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Past Questions
Arrear claims of more than 2 years old require the sanction of Head of Office:
A)
True
B)
False
Option A is correct: True.
Physical verification of stores should be done atleast:
A)
Once in 6 months
B)
Once in 2 years
C)
Once in 5 years
D)
Once a year
Option D is correct: Once a year.
Single Tender Enquiry is resorted to when:
A)
Only a particular firm is manufacturer of required goods
B)
In case of emergency
C)
For standardization of machinery
D)
All of the above
Option D is correct: All of the above.
A government servant shall hand over his copy of the Service Book to his office for updation each year in:
A)
December
B)
March
C)
April
D)
January
Option A is correct: December.
Money received by departmental officers must be remitted into Treasury:
A)
On the same day or next working day
B)
Within 7 Days
C)
Within 15 Days
D)
At month end
Option A is correct: On the same day or next working day.
What is Contingent Expenditure?
A)
Expenditure on works
B)
Incidental and miscellaneous expenditure for running an office
C)
Salary expenditure
D)
Capital expenditure
Option B is correct: Incidental and miscellaneous expenditure for running an office.
Cash Book should be closed and balanced:
A)
Weekly
B)
Monthly
C)
Daily
D)
Yearly
Option C is correct: Daily.
The accounts of the Government of India are kept in:
A)
Consolidated Fund
B)
Contingency Fund
C)
Public Account
D)
All of these
Option D is correct: All of these.
Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) is normally:
A)
1% to 2% of estimated value
B)
2% to 5% of estimated value
C)
5% to 10% of estimated value
D)
10% fixed
Option B is correct: 2% to 5% of estimated value.
Insurance of Government property is:
A)
Mandatory for all assets
B)
Mandatory for vehicles only
C)
Mandatory for buildings only
D)
Not to be resorted to except in special cases
Option D is correct: Not to be resorted to except in special cases.
Retention of undisbursed pay & allowances is permissible for:
A)
1 Month
B)
3 Months
C)
6 Months
D)
One Year
Option B is correct: 3 Months.
The Head of Office should verify the cash balance in the cash book:
A)
Daily
B)
Regularly
C)
At the end of each quarter
D)
At the end of each month
Option B is correct: Regularly.
Budget estimates should be prepared on the basis of:
A)
Last year’s expenditure +10%
B)
What is expected to be actually spent under proper sanction
C)
Demands of subordinate offices
D)
Allocation by Ministry of Finance
Option B is correct: What is expected to be actually spent under proper sanction.
“Works” means:
A)
Construction of buildings
B)
Purchase of machinery
C)
Supply of stores
D)
New construction, repairs, additions, alterations of buildings, roads ,etc.
Option D is correct: New construction, repairs, additions, alterations of buildings, roads ,etc..
Government money should NOT be kept out of Government Account:
A)
True
B)
False
Option A is correct: True.
Who is responsible for preparation of Annual Accounts of the Union Government?
A)
Comptroller and Auditor General
B)
Controller General of Accounts
C)
Secretary, Ministry of Finance
D)
Finance Commission
Option B is correct: Controller General of Accounts.
Defacement of coins or currency notes by a Government servant is:
A)
Allowed for accounting
B)
Allowed with permission
C)
Permitted
D)
Prohibited
Option D is correct: Prohibited.
Which section of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, outlines the role, functions, and duties of the police?
A)
Section 30
B)
Section 39
C)
Section 40
D)
Section 59
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, Section 39 specifically delineates the 'Role, functions and duties of the police'. This section serves as the foundational mandate for police officers in the state, outlining their responsibility to maintain public order, prevent and detect crime, protect life and property, and ensure the overall security of the state.
- Section 30 generally deals with different administrative or procedural aspects not related to the core functional mandate.
- Section 40 typically follows the duties section and often deals with specific powers or limitations related to the execution of those duties.
- Section 59 pertains to other regulatory or penal provisions within the Act rather than the definition of the police's primary role.
According to the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, what does the term “Internal Security” means?
A)
Preservation of sovereignty and integrity of the State from disruptive and anti-national forces from within the State.
B)
Any violent activity of a group using explosives, inflammable substances, firearms in order to achieve its political objectives.
C)
Maintenance of public order during natural disasters.
D)
Protection of the state from external military threats.
Under the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, 'Internal Security' is specifically defined to address threats originating from within the borders of the state.
1. Option (a) is correct because it accurately reflects the legal definition of internal security, which focuses on protecting the sovereignty and integrity of the state against disruptive and anti-national elements operating internally.
