← AD (Town Planning)
Past Questions — 2023
After which international conference, constitutional sanction was given to environmental concerns through the 42nd Amendment.
A)
United Nations Conference on Human Environment, Stockholm 1972
B)
The Earth Summit-The Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, 1992
C)
Montreal Protocol on the Ozone Layer 1997
D)
IPCC 1990
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is a landmark amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced environmental protection into the constitutional framework by adding Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy), which mandates that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment, and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duties), which mandates that every citizen shall strive to protect and improve the natural environment. This constitutional shift was a direct result of India's commitment to the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (UNCHE) held in Stockholm in 1972. India was a signatory to the Stockholm Declaration, and the subsequent domestic legal changes (including the 42nd Amendment and the enactment of the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981) were intended to fulfill those international obligations.
Why other options are incorrect:
- Option b: The Rio Earth Summit took place in 1992, long after the 42nd Amendment (1976).
- Option c: The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 (not 1997) and focuses specifically on ozone-depleting substances, not the general constitutional framework for environment.
- Option d: The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) was established in 1988, which is after the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the following is responsible for reducing global CFC production by half?
A)
Copenhagen Protocol
B)
Montreal Protocol
C)
Kyoto Protocol
D)
Convention on Long range Transboundary Air Pollution
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the primary target of this protocol. The treaty established a mandatory timetable for the reduction and eventual elimination of CFCs.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Copenhagen Protocol: While there were 'Copenhagen Accords' regarding climate change (2009), there is no primary 'Copenhagen Protocol' responsible for CFC reduction; rather, Copenhagen hosted amendments to the Montreal Protocol in 1992 to accelerate the phase-out.
- c. Kyoto Protocol: This treaty focused on reducing greenhouse gas emissions (such as CO2 and Methane) to combat global warming, not specifically on ozone-depleting substances like CFCs.
- d. Convention on Long range Transboundary Air Pollution (CLRTAP): This was the first international legally binding instrument to deal with problems of air pollution on a broad regional basis (primarily Europe and North America), focusing on pollutants like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, rather than global CFC production.
Water Act is a main law in action used for EIA formulated in
A)
1981
B)
1974
C)
1975
D)
1986
The question asks for the year the Water Act was formulated, which serves as a foundational law for environmental regulations and Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA) in India.
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974. It was the first major environmental law in India aimed at preventing and controlling water pollution and providing a legal framework for the establishment of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs).
2. Option (a) 1981 refers to the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
3. Option (c) 1975 is not associated with a primary environmental act of this nature.
4. Option (d) 1986 refers to the Environment (Protection) Act, which is an 'umbrella' legislation that provides the broad framework for EIA notifications, but the specific 'Water Act' mentioned in the prompt was formulated in 1974.
The Environment Protection act of 1986 came into the force soon after tragedy.
A)
Orissa Super Cyclone
B)
Gujarat Earthquake
C)
Bhopal Gas
D)
Tsunami
The Environment Protection Act (EPA) of 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, which occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984. The tragedy involved the leak of Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) gas from the Union Carbide India Limited plant, resulting in thousands of deaths and long-term health issues for survivors. This catastrophic event highlighted the urgent need for a comprehensive environmental framework to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities and to provide the central government with the power to protect and improve environmental quality.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Orissa Super Cyclone: Occurred in 1999, long after the EPA 1986 was enacted.
- b. Gujarat Earthquake: The major earthquake occurred in 2001, long after the EPA 1986.
- d. Tsunami: The Indian Ocean Tsunami occurred in 2004, long after the EPA 1986.
Which of the following describes the usage of the topographic survey?
A)
Sanitary line maps
B)
Water line maps
C)
Electric line maps
D)
Topographic maps
A topographic survey is a detailed survey used to determine the relative locations of natural and man-made features on the earth's surface, including elevations (contours). The primary output or usage of a topographic survey is the creation of a Topographic Map. While sanitary, water, and electric line maps are types of 'Utility Maps' or 'Engineering Maps' that may rely on a topographic base, they are specific subsets of infrastructure mapping. A topographic survey, by definition, is designed to produce a comprehensive topographic map showing the terrain and existing features of a specific area.
