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Past Questions
Xylazine HCl should not be administered in cat because it causes:
A)
Coma
B)
Respiratory failure
C)
Heart block
D)
Emesis
Xylazine HCl is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used as a sedative and analgesic. In cats, a very common and well-known effect of xylazine is vomiting (emesis), often occurring shortly after administration due to stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, it is generally avoided or used cautiously in cats for this reason.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Coma is not the characteristic reason for avoiding xylazine in cats. (b) Respiratory failure is not the typical specific adverse effect asked here. (c) Heart block may occur rarely as a cardiovascular side effect, but the classic and commonly tested adverse effect in cats is emesis.
The opening in the centre of the diaphragm.
A)
Aortic hialus
B)
Oesophageal hialus
C)
Caval foramen
D)
All of these
The diaphragm has three major openings: the aortic hiatus, the oesophageal hiatus, and the caval foramen. The opening located in the central tendon, near the centre of the diaphragm, is the caval foramen, through which the caudal vena cava passes. The aortic hiatus lies more dorsally/posteriorly, and the oesophageal hiatus is muscular and slightly to the left, not in the centre. Therefore, option (c) is correct, and option (d) is incorrect because all three openings are not centrally placed.
In which species of the following, pubic bone doesn’t take part in the formation of acetabulum:
A)
Rabbit
B)
Pig
C)
Dog
D)
Cow
The acetabulum is usually formed by the three pelvic bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis. However, in the rabbit, the pubic bone does not take part in the formation of the acetabulum. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
Why others are incorrect:
- Pig: pubis contributes to the acetabulum.
- Dog: pubis contributes to the acetabulum.
- Cow: pubis contributes to the acetabulum.
“Creeper cow” posture is seen in:
A)
Fat cow disease
B)
Milk fever
C)
Downer’s cow syndrome
D)
Paralytic myoglobinurea
‘Creeper cow’ posture refers to a cow that remains down but is able to sit upright in sternal recumbency and attempts to move by creeping with the forelimbs. This posture is characteristic of Downer’s cow syndrome.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Fat cow disease is a metabolic disorder related to fatty liver, not specifically associated with the creeper posture.
(b) Milk fever causes weakness and recumbency due to hypocalcaemia, but ‘creeper cow’ is not the classic named posture for it.
(d) Paralytic myoglobinurea causes muscle weakness and stiffness, but the specific term ‘creeper cow’ is not typically used for it.
The time required for involution of the uterus in cow is about:
A)
45 days
B)
90 days
C)
30 days
D)
25 days
In cows, uterine involution—the process by which the uterus returns to its normal non-pregnant size and condition after calving—generally takes about 30 to 45 days, and is commonly taken as about 45 days in veterinary physiology and animal husbandry MCQs. Therefore, option (a) is correct. Options (b) 90 days is too long, while (c) 30 days and (d) 25 days are shorter than the standard commonly accepted exam answer.
The curled toe paralysis in poultry is observed in deficiency of:
A)
Vitamin B6
B)
Vitamin B2
C)
Vitamin B1
D)
Vitamin B12
Curled toe paralysis in poultry is a classic sign of riboflavin deficiency, i.e., Vitamin B2 deficiency. Riboflavin is essential for normal nerve function; its deficiency causes degeneration of peripheral nerves, leading to the characteristic inward curling of toes and difficulty in walking.
Why others are incorrect: Vitamin B6 deficiency is more associated with nervous signs and poor growth, Vitamin B1 deficiency causes polyneuritis and star-gazing in birds, and Vitamin B12 deficiency mainly causes poor growth, anemia, and reduced hatchability rather than curled toe paralysis.
The valves in the heart when they shut cause the second heart sound-“dub or S2".
A)
Tricuspid valve
B)
Bicuspid valve
C)
Semilunar valve
D)
None of these
The second heart sound (S2), described as “dub,” is produced by the closure of the semilunar valves — the aortic and pulmonary valves — at the end of ventricular systole.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Tricuspid valve: closure contributes to the first heart sound (S1), not S2.
- (b) Bicuspid valve (mitral valve): closure also contributes to the first heart sound (S1).
- (d) None of these: incorrect because semilunar valve is the correct answer.
Grunting sound in the fore stomach of ruminant is heard due to:
A)
Bloat
B)
Impaction
C)
TRP
D)
None of these
Grunting in the fore-stomach region of ruminants is a classic sign of traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP). In TRP, pain is caused by penetration of a foreign body through the reticulum, and the animal often produces a grunt especially during movement, pressure over the xiphoid region, or ruminal contractions.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Bloat mainly causes abdominal distension and respiratory distress, not the characteristic painful grunt.
(b) Impaction causes reduced motility and digestive upset, but grunting is not the typical hallmark sign.
(d) None of these is incorrect because TRP is the correct cause.
