister.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
Which of the following is an exception to the inquiry requirement under Article 311(2)of the Constitution of India?
A)
The employee requests retirement
B)
The employee is absent without leave
C)
The employee has been convicted on a criminal charge
D)
The employee has completed 20 years of service
Option C is correct: The employee has been convicted on a criminal charge.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-IV
What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for obstructing a police officer?
A)
One month
B)
Two months
C)
Three months
D)
Six months
Option C is correct: Three months.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II
The proviso to Rule 10 (7) of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 provides that review of suspension shall not be necessary if the Government servant continues to be under suspension due to:
A)
detention in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise.
B)
a disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated or is pending.
C)
a case against him in respect of any criminal offence is under investigation, inquiry or trial
D)
engagement in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the state.
Option A is correct: detention in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise..
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II
Under FR&SR, Administrator means:
A)
an administrator of Union Territories and the Governor of Assam.
B)
all the state Governors
C)
Secretaries in the Central and State Governments
D)
Cabinet Secretary and Chief Secretaries
Option A is correct: an administrator of Union Territories and the Governor of Assam..
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II
Travelling allowance shall not be drawn more than________ for any particular examination or standard of examination.
A)
once
B)
thrice
C)
four times
D)
twice
Option D is correct: twice.
MPS Departmental • 2026 • Paper-II
A Government servant under suspension shall be entitled to:
A)
one-third of his last salary drawn.
B)
one-fourth of his last salary drawn.
C)
his full salary.
D)
a subsistence allowance at an amount equal to the leave salary.
Option D is correct: a subsistence allowance at an amount equal to the leave salary..