The baseline studies in EIA pertain to
A)
Collection of demographic data only
B)
prediction of significant residual environmental impact
C)
existing environmental settling of proposed development area
D)
selection of best project option available
Step-by-step reasoning:
1. **Definition of Baseline Studies**: In Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), baseline studies involve the collection of data on the existing environmental status of the project area before any development takes place. This serves as a 'benchmark' or 'reference point' against which future changes caused by the project can be measured.
2. **Scope of Baseline Data**: Baseline studies cover a wide range of parameters, including physical (air, water, soil, noise), biological (flora, fauna), and socio-economic (demographics, land use) conditions.
3. **Evaluating Option (c)**: The phrase 'existing environmental settling' (likely a typo for 'setting' or 'status') refers to the current state of the environment in the proposed development area. This aligns perfectly with the definition of baseline studies.
4. **Evaluating Option (a)**: Demographic data is only one small part of the socio-economic baseline; baseline studies are not limited to demographics alone.
5. **Evaluating Option (b)**: Prediction of residual impacts occurs during the 'Impact Prediction' and 'Mitigation' phases of the EIA, which happen *after* the baseline data has been established.
6. **Evaluating Option (d)**: Selection of the best project option is part of the 'Alternatives Analysis' phase, which uses baseline data as an input but is not the baseline study itself.
Slum Free City Plan of Action is part of
A)
RAY
B)
IAY
C)
PMGSY
D)
PMC
The 'Slum Free City' approach is a core component of the Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY), launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA), Government of India. RAY was designed to make cities 'slum-free' by providing sustainable housing to the urban poor, focusing on in-situ slum redevelopment and the provision of basic services.
Analysis of other options:
- b. IAY (Indira Awas Yojana): This was a rural housing scheme (now merged into PMAY-G) focused on providing houses to the rural poor, not urban slum-free city planning.
- c. PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana): This is a rural road connectivity program, unrelated to housing or slum redevelopment.
- d. PMC (Pune Municipal Corporation or similar): This refers to a local urban body, not a national housing scheme or policy framework.
Which types of settlements are found in alluvial plains?
A)
Hamleted
B)
Dispersed
C)
Clustered
D)
None of these
In settlement geography, the pattern of human habitation is heavily influenced by physical geography and resource availability.
1. **Clustered (or Nucleated) Settlements**: These are compact settlements where houses are built close to each other. They are typically found in fertile alluvial plains (like the Indo-Gangetic plains) because the high productivity of the land supports a dense population. In these regions, farmers live together in a central village and travel outward to their fields. This pattern is driven by the need for social security, shared resources, and the availability of fertile soil.
2. **Hamleted Settlements**: These are a variation of clustered settlements where a large village is fragmented into smaller units called hamlets (often based on caste or kinship). While they occur in plains, they are a subset of the clustered logic rather than the primary characteristic of the plain's geography itself.
3. **Dispersed Settlements**: These are characterized by isolated houses or farmsteads far apart from each other. These are typically found in hilly terrains, deserts, or heavily forested areas where the land is not uniformly fertile or the topography is rugged, making it impossible for people to cluster together.
Therefore, the fertile and flat nature of alluvial plains naturally leads to the development of clustered settlements.
NUHHP stands for
A)
National United Housing & Habitat Policy
B)
National Urban Housing & Habitat Policy
C)
National Upgraded Housing & Habitat Policy
D)
National Urban Habitat & House Policy
NUHHP stands for the National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy. This policy was formulated by the Government of India (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs) to provide a comprehensive framework for ensuring affordable housing and improving the living conditions (habitat) for the urban population, particularly the urban poor and marginalized sections.
Analyzing the options:
- Option (a) 'United' is incorrect as the policy focuses on the 'Urban' sector.
- Option (b) 'National Urban Housing & Habitat Policy' is the correct official terminology.
- Option (c) 'Upgraded' is incorrect; the policy is a foundational framework, not an 'upgraded' version of a previous one by that specific name.