Haemoglobinuria is seen in:
A)
Theileriosis
B)
Pasturellosis
C)
Salmonellosis
D)
Babesiosis
Haemoglobinuria means the presence of free haemoglobin in urine, usually due to intravascular haemolysis of red blood cells. In veterinary medicine, this is classically seen in babesiosis, especially bovine babesiosis, which is also called 'red water disease' because of the dark red urine.
Why others are incorrect: Theileriosis mainly causes lymphoid proliferation, fever, anaemia, and enlarged lymph nodes, but haemoglobinuria is not a typical hallmark. Pasteurellosis is primarily a bacterial respiratory/septicaemic disease and does not characteristically cause haemoglobinuria. Salmonellosis mainly causes enteritis, septicaemia, and diarrhoea, not haemoglobinuria.
The pyometra in canine may be due to prolonged exposure of uterus to _________ hormone.
A)
FSH
B)
LH
C)
Prolactin
D)
Progesterone
Pyometra in dogs is classically associated with prolonged progesterone influence on the uterus during the diestrus phase. Progesterone causes cystic endometrial hyperplasia, reduces uterine contractions, and promotes glandular secretions, creating a favorable environment for bacterial infection and pus accumulation in the uterus.
Why others are incorrect: FSH mainly stimulates follicular growth, LH triggers ovulation and luteinization, and prolactin is involved in lactation and luteal support in some species, but prolonged uterine exposure leading to pyometra is primarily due to progesterone.
Dropped elbow occur due to the paralysis of:
A)
Ulnar nerve
B)
Radial nerve
C)
Median nerve
D)
Suprascapular nerve
Dropped elbow occurs when the extensor muscles of the elbow, especially the triceps, are paralyzed. These muscles are supplied by the radial nerve. Therefore, radial nerve paralysis leads to inability to extend the elbow, producing a dropped elbow.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Ulnar nerve mainly supplies muscles below the elbow and part of the paw/hand.
(c) Median nerve mainly supplies flexor muscles of the forearm.
(d) Suprascapular nerve affects the shoulder region, not elbow extension.
Stenson’s duct opens opposite to:
A)
2nd lower molar
B)
2nd upper molar
C)
2nd upper incisor
D)
2nd lower incisor
Stenson’s duct is the parotid salivary duct. It opens into the vestibule of the mouth on a small papilla opposite the upper second molar tooth. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) 2nd lower molar: parotid duct does not open in the lower jaw.
- (c) 2nd upper incisor: the opening is much farther back, not near the incisors.
- (d) 2nd lower incisor: incorrect site and wrong jaw.
Which type of vaccines should not be given in pregnant animals?
A)
Metabolic toxoids
B)
Live attenuated vaccines
C)
Inactivated or killed vaccines
D)
Both (b) & (c)
Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened but living organisms that can still replicate in the body. In pregnant animals, they may cross the placenta and infect the fetus, causing abortion, fetal deformities, or other reproductive problems. Inactivated/killed vaccines do not replicate and are generally safer in pregnancy. Therefore, option (b) is correct, while (c) is incorrect and (d) is also incorrect because killed vaccines are not generally contraindicated in pregnancy.
Hypotension following surgery results from:
A)
Pneumothorax
B)
Hypocalcaemia
C)
Internal haemorrhage
D)
All of these
Postoperative hypotension can occur due to several causes:
1. Pneumothorax can reduce venous return and cardiac output, leading to low blood pressure.
2. Hypocalcaemia can impair myocardial and vascular smooth muscle function, contributing to hypotension.
3. Internal haemorrhage causes loss of circulating blood volume, which is a major cause of postoperative hypotension.
Since all the listed conditions can result in hypotension following surgery, the correct answer is (d) All of these.
Thoracic surgery requires:
A)
General anaesthesia
B)
IPPV
C)
Injectable anaesthesia
D)
Oxygen supply
In thoracic surgery, opening the chest causes loss of negative intrathoracic pressure, so the lungs tend to collapse and normal spontaneous breathing becomes inadequate. Therefore, intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) is required to maintain ventilation and oxygenation during the procedure.
Why others are incorrect: (a) General anaesthesia is commonly used but by itself is not the specific essential requirement. (c) Injectable anaesthesia alone is not sufficient for thoracic surgery. (d) Oxygen supply is important, but without positive pressure ventilation it does not adequately overcome lung collapse after opening the thorax.
The spinal cord leaves the skull through.
A)
Foramen magnum
B)
Foramen spinosum
C)
Foramen rotundum
D)
None of these
The spinal cord is the continuation of the medulla oblongata and passes out of the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum, which is the large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull.
Why others are incorrect:
- Foramen spinosum transmits the middle meningeal artery, not the spinal cord.
- Foramen rotundum transmits the maxillary nerve, not the spinal cord.
- Therefore, 'None of these' is incorrect.