2. Option (b) describes 'Terrorism' or 'Insurgency' rather than the broad definition of Internal Security.
3. Option (c) refers to 'Disaster Management' or 'Public Order' during emergencies, which is a subset of police duties but not the definition of internal security.
4. Option (d) refers to 'External Security' or 'National Defense', which falls under the jurisdiction of the Union Government (Ministry of Defence/Army) rather than the State Police Act.
Under para 1029 of the Mizoram Police Manual, which of the following is NOT classified as a minor penalty that can be imposed on police personnel?
A)
Censure
B)
Removal from service.
C)
Reprimandation
D)
Punishment Drill
Under the disciplinary rules outlined in the Mizoram Police Manual (and aligned with general Civil Service Rules/FRSR), penalties are categorized into 'Minor' and 'Major' penalties.
1. Minor Penalties: These are typically corrective in nature and do not result in the loss of employment or permanent reduction in rank. Examples include Censure (a formal expression of disapproval), Reprimandation (a sharp rebuke), and Punishment Drill (specific to police/paramilitary forces for maintaining discipline).
2. Major Penalties: These are severe punishments that affect the career status or livelihood of the employee. 'Removal from service' is a major penalty as it terminates the employment relationship. Other major penalties typically include compulsory retirement, reduction in rank, or dismissal from service.
Therefore, since 'Removal from service' is a major penalty, it is NOT classified as a minor penalty under the guidelines of the Manual.
Under Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, which of the following does NOT constitute dereliction of duty by a police officer?
A)
Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification.
B)
Willfully absenting oneself from duty.
C)
Participating in an approved training program.
D)
Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty.
Section 138 of the Mizoram Police Act, 2011, deals with the 'Dereliction of Duty' by police officers. Dereliction of duty refers to the failure to perform one's legal or professional obligations.
1. Option (a) 'Refusing to register an FIR without lawful justification' is a serious failure of statutory duty and constitutes dereliction.
2. Option (b) 'Willfully absenting oneself from duty' is a direct violation of discipline and duty, falling under dereliction.
3. Option (d) 'Found in a state of intoxication, while on duty' is a gross misconduct and a failure to maintain the professional standards required for duty, thus constituting dereliction.
4. Option (c) 'Participating in an approved training program' is a lawful order and a professional requirement for capacity building. Since the officer is performing a duty assigned by the department, it cannot be classified as a failure or neglect of duty (dereliction).
According to section 15 of the Arms Act, 1959, what is the maximum validity period of a firearm license issued under the Act?
A)
2 year
B)
3 years
C)
5 years
D)
7 years
Option C is correct: 5 years.
Which of the following statements about the Execution of Warrants is NOT correct according to the Mizoram Police Manual,2005?
A)
Execution of a warrant of arrest shall never be delayed.
B)
The Officer-in-Charge may endorse the warrant to some other Police Officer including a Constable.
C)
The person arrested shall be forwarded without unnecessary delay to the court before which he is required by law to be produced.
D)
A warrant after execution may not be returned to the issuing court.
According to the Mizoram Police Manual 2005 and the general principles of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) which govern the execution of warrants:
1. Option (a) is correct: Warrants of arrest must be executed promptly and without delay to ensure the administration of justice.
2. Option (b) is correct: The Officer-in-Charge (OC) of a police station has the authority to endorse a warrant to another police officer, including a Constable, for its execution.
3. Option (c) is correct: Legal mandates require that any person arrested under a warrant be produced before the issuing court or the nearest Magistrate without unnecessary delay.
4. Option (d) is NOT correct: This statement is legally false. Once a warrant has been executed (or if it has not been executed despite due diligence), it MUST be returned to the issuing court with a report detailing the execution or the reasons for non-execution. The return of the warrant is a mandatory procedural requirement to inform the court of the status of the order.
Under the Mizoram Police Manual, which of the following statements about the suspension of police personnel is NOT correct?
A)
A member of a service may be placed under suspension from service, where an enquiry into grave charges against him is contemplated.
B)
A member of a service may be placed under suspension from service, where a complaint against him of any criminal offence is under investigation.
C)
A member of a service who is detained in custody whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period longer than forty-eighty hours
D)
A member of a service who is detained in custody whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period longer than twenty-four hours
Option C is correct: A member of a service who is detained in custody whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period longer than forty-eighty hours.
Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State?
A)
Article 310
B)
Article 311
C)
Article 312
D)
Article 309
Option D is correct: Article 309.