MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Who appoints the Central Chief Information Commissioner under the RTI Act, 2005?
A)
Prime Minister of India
B)
Chief Justice of India
C)
President of India
D)
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Option C is correct: President of India.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Exemption from disclosure of ‘Information’ is provided by-
A)
Section 6 of the RTI Act, 2005
B)
Section 7 of the RTI Act, 2005
C)
Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005
D)
Section 9 of the RTI Act, 2005
Option C is correct: Section 8 of the RTI Act, 2005.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Which of the following statements is not correct according to the RTI Act, 2005?
(1) The RTI Act, 2005 extends to the whole of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(2) ‘Competent Authority’ means the Chief Justice of India in the case of the Supreme Court.
(3) Third party means a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority.
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
1 & 2 above
Option D is correct: 1 & 2 above.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Which Article provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and the States?
A)
Article 311
B)
Article 312
C)
Article 315
D)
Article 313
Option C is correct: Article 315.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Para 50 (8) of Mizoram Police Manual, 2005 provides that Progress Report in Special Report cases should be submitted by the –
A)
Officer in-charge of the Police Station
B)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer
C)
Superintendent of Police
D)
Addl. Superintendent of Police
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, specifically under the guidelines for Special Reports (SR), the reporting hierarchy is strictly defined to ensure administrative oversight. Para 50 deals with the submission and monitoring of Special Reports. Sub-para (8) explicitly mandates that the Progress Report in Special Report cases must be submitted by the Superintendent of Police (SP) to the higher authorities (typically the Director General of Police or the Home Department). While the Officer-in-charge (OC) of the Police Station initiates the report and the SDPO supervises it, the formal responsibility for submitting the progress report of an SR case lies with the District Head of Police, which is the Superintendent of Police.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Consider the following statements:
(i) Arms Act, 1959 does not apply to arms or ammunition on board any sea-going vessel or any aircraft and forming part of the ordinary armament or equipment of such vessel or aircraft.
(ii) Arms Act, 1959 does not apply to the acquisition, possession or carrying, the manufacture, repair, conversion, test or proof by a member of the National Cadet Corps raised and maintained under the NCC Act, 1948.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
Option C is correct: Both (i) and (ii).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
According to Section 38 of the Arms Act, 1959, every offence under the Act is?
A)
Bailable
B)
Cognizable
C)
Non-Cognizable
D)
Non-bailable
Option B is correct: Cognizable.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Under Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the District SP or any Police Officer not below the rank of ___________, authorized in this behalf by the District SP may stop any assembly or procession which violates the conditions set under Section 128 and order such assembly to disperse.
A)
Inspector
B)
Sub-Inspector
C)
Asst. Sub. Inspector
D)
Deputy Superintendent of Police
According to Section 129 (1) of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, the authority to stop an assembly or procession that violates the conditions set under Section 128 is vested in the District Superintendent of Police (SP) or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector who has been authorized by the District SP for this purpose.
- Option (a) Inspector: While an Inspector is above a Sub-Inspector, the legal threshold for authorization under this specific section is set at the rank of Sub-Inspector.
- Option (c) Asst. Sub. Inspector: This rank is below the statutory requirement of a Sub-Inspector.
- Option (d) Deputy Superintendent of Police: While a DSP has the authority, the Act specifies the minimum rank required for authorization by the SP, which is Sub-Inspector.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Section 39 of the Arms Act, 1959 requires previous sanction of the ___________ before prosecuting a public servant.
A)
High Court
B)
Supreme Court
C)
District Magistrate
D)
District Court
Option C is correct: District Magistrate.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Police officers of and below the rank of ___________ are eligible for the award of Good Service Mark.
