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Past Questions
Famine hit Bihar in which year?
A)
1947-48
B)
1956-57
C)
1966-67
D)
1971-72
The Bihar famine of 1966-67 was a severe drought-induced food crisis that affected the state of Bihar. It was caused by a failure of the monsoon rains, leading to widespread crop failure and food shortages. This period is historically significant as it served as a catalyst for the 'Green Revolution' in India, prompting the government to adopt high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds and improved irrigation techniques to ensure food security and prevent such catastrophes in the future. Options a, b, and d do not correspond to major recorded famine events specifically hitting Bihar in the post-independence era of that magnitude.
Scoping is procedure of environmental issues.
A)
identifying
B)
impact
C)
physical impact
D)
Attributes
In the process of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), 'Scoping' is a critical early stage. Its primary purpose is to identify the key environmental issues, concerns, and potential impacts that need to be studied in detail during the full EIA process. By 'identifying' these issues, the scoping process ensures that the assessment focuses on the most significant impacts and avoids wasting resources on insignificant ones.
- Option (a) 'identifying' is correct because scoping is essentially the process of identifying the spatial and temporal boundaries of the study and the specific environmental parameters to be analyzed.
- Option (b) 'impact' is incorrect because scoping is the process used to determine *which* impacts to study, not the impact itself.
- Option (c) 'physical impact' is too narrow, as scoping covers biological, social, and economic issues as well.
- Option (d) 'Attributes' is a general term and does not describe the procedural action of scoping.
Difference in elevation levels can be determined by using
A)
Chaining
B)
Vertical staff
C)
Levelling staff
D)
Level telescope
In surveying, 'levelling' is the process of determining the difference in elevation between two or more points. This is achieved using a combination of a levelling instrument (like a dumpy level or auto level) and a levelling staff. The levelling staff is a graduated rod held vertically on the point of interest; the instrument reads the height on this staff to determine the relative elevation.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Chaining: This is used for measuring horizontal distances, not vertical elevations.
- b. Vertical staff: While the staff is held vertically, the technical term for the equipment used in this process is a 'levelling staff'.
- d. Level telescope: The telescope is a component of the levelling instrument used to sight the staff, but the telescope alone cannot determine elevation; it requires the graduated readings provided by the levelling staff to calculate the difference in levels.
Scale and severity of impact is determined by whether it is
A)
Development
B)
reversible
C)
adverse
D)
reversible or irreversible
In Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), the 'scale' and 'severity' of an impact are critical parameters used to evaluate the significance of a project's effect on the environment. Severity is often determined by the duration and the permanence of the impact. An impact is considered more severe if it is 'irreversible' (meaning the environment cannot return to its original state even after the project is completed or mitigation is applied) compared to a 'reversible' impact (where the environment can recover). While 'adverse' (option c) describes the nature of the impact (negative), the scale and severity specifically look at the magnitude and the ability of the system to recover, which is defined by whether the change is reversible or irreversible. Therefore, option (d) is the most comprehensive answer as it addresses the fundamental criterion for determining severity in EIA matrices.
Which of the following is not a part of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna (PMAY)?
A)
Urban Infrastructure Development
B)
Affordable housing through credit link subsidy
C)
Affordable housing in partnership
D)
Subsidy for Beneficiary-led construction
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), specifically the Urban component (PMAY-U), is designed to provide 'Housing for All'. It consists of four primary vertical pillars: 1. In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR), 2. Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) - which matches option (b), 3. Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP) - which matches option (c), and 4. Beneficiary-led Construction (BLC) - which matches option (d). While PMAY focuses on the housing unit and the immediate environment of the beneficiary, 'Urban Infrastructure Development' (such as large-scale roads, sewage systems, and city-wide utilities) is generally handled by other schemes like AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) or Smart Cities Mission, rather than being a core component of the PMAY housing subsidy framework.
EIA is study of probable change in socio economic and characteristics of environment due to proposed action.
A)
Biophysical
B)
Geological
C)
Hydrological
D)
Potential
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a formal process used to predict the environmental consequences of a proposed project. A standard definition of EIA describes it as the study of the probable changes in the socio-economic and biophysical characteristics of the environment due to a proposed action.
