← AD (Town Planning)
Past Questions — 2026
As per the new earthquake-zoning map, India is divided in __________ seismic zones.
A)
Three
B)
Six
C)
Four
D)
Five
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) code IS 1893 (Part 1), the seismic zoning map of India divides the country into four seismic zones based on the intensity of earthquake shaking. These zones are:
1. Zone II: Low intensity seismic zone.
2. Zone III: Moderate intensity seismic zone.
3. Zone IV: High intensity seismic zone.
4. Zone V: Very high intensity seismic zone.
Note: While there are four active zones (II, III, IV, and V), Zone I was previously used but has since been merged into Zone II because no region in India is completely free from seismic risk. Therefore, the current standard classification recognizes four distinct zones.
- Option (a) Three is incorrect as it undercounts the zones.
- Option (b) Six is incorrect as it exceeds the standard classification.
- Option (d) Five is a common misconception (counting I through V), but since Zone I is no longer used, the total number of active zones is four.
HUDCO was primarily established to:
A)
Finance and regulate private real estate development in metropolitan cities
B)
Provide direct housing allotments to economically weaker sections
C)
Finance housing and urban infrastructure projects through institutional lending
D)
Prepare master plans for new towns and industrial townships
HUDCO (Housing and Urban Development Corporation Limited) was established by the Government of India in 1970 as a company under the Companies Act. Its primary mandate is to act as a specialized financial institution to mobilize resources and provide long-term finance to various agencies (such as State Governments, Urban Local Bodies, and Housing Boards) for the development of housing and urban infrastructure.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) is incorrect because HUDCO is a development financial institution, not a regulatory body for private real estate.
- Option (b) is incorrect because HUDCO provides the funding (loans) to agencies that execute housing schemes; it does not typically handle the direct allotment of houses to individuals.
- Option (c) is correct as it accurately describes HUDCO's role in institutional lending for urban development.
- Option (d) is incorrect because preparing master plans is the responsibility of Town Planning Departments or Urban Development Authorities, not a financing corporation.
What does SDG 13 focus on?
A)
Life Below Water
B)
Climate Action
C)
Peace and Justice
D)
Gender Equality
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a 'blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all,' established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.
1. SDG 13 is specifically titled 'Climate Action.' It calls for urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts by strengthening resilience, improving adaptation, and integrating climate measures into national policies and planning.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) 'Life Below Water' corresponds to SDG 14.
- Option (c) 'Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions' corresponds to SDG 16.
- Option (d) 'Gender Equality' corresponds to SDG 5.
‘Housing for All’ policy was formulated under:
A)
Twelfth Five Year Plan
B)
Tenth Five Year Plan
C)
Eleventh Five Year Plan
D)
NITI Aayog era
The 'Housing for All' mission was formally conceptualized and integrated into the planning framework during the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017). The 12th Plan emphasized the need for inclusive growth and specifically highlighted the goal of providing affordable housing to all, particularly the urban poor and the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). This strategic focus later culminated in the launch of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) in 2015 to operationalize the 'Housing for All' vision.
Analysis of other options:
- Tenth and Eleventh Five Year Plans focused on poverty alleviation and basic infrastructure but did not formulate the specific 'Housing for All' policy framework.
- The NITI Aayog era (post-2015) is when the policy was implemented through schemes like PMAY, but the policy formulation and goal-setting originated within the framework of the Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Which of the following pollutants is a major contributor to acid rain?
A)
Carbon dioxide
B)
Sulphur dioxide
C)
Methane
D)
Oxygen
Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) are released into the air. These substances rise high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form mild solutions of sulfuric and nitric acid.
Step-by-step analysis of the options:
1. Sulphur dioxide (SO2): When emitted (primarily from burning fossil fuels like coal), it reacts with water vapor in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid (H2SO4), which falls as acid rain. This is a primary contributor.
2. Carbon dioxide (CO2): While CO2 dissolves in rainwater to form weak carbonic acid (making normal rain slightly acidic), it is not considered a 'pollutant' causing the destructive phenomenon known as 'acid rain'.
3. Methane (CH4): This is a potent greenhouse gas contributing to global warming, but it does not react in the atmosphere to produce acid rain.
4. Oxygen (O2): This is a natural component of the air necessary for life and does not cause acidification of precipitation.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to a housing shortage?