- Option (d) 'Urban Habitat & House Policy' is incorrect because the standard terminology used in government documentation is 'Housing & Habitat'.
Which of the following techniques is used to remove fluorides from the water bodies?
A)
Osmosis
B)
Ion exchange
C)
Lime softening
D)
Both (b) & (c)
Fluoride removal (defluoridation) is necessary when fluoride levels exceed the permissible limit (usually 1.5 mg/L) to prevent dental and skeletal fluorosis.
1. **Ion Exchange (Option b):** This is a widely recognized and effective technique for fluoride removal. Strong base anion exchange resins are used to exchange fluoride ions (F-) with chloride or hydroxide ions. This is a standard industrial and laboratory method for removing specific ions from water.
2. **Osmosis (Option a):** While Reverse Osmosis (RO) is highly effective at removing fluorides, the option provided is 'Osmosis'. Osmosis is a natural process where solvent moves from low solute concentration to high solute concentration; it does not remove contaminants. Reverse Osmosis (the forced opposite) would be correct, but 'Osmosis' alone is not a treatment technique.
3. **Lime Softening (Option c):** Lime softening is used primarily to remove hardness (calcium and magnesium ions) from water. It is not an effective method for removing fluoride ions.
Since only Ion Exchange is a valid technique among the listed options, option (d) is also incorrect.
Among the following, which is not a principle of the topographic survey?
A)
Establishing horizontal and vertical control
B)
Orientation of each survey
C)
Orientation of only main station
D)
Work with most accurate methods
Topographic surveying is the process of determining the positions of natural and man-made features on the earth's surface. To ensure accuracy and consistency across a map, certain fundamental principles must be followed:
1. **Establishing horizontal and vertical control (Option a):** This is a core principle. Horizontal control (traversing/triangulation) and vertical control (leveling) provide the framework upon which all other details are plotted.
2. **Orientation of each survey (Option b):** To ensure that the map is correctly aligned with true north or a known reference meridian, every survey session or 'tie-in' must be oriented. This prevents rotational errors from accumulating.
3. **Work with most accurate methods (Option d):** Topographic surveys often serve as the base for engineering projects; therefore, utilizing the most accurate methods available for the required scale is a standard principle.
**Why Option (c) is the correct answer:** Orientation of *only* the main station is insufficient. If only the primary control point is oriented and subsequent stations or survey legs are not checked for orientation, 'angular drift' or rotational errors occur. Every survey station or set of measurements must be oriented to maintain the integrity of the spatial data. Therefore, 'Orientation of only main station' is NOT a principle of topographic surveying; it is a flawed practice.
Which of the following is not the strategy for Rental Housing in India?
A)
Institutionalise rent-to-own schemes
B)
Reform in rent control acts to ensure the right of owner and rented
C)
Promote rental housing for various sizes and economic groups
D)
Land Allotment
The question asks for the option that is NOT a specific strategy for promoting 'Rental Housing' in India.
1. **Option (a) Institutionalise rent-to-own schemes**: This is a recognized strategy to bridge the gap between renting and owning, allowing low-income groups to eventually own their homes through rental payments. This is a specific rental housing strategy.
2. **Option (b) Reform in rent control acts**: Outdated rent control laws in India often discourage owners from renting out properties due to low fixed rents and difficulty in eviction. Reforming these acts (such as the Model Tenancy Act) is a primary strategy to incentivize the rental market.
3. **Option (c) Promote rental housing for various sizes and economic groups**: This refers to the diversification of the rental market (e.g., Affordable Rental Housing Complexes - ARHCs) to cater to migrant laborers, students, and middle-income groups, which is a core strategy of the government.
4. **Option (d) Land Allotment**: While land allotment is a general mechanism for any urban development or housing project (including ownership housing), it is a general administrative process rather than a specific 'strategy' tailored to the rental housing ecosystem. Rental housing strategies focus on the management, regulation, and financial models of leasing, whereas land allotment is a prerequisite for any construction, regardless of whether the end goal is rental or sale.