1. Why 'Biophysical' is correct: The environment consists of two primary components: the biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) factors. Together, these are termed 'biophysical' characteristics. This encompasses air quality, water quality, flora, fauna, soil, and land use, alongside the socio-economic impacts on human populations.
2. Why other options are incorrect:
- 'Geological' (b) and 'Hydrological' (c) are too narrow. While geology (rocks/soil) and hydrology (water) are parts of the environment, they are subsets of the broader biophysical environment. An EIA must cover all biological and physical aspects, not just one.
- 'Potential' (d) is an adjective describing the changes, but it does not describe the 'characteristics of the environment' themselves.
Hierarchical housing grades are
A)
EWG LIG, HIG, MIG
B)
LIG HIG MIG, BPL
C)
EWS, LIG, MIG, HIG
D)
EWS, HIG, MIG, LIG
In housing economics and urban planning (particularly in the Indian context used for Town Planning exams), housing is categorized into hierarchical grades based on the income levels of the target occupants. The standard hierarchy, from lowest to highest income, is:
1. EWS (Economically Weaker Section): The lowest income group, often eligible for government subsidies or free housing.
2. LIG (Low Income Group): Households with low income who can afford basic housing with some assistance.
3. MIG (Middle Income Group): Households with moderate income levels.
4. HIG (High Income Group): Households with high income levels who can afford luxury or premium housing.
Option (c) lists these in the correct ascending hierarchical order. Option (a) uses 'EWG' (incorrect term) and is out of order. Option (b) includes 'BPL' (Below Poverty Line), which is a socio-economic classification for welfare schemes rather than a standard housing grade. Option (d) lists the categories in a random, non-hierarchical order.
Which North-eastern has the highest contribution in the national GDP?
A)
Assam
B)
Mizoram
C)
Sikkim
D)
Meghalaya
To determine which North-eastern state has the highest contribution to the national GDP, we look at the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of the states in the region. Assam is the largest state in the North-East both in terms of population and land area, and it possesses the most diversified economy. Assam's economy is driven by tea production, oil and natural gas reserves, and a significant services sector, making its GSDP substantially higher than that of the other North-eastern states (the 'Seven Sisters' and Sikkim). While Sikkim often has a high GDP per capita due to its small population, in terms of absolute contribution to the national GDP (total value), Assam consistently ranks first in the region.
Which North-eastern state has the highest population density?
A)
Meghalaya
B)
Arunachal Pradesh
C)
Assam
D)
Mizoram
Population density is calculated as the total population divided by the total land area. Based on the 2011 Census of India (the standard reference for such competitive exams), the population densities of the North-eastern states are as follows:
1. Assam: Approximately 398 persons per sq km (Highest).
2. Mizoram: Approximately 134 persons per sq km.
3. Meghalaya: Approximately 128 persons per sq km.
4. Arunachal Pradesh: Approximately 17 persons per sq km (Lowest).
Assam has the highest population density due to its fertile plains (Brahmaputra valley) and larger population base compared to the other hilly states of the North-east. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest density due to its rugged mountainous terrain and vast forest cover.
Which of the following state has the lowest density of population?
A)
Haryana
B)
Rajasthan
C)
Mizoram
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
Population density is calculated as the number of persons per square kilometer. Based on the Census of India 2011 (which is the standard reference for most competitive exams unless specified otherwise), the population densities of the given states are as follows:
1. Arunachal Pradesh: 17 persons per sq km (Lowest in India).
2. Mizoram: 42 persons per sq km.
3. Rajasthan: 200 persons per sq km.
4. Haryana: 573 persons per sq km.
Comparing these values, Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density due to its rugged mountainous terrain, dense forest cover, and challenging geographical conditions, which limit large-scale human settlement. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are the primary causes of water pollution?
A)
Plants
B)
Animals
C)
Human activities
D)
None of these
Water pollution is defined as the contamination of water bodies (such as lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater) usually as a result of human activities.