A)
Limited flat land
B)
Competing land use
C)
Low birth rates
D)
Rural-urban migration
To determine which factor does NOT contribute to a housing shortage, we must analyze how each option affects the supply and demand of housing:
1. **Limited flat land (Option a):** This restricts the physical space available for construction. When land is scarce or unsuitable for building, the supply of new housing cannot keep up with demand, contributing to a shortage.
2. **Competing land use (Option b):** Land is a finite resource. When land is used for industrial zones, commercial hubs, parks, or agriculture instead of residential development, it reduces the available land for housing, thereby contributing to a shortage.
3. **Low birth rates (Option c):** Birth rates affect the demand side of the housing equation. Low birth rates lead to slower population growth. A slower increase in population reduces the pressure on the housing market, meaning fewer new homes are needed. Therefore, low birth rates typically alleviate or prevent a housing shortage rather than contributing to one.
4. **Rural-urban migration (Option d):** This causes a rapid increase in the urban population. When a large number of people move from rural areas to cities, the demand for urban housing spikes. If the construction rate cannot match this migration speed, a housing shortage occurs.
Since options a, b, and d all increase the gap between housing supply and demand, while option c decreases it, 'Low birth rates' is the correct answer.
The DPSIR framework in environmental planning stands for:
A)
Development–Policy–System–Impact–Response
B)
Driving forces–Pressures–State–Impact–Response
C)
Demand–Population–Supply–Impact–Recovery
D)
Data–Planning–System–Impact–Regulation
The DPSIR framework is a causal chain used by environmental agencies (such as the European Environment Agency) to describe the interactions between society and the environment.
1. **Driving forces (D):** These are the underlying social, economic, or demographic factors that lead to environmental pressure (e.g., population growth, industrialization, urban expansion).
2. **Pressures (P):** These are the direct stresses placed on the environment resulting from the driving forces (e.g., emission of greenhouse gases, waste discharge, deforestation).
3. **State (S):** This refers to the physical, chemical, or biological condition of the environment at a specific time (e.g., air quality index, water purity levels, forest cover percentage).
4. **Impact (I):** These are the consequences of the changed state on human health, ecosystems, or the economy (e.g., increased respiratory diseases, loss of biodiversity, crop failure).
5. **Response (R):** These are the actions taken by society or policymakers to address the problem and mitigate the impacts (e.g., environmental laws, carbon taxes, reforestation programs).
Options a, c, and d are incorrect as they use terms that do not align with the standardized environmental planning model developed for assessing environmental indicators.
In neighbourhood planning, the concept of defensible space primarily seeks to:
A)
Strengthen real-estate performance by improving territorial image and property upkeep
B)
Optimize development economics by minimizing shared circulation and service areas
C)
Promote resident territorial control and natural surveillance to discourage criminal activity
D)
Achieve compact urban form through spatial enclosure and higher plot utilization
The concept of 'Defensible Space' was developed by architect and city planner Oscar Newman in the early 1970s. The core theory posits that the physical design of a residential environment can be used to prevent crime by creating a sense of ownership and responsibility among residents.
1. **Territoriality**: By clearly defining boundaries between public, semi-public, semi-private, and private spaces, residents feel a sense of 'ownership' over their immediate surroundings, making intruders feel more visible and unwelcome.
2. **Natural Surveillance**: The design ensures that residents can easily observe the public areas around their homes (e.g., through window placement and open sightlines), which acts as a deterrent to criminal activity because the likelihood of being seen is high.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (a) focuses on real estate and property value, which may be a byproduct but is not the primary objective of the theory.
- Option (b) focuses on development economics and efficiency, which is unrelated to the sociological and security goals of defensible space.
- Option (d) focuses on urban density and plot utilization (Compact City theory), which is a different planning paradigm entirely.
Which country is widely recognized as the world leader in cycling infrastructure?
A)
USA
B)
China
C)
Norway
D)
Netherlands
The Netherlands is globally recognized as the gold standard for cycling infrastructure due to its comprehensive network of segregated cycle paths (fietspaden), integrated urban planning, and a culture that prioritizes cycling over motorized transport. Key reasons include: 1) Infrastructure: They possess thousands of kilometers of dedicated, high-quality bike lanes that are physically separated from car traffic. 2) Urban Design: Dutch cities are designed with 'filtered permeability,' making cycling the fastest and most direct route for short and medium trips. 3) Policy: Long-term government commitment to 'Sustainable Safety' principles has minimized accidents and maximized accessibility.
Comparison with other options:
- USA: While improving in some cities, the US is predominantly car-centric with fragmented cycling infrastructure.