What is the population density of Assam?
A)
398 per sqkm
B)
500 per sqkm
C)
250per sqkm
D)
867 per sqkm
According to the official Census of India 2011, which is the standard data source for competitive examinations unless otherwise specified, the population density of Assam is 398 persons per square kilometer.
Calculation/Data Verification:
- Total Population of Assam (2011): ~31,205,576
- Total Area of Assam: ~78,438 sq km
- Population Density = Total Population / Total Area ≈ 398 per sq km.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 398 per sqkm: Correct as per Census 2011.
- Option (b) 500 per sqkm: Incorrect; this exceeds the state average.
- Option (c) 250 per sqkm: Incorrect; this is significantly lower than the state average.
- Option (d) 867 per sqkm: Incorrect; this is closer to the density of highly populated states like West Bengal or Bihar.
Tenure classified into
A)
Free hold, Lease hold, Rental
B)
Free venture, joint venture
C)
Fixed Grip, non-fixed grip
D)
Free speculation, joint speculation
In the context of land tenure and real estate, 'tenure' refers to the legal regime in which land is owned or held. The primary classifications of land tenure are: 1. Freehold: The owner has absolute ownership of the land and the buildings on it for an indefinite period. 2. Leasehold: The owner (lessor) grants another party (lessee) the right to use the land for a specific period in exchange for rent. 3. Rental: A shorter-term arrangement where a tenant pays for the use of the property without ownership rights. Options b, c, and d contain terms like 'venture', 'grip', and 'speculation', which refer to business models, physical holds, or market behaviors, rather than legal systems of land tenure.
Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is required
A)
Before the Project
B)
After the Project
C)
During the Project
D)
Anytime in life cycle of the project
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a proactive planning tool used to identify, predict, and evaluate the potential environmental effects of a proposed project before any major decisions are made or actions are taken.
1. Why 'Before the Project' is correct: The primary purpose of EIA is to ensure that environmental considerations are integrated into the project design and decision-making process. By conducting the EIA beforehand, authorities can decide whether the project should proceed, modify the project to minimize damage, or reject it entirely if the environmental costs are too high. This is known as the 'preventative principle'.
2. Why 'After the Project' is incorrect: Assessing impacts after the project is completed is called an 'Environmental Audit' or 'Post-Project Analysis'. While useful for monitoring, it cannot prevent the damage that has already occurred.
3. Why 'During the Project' is incorrect: Monitoring occurs during the project (Environmental Management Plan), but the 'Assessment' (EIA) must happen prior to construction to obtain the necessary Environmental Clearance (EC).
4. Why 'Anytime in life cycle' is incorrect: While monitoring is continuous, the formal EIA process is a prerequisite for project approval and must occur at the planning stage.
What is the purpose of the “screening” step of EIA?
A)
To assess the quality of the project design
B)
To facilitate informed decision making by providing clear, well-structured, factual analysis of the effects and consequences of proposed actions
C)
To determine whether a full EIA needed
D)
Both (b) & (c)
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) follows a systematic sequence of steps.
1. **Screening**: This is the first stage of the EIA process. Its primary purpose is to determine whether a proposed project is likely to have significant environmental effects and, therefore, whether a full-scale EIA study is required. Projects are typically screened based on their scale, location, and nature (e.g., Category A vs Category B projects in many jurisdictions).
2. **Scoping**: Once it is decided that an EIA is needed, scoping identifies which potential impacts are most important to study.
3. **Impact Analysis/Assessment**: This involves the actual technical study of the effects.
Evaluating the options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because assessing project design quality is a part of engineering or architectural review, not the specific purpose of the screening step.
- Option (b) describes the overall purpose of the entire EIA process (the final Environmental Impact Statement), not specifically the 'screening' step.
- Option (c) accurately defines the specific function of screening: deciding if the project warrants a full EIA.
- Option (d) is incorrect because (b) refers to the general goal of EIA, whereas the question asks specifically for the 'screening' step.
Which of the following techniques is used to determine the concentration of odour compounds in the given water sample?