1. Why 'Human activities' is correct: The primary drivers of water pollution include industrial waste discharge, agricultural runoff (containing pesticides and fertilizers), sewage and wastewater disposal, oil spills, and plastic pollution. These are all direct results of anthropogenic (human) actions.
2. Why 'Plants' is incorrect: While some plants can release organic matter into water during decomposition, this is a natural biological process and not considered a 'cause of pollution' in the environmental science context. In fact, many plants are used for phytoremediation to clean water.
3. Why 'Animals' is incorrect: Animal waste in natural ecosystems is part of the nutrient cycle. While concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) cause pollution, that is a result of human management of animals, not the animals themselves.
Therefore, human activities are the primary and dominant cause of water pollution globally.
Which constitutional amendment act abolished the representation of Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha?
A)
102nd Amendment
B)
103 Amendment
C)
104 Amendment
D)
105 Amendment
104th Constitutional Amendment Act 2019 discontinued nomination of 2 Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha.
Natural dye present in turmeric is called
A)
Cinnamon
B)
Curcumin
C)
Phenolphthalein
D)
Anthocyanin
Turmeric's yellow natural dye is curcumin (diferuloylmethane).
Which of the following is not a targeted Sustainable Development Goal to be achieved by 2030?
A)
gender equality
B)
life below water
C)
space research
D)
health and well-being
17 SDGs include gender equality, life below water, health etc; space research is not an SDG.
The ancient university of Nalanda, a center of learning and Buddhism, was located in which Indian state?
A)
Uttar Pradesh
B)
Bihar
C)
West Bengal
D)
Madhya Pradesh
Ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, UNESCO site, located in Nalanda district, Bihar.
What is India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) percent in the April-June quarter of the current fiscal (2023-2024)?
A)
5.8 percent
B)
6.8 percent
C)
7.8 percent
D)
8.8 percent
India's Q1 FY 2023-24 GDP growth was 7.8% as per NSO, up from 6.1% previous quarter.
Who won the French Open Women’s Singles title in 2023?
A)
Karolina Muchova
B)
Iga Swiatek
C)
E.Avanesyan
D)
Justine Henin
Iga Swiatek beat Karolina Muchova 6-2,5-7,6-4 to win French Open Women's Singles 2023, her third Roland Garros title.
What is the maximum time limit for a Public Information Officer (PIO) to respond to an RTI application?
A)
14 days
B)
21 days
C)
25 days
D)
30 days
RTI Act Sec 7(1): PIO must respond within 30 days of receipt.
The newly discovered ‘Gomphonema rajaguruii’, belongs to which organism?
A)
Algae
B)
Bacteria
C)
Virus
D)
Fungi
Gomphonema is a genus of diatoms, a type of algae; new species rajaguruii is algal.
What is the age range of children covered under the Right to Education (RTE) Act?
A)
5-14 years
B)
5-16 years
C)
6-14 years
D)
6-16 years
RTE Act 2009 covers children aged 6-14 years (Art 21A).
Which of the following terms means pain killing?
A)
Antipyretic
B)
Analgesic
C)
Antibiotic
D)
Antihistamine
Analgesic relieves pain; antipyretic reduces fever, antibiotic kills bacteria.
All of the following crops are products of Mediterranean agriculture except
A)
Cocoa
B)
Grapes
C)
Dates
D)
Figs
Mediterranean agriculture is known for olives, grapes, figs, dates, citrus; Cocoa is tropical humid crop.
The famous Jallianwala Bagh massacre, where British troops killed a large number of unarmed Indian civilians, occurred in which city?
A)
Delhi
B)
Amritsar
C)
Bombay
D)
Calcutta
Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab under General Dyer.
Who was the founder of the Mauryan Empire in ancient India?
A)
Chandragupta Maurya
B)
Ashoka the Great
C)
Bindusara
D)
Samudragupta
Chandragupta Maurya founded Mauryan Empire c. 322 BCE with guidance of Chanakya.
Who completed a round trip voyage to India through the Cape of Good Hope in 1498?
A)
Megasthenes
B)
Magellan
C)
Christopher Columbus
D)
Vasco da Gama
Vasco da Gama in 1498 completed sea route to India via Cape of Good Hope, landing at Calicut.