- China: While China has a massive number of bicycles and is investing in bike-sharing, its infrastructure is not as systematically integrated or safety-oriented as the Dutch model.
- Norway: Norway has good infrastructure and high environmental standards, but it does not match the scale, density, or global influence of the Dutch cycling network.
The ‘heat island’ effect in cities is largely caused by:
A)
Increased tree planting
B)
Concretization and heavy vehicular traffic
C)
Lowering of industrial output
D)
Natural cooling processes
The Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect occurs when an urban area is significantly warmer than its surrounding rural areas. This is primarily caused by: 1. Concretization: Materials like concrete and asphalt have high thermal mass and low albedo, meaning they absorb and retain more solar radiation during the day and release it slowly at night. 2. Vehicular Traffic and Industry: Combustion engines and industrial processes release 'anthropogenic heat' directly into the atmosphere. 3. Lack of Vegetation: The removal of trees reduces evapotranspiration, which is a natural cooling process.
Evaluating other options:
- Option (a) 'Increased tree planting' actually mitigates the heat island effect through shading and evapotranspiration.
- Option (c) 'Lowering of industrial output' would reduce anthropogenic heat, thereby decreasing the UHI effect.
- Option (d) 'Natural cooling processes' (like wind flow and vegetation) counteract the heat island effect rather than causing it.
Which Indian city serves as a primary example of ‘Sector-based’ neighborhood planning?
A)
New Delhi
B)
Chandigarh
C)
Varanasi
D)
Kolkata
Chandigarh is the quintessential example of 'Sector-based' planning in India. Designed by Le Corbusier, the city is organized into a grid of self-sufficient 'Sectors' (typically 800m x 1200m). Each sector is designed as a neighborhood unit that provides residents with essential services (schools, shopping centers, health clinics, and parks) within walking distance, minimizing the need for long-distance travel for daily needs.
Why other options are incorrect:
- New Delhi: While it features planned elements (like Lutyens' Delhi), it is characterized by concentric circles and radial roads rather than a uniform sector-based neighborhood system.
- Varanasi: This is an example of an organic, ancient city with a dense, unplanned fabric centered around the ghats and temples.
- Kolkata: This city grew organically over time with a colonial influence, characterized by a mix of planned European areas and unplanned indigenous settlements, not a sector-based grid.
Besides the hydrological (water) cycle and the biogeochemical (nutrient) cycle what are the other two important ecological processes?
A)
Energy flow and growth cycles
B)
Community dynamics and growth cycles
C)
Energy flow and community dynamics
D)
Carbon and nitrogen cycles
In ecology, the functioning of an ecosystem is governed by several fundamental processes. The question identifies two: the hydrological cycle (water movement) and biogeochemical cycles (nutrient cycling like carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus). To complete the set of primary ecological processes, we look for the mechanisms that drive life and structure within the system. 1. Energy Flow: Unlike nutrients, energy does not cycle; it flows linearly from the sun to producers and then through various trophic levels (consumers), dissipating as heat. This is a cornerstone of ecological study. 2. Community Dynamics: This refers to the interactions between different species (competition, predation, symbiosis) and how populations change over time (succession). Together, these four processes—nutrient cycling, water cycling, energy flow, and community dynamics—provide a comprehensive framework for understanding ecosystem stability and function. Option (a) and (b) are incorrect because 'growth cycles' is a narrow biological process rather than a broad ecological system process. Option (d) is incorrect because carbon and nitrogen cycles are subsets of the 'biogeochemical cycles' already mentioned in the question stem.
Agenda 21 is best interpreted in planning as:
A)
An enforceable international regulatory instrument
B)
A sector-specific environmental management code
C)
A financing mechanism for ecological restoration
D)
A multi-level framework for implementing sustainability actions
Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally, and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area in which human impacts on the environment have become apparent.
1. Why Option (d) is correct: Agenda 21 was adopted at the 1992 Earth Summit (UNCED) in Rio de Janeiro. It is designed as a 'blueprint' or framework rather than a law. Its core philosophy is 'Local Agenda 21,' which encourages local authorities to create their own sustainable development strategies, making it a multi-level framework (Global $\rightarrow$ National $\rightarrow$ Local).
2. Why Option (a) is incorrect: Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntary action plan. It is not an 'enforceable regulatory instrument' or a treaty with legal sanctions.
3. Why Option (b) is incorrect: It is not 'sector-specific'; it is holistic, covering social and economic dimensions alongside environmental management (e.g., poverty, health, and sustainable urban planning).