A)
Settling
B)
Flushing
C)
Stripping
D)
Chlorination
In water treatment, 'stripping' (specifically air stripping) is a process used to remove volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and dissolved gases that cause unpleasant odors and tastes from water. It involves transferring the volatile compounds from the liquid phase (water) to the gas phase (air). By measuring the amount of compound removed or the concentration in the air stream, the concentration of odor-causing compounds in the water sample can be determined or reduced.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Settling: This is a physical process used to remove suspended solids (sedimentation) and does not target dissolved odor compounds.
- b. Flushing: This is a maintenance procedure used in piping systems to remove stagnant water or accumulated debris; it is not an analytical or treatment technique for measuring odor concentrations.
- d. Chlorination: This is a disinfection process used to kill pathogens. While it can oxidize some odor-causing compounds, it is primarily used for sterilization and can sometimes actually create new odors (like chloramines) rather than being a technique to determine the concentration of existing odor compounds.
Which is the largest agricultural north eastern state?
A)
Assam
B)
Meghalaya
C)
Tripura
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
To determine the largest agricultural state in North East India, we look at both the land area under cultivation and the total agricultural output.
1. **Assam**: It is the most populous and largest economy among the North Eastern states. It possesses the largest expanse of fertile alluvial plains (the Brahmaputra valley), making it the leader in agricultural production, particularly for tea (the largest producer in India) and rice.
2. **Meghalaya, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh**: While these states engage in significant agriculture (such as Jhum cultivation or rubber in Tripura), their total cultivated area and overall agricultural output are significantly lower than those of Assam due to their mountainous terrain and smaller plains.
Therefore, in terms of scale, production, and land utilization for agriculture, Assam is the largest agricultural state in the North East.
Which layer of atmosphere contains the ozone responsible for the absorption of UV rays?
A)
Stratosphere
B)
Troposphere
C)
Mesosphere
D)
None of these
The Earth's atmosphere is divided into several layers based on temperature gradients. The stratosphere is the second layer, located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere. It contains the 'Ozone Layer' (ozonosphere), where a high concentration of ozone (O3) molecules exists. This ozone layer is critical for life on Earth because it absorbs the majority of the sun's harmful medium-frequency ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation, preventing it from reaching the surface.
Why other options are incorrect:
- b. Troposphere: This is the lowest layer where weather occurs. While some ozone exists here (ground-level ozone), it is considered a pollutant and smog component, not the protective layer responsible for UV absorption.
- c. Mesosphere: This is the middle layer where most meteors burn up; it does not contain a significant concentration of ozone.
- d. None of these: Incorrect, as the stratosphere is the scientifically established location of the ozone layer.
The TPS are micro plans prepared for about hectares of area.
A)
50 to 100
B)
100 to 150
C)
100 to 200
D)
200 to 250
TPS stands for Town Planning Scheme, a land-pooling mechanism widely used in India (particularly in Gujarat and Maharashtra) for planned urban expansion. A Town Planning Scheme is designed as a 'micro-plan' to ensure that land is reorganized for public infrastructure (roads, open spaces, amenities) without the need for expensive land acquisition. According to standard urban planning guidelines and the operational manuals for TPS, these schemes are typically prepared for manageable micro-areas. While the size can vary based on the specific urban context, the standard benchmark for a micro-plan unit in a TPS is generally between 100 to 200 hectares. This size allows for an efficient layout of a neighborhood unit, ensuring that residential areas are within walking distance of basic amenities and that the road hierarchy is logically structured.
Which North-eastern state has the highest female literacy rate?
A)
Manipur
B)
Tripura
C)
Mizoram
D)
Arunachal Pradesh
Based on the most recent comprehensive census data (Census 2011) and subsequent National Sample Survey (NSS) reports, Mizoram consistently records the highest literacy rates in the North-eastern region of India, both overall and specifically for females.
1. Mizoram: Has a female literacy rate of approximately 91.1% (Census 2011), which is the highest among the options provided and the highest in the North-east.