A)
Sub-Inspectors
B)
Inspector
C)
Asst. Sub. Inspector
D)
All ranks
In the context of Police Administration and the specific rules governing the Mizoram Police (and similar state police structures based on the Police Manual), 'Good Service Marks' (or Good Service Medals/Rewards) are typically awarded to non-gazetted officers to recognize long-term disciplined service and merit. According to the administrative guidelines for the award of Good Service Marks, officers of and below the rank of Inspector are eligible. This includes Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, Assistant Sub-Inspectors, and Constabulary ranks. Since the question asks for the upper limit of the rank eligibility ('of and below the rank of'), 'Inspector' is the correct threshold. Officers above the rank of Inspector (such as DySP and above) are generally governed by different reward systems or gazetted officer commendations.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
According to Sec 7 of the RTI Act, 2005, a request under Sec 6 of this Act shall be disposed within–
A)
30 days
B)
45 days
C)
60 days
D)
50 days
Option A is correct: 30 days.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Which of the following statements about ‘Suspension’ is not correct according to Section 92 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011?
A)
A police officer of or above the rank of SP may place a police officer of the rank of Sub-Inspector or below subordinate to him, under suspension.
B)
Every order of suspension passed shall be in writing, giving briefly the reasons.
C)
An order of suspension so made shall be reviewed every 60 (sixty) days by a Review Committee.
D)
Where an officer is placed under suspension, the authority competent to place him under suspension may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, direct that the officer shall continue to be under suspension until the completion of all or any of the proceedings against him.
According to Section 92 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, which deals with the suspension of police officers:
1. Option (a) is correct: A police officer of or above the rank of Superintendent of Police (SP) has the authority to place a subordinate officer of the rank of Sub-Inspector or below under suspension.
2. Option (b) is correct: The Act mandates that every order of suspension must be in writing and must briefly state the reasons for such action.
3. Option (c) is INCORRECT: Under Section 92, the review period for a suspension order is every 90 (ninety) days, not 60 days. Therefore, this statement is the 'not correct' statement requested by the question.
4. Option (d) is correct: The competent authority may, by recording reasons in writing, extend the suspension until the completion of the proceedings against the officer.
Since the question asks for the statement that is NOT correct, option (c) is the right answer.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
The tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a State is-
A)
Till they attain 62 years of age.
B)
During the pleasure of the President or the Governor.
C)
They hold office permanently unless removed by any Court.
D)
Till the contract between the Union or the state is effective.
Option B is correct: During the pleasure of the President or the Governor..
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
The Superintendent of Police shall be competent to grant cash reward of the amount up to-
A)
Rs. 2000/-
B)
Rs. 3000/-
C)
Rs. 1000/-
D)
Rs. 4000/-
In the context of Police Administration and the delegated financial powers within the Mizoram Police establishment, the Superintendent of Police (SP) is vested with the authority to grant small cash rewards for meritorious work or specific achievements in crime detection/prevention. According to the prevailing administrative guidelines and the Police Manual/Financial Rules applicable to the state police force, the SP is competent to sanction cash rewards up to a limit of Rs. 1000/-. Amounts exceeding this limit typically require the approval of the Director General of Police (DGP) or the State Government. Therefore, option (c) is the correct administrative limit for the SP's competency in this specific category of reward.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Under Sec 60 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014 any person failing to produce licence, permit or pass by licensee or his servant shall be liable to a fine of not less than-
A)
Rs. 1000/-
B)
Rs. 1500/-
C)
Rs. 2000/-
D)
Rs. 500/-
According to Section 60 of the Mizoram Liquor Prohibition (MLP) Act, 2014, it is mandatory for a licensee or their servant to produce the license, permit, or pass upon demand by an authorized officer. Failure to produce such documents constitutes an offense. The Act specifies that any person failing to produce the required license, permit, or pass shall be liable to a fine of not less than Rs. 500/-. Options a, b, and c are incorrect as they list higher amounts that do not correspond to the minimum fine stipulated under this specific section of the Act.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
Read the following statements carefully:
(i) The provision of limit of possession under Section 8 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014 does not include any foreign liquor which is in the lawful possession of any common carrier or warehouseman as such
(ii) The provision of limit of possession under Section 8 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014 does not include any local made liquor which has been purchased lawfully by any person for his bona fide private consumption and not for sale.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only (i)
B)
Only (ii)
C)
Both (i) and (ii)
D)
Neither (i) nor (ii)
Step-by-step analysis of the Mizoram Liquor (Prohibition and Control) Act, 2014:
1. Analysis of Statement (i): Section 8 of the ML(PC) Act, 2014, deals with the 'Limit of possession'. The Act specifies that the limits imposed on the possession of liquor do not apply to foreign liquor that is in the lawful possession of a common carrier or a warehouseman in their professional capacity (as such). Therefore, Statement (i) is correct.