4. Why Option (c) is incorrect: While it discusses the need for funding, Agenda 21 itself is a strategic plan/framework, not a 'financing mechanism' (like the Global Environment Facility or the Green Climate Fund).
‘Terms of Reference’ (ToR) in EIA are issued during:
A)
Screening
B)
Scoping
C)
Appraisal
D)
Public hearing
In the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process, the 'Terms of Reference' (ToR) are established during the Scoping stage.
1. **Screening (Option a):** This is the initial step to determine whether a proposed project requires a full EIA based on its scale, location, and potential impact. It decides 'if' an EIA is needed, not 'what' it should cover.
2. **Scoping (Option b):** Once it is decided that an EIA is required, the scoping process identifies the key issues, potential impacts, and boundaries of the study. The outcome of this stage is the 'Terms of Reference' (ToR), which acts as a roadmap or a set of guidelines that the project proponent must follow while preparing the detailed EIA report.
3. **Appraisal (Option c):** This is the final review stage where the regulatory authority examines the submitted EIA report and the public hearing results to decide whether to grant or refuse environmental clearance.
4. **Public Hearing (Option d):** This is a mandatory consultation process where the local affected people and stakeholders provide their opinions on the project's impact. This happens after the draft EIA report (prepared based on the ToR) is ready.
‘Affordable Housing’ in the context of PMAY 2.0 is primarily targeted at:
A)
EWS
B)
EWS and LIG
C)
Industrial workers
D)
EWS, LIG & MIG
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) 2.0, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2024, expands the scope of affordable housing compared to its predecessor. While PMAY 1.0 focused heavily on the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Low Income Groups (LIG), PMAY 2.0 is designed to be more inclusive to address the evolving housing needs of the urban population. It specifically targets three categories: 1. EWS (Economically Weaker Sections), 2. LIG (Low Income Groups), and 3. MIG (Middle Income Groups). The policy introduces specific interest subsidies and credit-linked subsidies to make housing affordable for the middle class (MIG) in addition to the poorest strata, recognizing that a significant portion of the urban workforce falls into the middle-income bracket but still struggles with housing affordability. Therefore, option (d) is the most comprehensive and correct answer.
‘Neighborhood Unit’ concept was proposed by:
A)
FL Wright
B)
Clarence Perry
C)
Le Corbusier
D)
Pattrick Geddes
The 'Neighborhood Unit' concept was developed by Clarence Perry in the 1920s. It was designed to create self-contained residential communities that minimize through-traffic and provide essential services (like elementary schools, shops, and community centers) within walking distance of all homes. The core of the unit is typically a primary school, and the boundaries are defined by arterial roads to ensure safety and social cohesion.
Why other options are incorrect:
- FL Wright: Known for 'Broadacre City', a decentralized urban vision emphasizing individual land ownership and the automobile.
- Le Corbusier: Known for 'The Radiant City' (Ville Radieuse), which emphasized high-density vertical living, zoning, and large open green spaces.
- Patrick Geddes: Known for the 'Regional Survey' and 'Diagnostic Survey' approach, emphasizing organic city growth and the relationship between environment and society (the 'Valley Section').
Which of the following is an example of a point source pollution?
A)
Agricultural runoff
B)
Factory smokestack emissions
C)
Ocean currents
D)
Wind erosion
In environmental science, pollution sources are categorized into two main types: Point Source and Non-Point Source.
1. **Point Source Pollution** refers to contaminants that enter the environment from a single, identifiable, and discrete location. A factory smokestack is a classic example because the pollution (emissions) originates from one specific pipe or vent, making it easy to monitor, measure, and regulate.
2. **Non-Point Source Pollution** refers to pollution that does not have a single point of origin. Instead, it comes from many diffuse sources, often carried by rainfall or snowmelt moving over and through the ground.
Evaluating the options:
- **a. Agricultural runoff:** This is a non-point source. Fertilizers and pesticides wash off vast areas of farmland into water bodies; there is no single 'pipe' where the pollution starts.
- **b. Factory smokestack emissions:** This is a point source. The pollution is emitted from a specific, localized point.
- **c. Ocean currents:** These are natural physical movements of water and are not a source of pollution themselves.
- **d. Wind erosion:** This is a natural geological process of soil transport, not a point source of pollution.
As per IS, what is the permissible exposure limits for noise in commercial zone during daytime?