2. Tripura: Also has a high literacy rate, but it generally trails behind Mizoram in female literacy percentages.
3. Manipur: Has a significant literacy rate, but it is lower than that of Mizoram and Tripura.
4. Arunachal Pradesh: Historically has lower literacy rates compared to the other three states listed due to geographical and infrastructural challenges.
Therefore, Mizoram is the correct answer as it leads the North-eastern states in female literacy.
Which of the following units is used for measuring the turbidity of water?
A)
FAU-Formazin Attenuation
B)
None
C)
None
D)
None
Turbidity is a measure of the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by large numbers of individual particles that are generally invisible to the naked eye. The standard unit for measuring turbidity is the Nephelometric Turbidity Unit (NTU). However, the international standard for calibrating turbidimeters is based on Formazin, a synthetic polymer. The Formazin Attenuation Unit (FAU) is the fundamental unit used to quantify the attenuation of light by a Formazin suspension. While NTU is more common in daily reporting, FAU is the scientifically recognized unit for the attenuation of light in water quality analysis. In the given options, 'FAU-Formazin Attenuation' is the only technically correct unit listed for measuring turbidity.
The density of population is the number of people per unit area of arable land.
A)
Physiological
B)
Phishing
C)
Physical
D)
Psychological
In population geography, there are different ways to measure population density.
1. **Arithmetic Density**: This is the total population divided by the total land area. It provides a general average but does not account for the fact that some land (like mountains or deserts) is uninhabitable.
2. **Physiological Density**: This is defined as the number of people per unit area of **arable land** (land suitable for agriculture). It is a more accurate measure of the pressure a population puts on its food-producing resources.
3. **Agricultural Density**: This is the ratio of the number of farmers to the amount of arable land.
Analyzing the options:
- **Option a (Physiological)**: Correct. By definition, physiological density relates population to arable land.
- **Option b (Phishing)**: Incorrect. Phishing is a cybercrime term related to fraudulent attempts to obtain sensitive information.
- **Option c (Physical)**: Incorrect. While 'physical' refers to the land, it is not the technical term used for this specific demographic calculation.
- **Option d (Psychological)**: Incorrect. This refers to mental and emotional states, not geographic population metrics.
The number of farmers per unit area of farmland is known as
A)
Working density of a population
B)
Agriculture density of a population
C)
Rural density of a population
D)
Industrial density of population
In population geography, different types of density are used to measure the pressure of population on land.
1. **Agricultural Density** is specifically defined as the ratio of the total agricultural population (farmers) to the total area of land under cultivation (farmland). It measures the pressure on the land that is actually being farmed. Formula: (Total Farmers / Total Arable Land).
2. **Physiological Density** (not listed but related) is the ratio of the total population to the total arable land.
3. **Arithmetic Density** is the total population divided by the total land area.
Evaluating the options:
- **Option a (Working density)** is not a standard geographical term for this specific ratio.
- **Option b (Agriculture density)** correctly describes the number of farmers per unit of farmland.
- **Option c (Rural density)** refers to the total population living in rural areas divided by the rural land area, regardless of whether they are farmers.
- **Option d (Industrial density)** refers to the concentration of industrial workers or units in a given area, which is irrelevant to farmland.
Prediction of impact is
A)
Qualitative
B)
Quantitative
C)
Economic
D)
Beneficial
In the process of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), 'Prediction' is the stage where the magnitude and extent of the impacts identified during the screening and scoping phases are estimated. While impact identification can be qualitative, the 'Prediction' phase specifically aims to quantify the changes in the environment. This involves using mathematical models, statistical data, and scientific simulations to determine 'how much' a parameter (such as air quality, noise levels, or water pollution) will change. Therefore, prediction is primarily a quantitative exercise.
- Option (a) Qualitative: This refers to the description of the nature of the impact (e.g., 'increase' or 'decrease'), which is more characteristic of the 'Identification' phase.
- Option (c) Economic: This refers to a specific type of impact (Cost-Benefit Analysis), not the method of prediction itself.
- Option (d) Beneficial: This describes the polarity of an impact (positive vs. negative), not the process of predicting it.