2. Analysis of Statement (ii): The ML(PC) Act, 2014, is a prohibitionist act. While there are specific exemptions for certain types of liquor (like medicinal or diplomatic use) or specific limits for foreign liquor, the Act does not provide a general exemption from the 'limit of possession' for 'locally made liquor' (local brew/zu) simply because it was purchased for bona fide private consumption. In fact, the possession of locally made liquor is strictly regulated and often prohibited beyond very minimal quantities, and it does not share the same 'common carrier/warehouseman' exemption logic applied to foreign liquor in Statement (i). Therefore, Statement (ii) is incorrect.
Conclusion: Since only statement (i) is legally accurate according to the provisions of the Act, the correct option is (a).
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-IV
According to Para 236 the Mizoram Police Manual, 2005, the firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores and all other weapons at the Police Station shall be under the charge of the-
A)
Armourer
B)
Sub-Divisional Police Officer
C)
Sherista
D)
Officer in-charge of the Police Station
According to Para 236 of the Mizoram Police Manual 2005, the responsibility for the custody and management of weaponry at the station level is centralized under the administrative head of that unit. Specifically, all firearms, bayonets, pouches, stores, and other weapons kept at the Police Station are under the direct charge of the Officer-in-Charge (OC) of the Police Station. While an Armourer may handle the technical maintenance and a Sherista may handle clerical records, the legal and administrative accountability for the stores rests with the Officer-in-Charge. The Sub-Divisional Police Officer (SDPO) provides supervisory oversight but is not the primary custodian of the station's armory.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under the Indian Evidence Act, who is considered a competent witness?
A)
Only adults above 18 years
B)
Only literate persons
C)
Anyone who is capable of understanding and answering questions
D)
Only those who have taken oath
Option C is correct: Anyone who is capable of understanding and answering questions.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under Section 167, if improper evidence has been admitted or excluded, what should the court do?
A)
Automatically order retrial
B)
Ignore the mistake
C)
Reverse the judgment
D)
Examine whether the mistake affected the merits of the case
Option D is correct: Examine whether the mistake affected the merits of the case.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A woman reports sexual assault. The medical report supports her claim. Can the court presume the absence of consent under the Evidence Act?
A)
No, because presumption is not allowed in such cases
B)
Yes, under Section 114A
C)
Only if the woman is below 18 years
D)
Only after the accused is convicted
Option B is correct: Yes, under Section 114A.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that oral evidence must be direct?
A)
Section 59
B)
Section 60
C)
Section 61
D)
Section 65
Option B is correct: Section 60.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
A police officer arrests a person who later confesses in custody, leading to the discovery of stolen property. Which part of the confession is admissible in court under Section 27?
A)
The entire confession
B)
Only the confession made to a magistrate
C)
Only the part that leads to the discovery of the stolen property
D)
None of the confession is admissible
Option C is correct: Only the part that leads to the discovery of the stolen property.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
In which of the following circumstances is secondary evidence admissible in court?
A)
When the original document is available
B)
When the party seeks convenience
C)
When the original has been destroyed or lost
D)
When the court permits delay in producing original
Option C is correct: When the original has been destroyed or lost.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Under which Section is an expert opinion (e.g., forensic or handwriting analysis) admissible as evidence?
A)
Section 17
B)
Section 27
C)
Section 45
D)
Section 54
Option C is correct: Section 45.
MPS Departmental • 2025 • Paper-III
Which of the following is NOT a relevant fact under Sections 5-55 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A)
Motive or preparation for an offence
B)
The character of the accused when irrelevant to the charge
C)
Conduct of parties after the offence
D)
Facts necessary to explain or introduce a fact in issue
Option B is correct: The character of the accused when irrelevant to the charge.