A)
50 dBA
B)
55 dBA
C)
65 dBA
D)
75 dBA
In India, the ambient air quality standards for noise are governed by the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, which are based on guidelines from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and relevant Indian Standards (IS). The permissible noise levels are categorized by the type of zone and the time of day (Daytime: 6:00 AM to 10:00 PM; Nighttime: 10:00 PM to 6:00 AM).
1. Industrial Zone: Daytime 75 dBA / Nighttime 70 dBA
2. Commercial Zone: Daytime 65 dBA / Nighttime 55 dBA
3. Residential Zone: Daytime 55 dBA / Nighttime 45 dBA
4. Silence Zone: Daytime 50 dBA / Nighttime 40 dBA
Therefore, for a Commercial Zone during the daytime, the permissible limit is 65 dBA.
Analysis of options:
- Option (a) 50 dBA: This is the limit for a Silence Zone during the day.
- Option (b) 55 dBA: This is the limit for a Residential Zone during the day or a Commercial Zone at night.
- Option (c) 65 dBA: Correct limit for Commercial Zone during the day.
- Option (d) 75 dBA: This is the limit for an Industrial Zone during the day.
Delhi’s DDA housing layouts broadly follow:
A)
Grid model
B)
Industrial model
C)
Neighborhood unit concept
D)
Radburn model
The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) housing layouts are fundamentally based on the 'Neighborhood Unit' concept, popularized by Clarence Perry in the 1920s. This planning model focuses on creating self-sufficient residential clusters where essential services—such as primary schools, local shops, and community centers—are located within walking distance of all residents, typically centered around a school or park. This minimizes the need for residents to cross major arterial roads, thereby enhancing safety and fostering community social interaction.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Grid model: While some parts of Delhi (like Lutyens' Delhi) use a modified grid or radial system, the broad housing layout strategy for residential colonies follows the neighborhood unit rather than a strict, uniform grid.
- b. Industrial model: This refers to zoning for manufacturing and logistics, which is the opposite of the residential housing layouts designed by the DDA.
- d. Radburn model: The Radburn model is a specific variation of the neighborhood unit that emphasizes the complete separation of pedestrian and vehicular traffic (cul-de-sacs and superblocks). While some DDA layouts incorporate elements of Radburn, the overarching guiding principle for the general layout of Delhi's residential sectors is the broader Neighborhood Unit concept.
Which component of PMAY-U is implemented as a ‘Central Sector Scheme’?
A)
In-situ Slum Redevelopment
B)
Affordable Housing in Partnership
C)
Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS)
D)
Beneficiary-led Construction
The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U) consists of several vertical components. These are categorized based on their funding and implementation mechanisms:
1. **Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS):** These are schemes where the funding is shared between the Central Government and the State Governments. The components 'In-situ Slum Redevelopment' (ISSR), 'Affordable Housing in Partnership' (AHP), and 'Beneficiary-led Construction' (BLC) fall under this category as they involve state-level implementation and cost-sharing.
2. **Central Sector Scheme (CS):** This is a scheme funded entirely by the Central Government. The 'Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme' (CLSS) is implemented as a Central Sector Scheme because the interest subsidy is provided directly by the Central Government to the eligible beneficiaries through primary lending institutions, without requiring a funding contribution from the State Government.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which Indian scheme, launched under the NITI Aayog era, focuses on providing ‘Rental Housing’ complexes for migrant workers as a sub-scheme of PMAY-U?
A)
AMRUT
B)
ARHC
C)
HRIDAY
D)
DAY-NULM
The correct answer is ARHC (Affordable Rental Housing Complexes).
1. **ARHC (Affordable Rental Housing Complexes):** Launched by the Government of India (under the guidance of NITI Aayog's focus on urban migration and the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic), ARHC is a sub-scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U). Its primary objective is to provide secure and affordable rental housing to urban migrants, street vendors, and slum dwellers to reduce the burden on slums and improve living conditions for the migrant workforce.
2. **Why other options are incorrect:**
- **AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation):** This scheme focuses on basic urban infrastructure such as water supply, sewerage, and storm water drains, not specifically on rental housing for migrants.
- **HRIDAY (Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana):** This scheme is dedicated to the preservation and development of the heritage character of selected cities.
- **DAY-NULM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission):** This mission focuses on poverty alleviation through skill development and self-employment opportunities for the urban poor, rather than the construction of rental housing complexes.
Zero energy buildings are defined as:
A)
Buildings that produce as much energy as they consume over a full year
B)
Buildings that do not consume any energy
C)
Special building that get free energy through Govt of India
D)
Buildings that use renewable energy for at least 25% of their basic needs
A Zero Energy Building (ZEB), also known as a Net Zero Energy Building (NZEB), is defined as a building with zero net energy consumption. This is achieved by combining high energy efficiency (reducing the demand) with the integration of on-site renewable energy generation (such as solar panels or wind turbines). The 'zero' refers to the net balance over a specific period, typically one year, meaning the total amount of energy used by the building is roughly equal to the amount of renewable energy created on-site.
Analysis of other options:
- Option (b) is incorrect because it is physically impossible for a functional building to consume 'no energy' (lighting, ventilation, and electronics always require power).
- Option (c) is incorrect as ZEB is a technical architectural standard, not a government subsidy program for 'free energy'.
- Option (d) describes a building with partial renewable energy integration, but not a 'Zero Energy' building, which requires a 100% offset of annual consumption.
Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by:
A)
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
B)
Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
C)
Environment Protection Act, 1986
D)
Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India is a statutory process governed by the Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986. While the concept of EIA was introduced through administrative decisions in the 1970s, it gained legal teeth through the EPA 1986, which provides the overarching framework for the central government to take measures to protect and improve the environment. Specifically, the EIA Notification (first issued in 1994 and subsequently updated in 2006) was promulgated under the powers granted to the Central Government by the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Why other options are incorrect:
- a. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Focuses on the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants and the establishment of protected areas.
- b. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980: Primarily deals with the restriction of the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes.
- d. Biological Diversity Act, 2002: Focuses on the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Carrying capacity is reduced in urban areas mainly due to:
A)
Socio-cultural dynamism
B)
Administrative expansion
C)
Resource stress
D)
Political conflict
In the context of Urban Ecology, 'Carrying Capacity' refers to the maximum population size of a species (or human population) that a specific environment can sustain indefinitely without degrading the natural resource base.
1. Why 'Resource stress' is correct: Urban areas experience high population density, which leads to an over-exploitation of essential resources such as clean water, arable land, energy, and air quality. When the demand for these resources exceeds the environment's ability to regenerate or provide them, 'resource stress' occurs, effectively reducing the carrying capacity of the urban ecosystem.
2. Why other options are incorrect:
- Socio-cultural dynamism (a): While urban areas are culturally diverse and dynamic, this refers to social evolution and does not physically limit the biological or ecological capacity of the land to support life.
- Administrative expansion (b): This refers to the growth of governance structures or city boundaries. While poor planning can lead to issues, the act of administrative expansion itself is a management process, not the primary ecological driver that reduces carrying capacity.
- Political conflict (d): While conflict can disrupt resource distribution and cause instability, it is a socio-political symptom rather than the fundamental ecological mechanism that defines the carrying capacity of an urban environment.
Match the Parts of Residential Buildings in Group-I with their respective minimum width (in m) in Group-II as per the National Building Code 2016: A Habitable room, B Stair flight, C Kitchen, D Bathroom. Group-II: 1 1.0 m, 2 3.0 m, 3 1.2 m, 4 1.8 m, 5 2.4 m
A)
A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3
B)
A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
C)
A-2, B-3, C-5, D-4
D)
A-5, B-1, C-4, D-3
According to the National Building Code (NBC) 2016, the minimum width requirements for various parts of a residential building are as follows:
1. **Habitable Room (A):** The minimum width of a habitable room should be 3.0 m (though some smaller rooms may be permitted, the standard benchmark for a primary habitable room in many regulatory contexts is 3.0 m). Matching A with 2 (3.0 m).
2. **Stair Flight (B):** For residential buildings, the minimum width of a stair flight is generally 1.0 m. Matching B with 1 (1.0 m).
3. **Kitchen (C):** While minimum areas are often specified, the minimum width for a kitchen is typically required to be 2.4 m to allow for functional counter space and movement. Matching C with 5 (2.4 m).
4. **Bathroom (D):** The minimum width for a bathroom is typically 1.2 m to accommodate a toilet and washbasin. Matching D with 3 (1.2 m).
Comparing this to the options:
- Option (a): A-2 (3.0m), B-1 (1.0m), C-5 (2.4m), D-3 (1.2m) aligns perfectly with these standards.
- Options (b), (c), and (d) assign incorrect widths (e.g., assigning 2.4m to a habitable room or 1.8m to a bathroom), which contradicts NBC guidelines.