Point of elbow is form by:
A)
Tuber calsis
B)
Olecranon process
C)
Radial process
D)
None of these
The point of the elbow is formed by the olecranon process of the ulna. It is the prominent bony projection at the proximal end of the ulna and serves as the attachment for the triceps muscle.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Tuber calcis forms the point of the hock, not the elbow.
(c) Radial process does not form the point of the elbow.
(d) None of these is incorrect because the correct answer is olecranon process.
It is a posterior longitudinal presentation, dorso-sacral position, bilateral hip flexion posture.
A)
Dog sitting posture
B)
Dorsal transverse
C)
Vertex presentation
D)
Breech presentation
In obstetrical terminology, posterior longitudinal presentation means the fetus is coming hindquarters first. Dorso-sacral position means the fetal dorsum is towards the dam’s sacrum. Bilateral hip flexion posture means both hind limbs are flexed at the hip and retained forward, so the buttocks enter the birth canal first. This combination is called breech presentation.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Dog sitting posture usually refers to anterior presentation with forelimbs extended and head deviated or hind limbs flexed beneath the body, not posterior with bilateral hip flexion. (b) Dorsal transverse is a different presentation where the fetus lies crosswise. (c) Vertex presentation refers to head presentation, not hindquarters-first delivery.
Intervertebral discs are formed by which type of cartilage:
A)
Fibrocartilage
B)
Elastic cartilage
C)
Hyaline
D)
All of these
Intervertebral discs are primarily made of fibrocartilage, especially the annulus fibrosus, which provides great tensile strength and resists compression between adjacent vertebrae.
Why others are incorrect:
- Elastic cartilage: found in structures like the epiglottis and pinna, not in intervertebral discs.
- Hyaline cartilage: found on articular surfaces, costal cartilages, tracheal rings, etc., but not the main cartilage of intervertebral discs.
- All of these: incorrect because only fibrocartilage forms the intervertebral discs.
To detort right side uterine torsion a cow should be rolled towards:
A)
Left
B)
Right
C)
Both right and left
D)
None of these
In bovine uterine torsion, the cow is rolled in the same direction as the torsion to untwist the uterus. Therefore, in a right-sided uterine torsion, the cow should be rolled towards the right side.
Why others are incorrect:
- (a) Left: opposite to the required direction for right torsion.
- (c) Both right and left: rolling is direction-specific, not both.
- (d) None of these: incorrect because right is the correct direction.
The approximate absorption time for Chromic Catgut inside the body is:
A)
90 days
B)
20 days
C)
30 days
D)
10 days
Chromic catgut is an absorbable suture treated with chromium salts to delay absorption. Its absorption inside the body is approximately 90 days.
Why others are incorrect:
- (b) 20 days: too short; plain catgut loses strength much earlier.
- (c) 30 days: still shorter than the usual absorption period of chromic catgut.
- (d) 10 days: far too short for chromic catgut absorption.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 90 days.
Side kick of Horse is restricted by:
A)
Pubo-femoral ligament
B)
Round ligament
C)
Sesamoiddean ligament
D)
Cruciate ligament
In the horse, abduction of the hind limb (side kick) is restricted by the pubo-femoral ligament of the hip joint. This ligament extends from the prepubic tendon/pubis to the femur and helps prevent excessive lateral movement of the limb. The round ligament mainly connects the femoral head to the acetabulum, the sesamoidean ligaments are related to the fetlock/pastern region, and the cruciate ligaments are found in the stifle joint controlling anteroposterior stability, not side kick.
Myoepithelial cells are found in:
A)
Intestine
B)
Trachea
C)
Mammary gland
D)
Oesophagus
Myoepithelial cells are specialized contractile cells located between the basement membrane and secretory/alveolar or ductal epithelial cells of certain exocrine glands. They are classically present in the mammary gland, where they help expel milk by contraction.
Why others are incorrect:
(a) Intestine and (d) Oesophagus have epithelial lining and smooth muscle layers, but not characteristic myoepithelial cells of glands.
(b) Trachea contains respiratory epithelium, cartilage, and seromucous glands, but the standard single best answer for myoepithelial cells is the mammary gland.
Endotoxaemia in animal produces:
A)
Neutrophilia
B)
Leucocytosis
C)
Neutropenia
D)
Leukopenia
Endotoxaemia, caused by endotoxins from Gram-negative bacteria, commonly produces an acute inflammatory response in animals. One of the early hematological effects is sequestration and margination of neutrophils in blood vessels and tissues, leading to a fall in circulating neutrophils, i.e., neutropenia.
Why others are incorrect: (a) Neutrophilia is more typical in later stages of inflammation when bone marrow release increases. (b) Leucocytosis means total WBC increase, which is not the characteristic early change in endotoxaemia. (d) Leukopenia can occur in severe cases, but the most specific and expected change asked here is neutropenia.
Which of the following drug can be safely used to treat Giardiasis in dogs?
A)
Ivermectin
B)
Fenbendazole
C)
Albendazole
D)
Metronidazole
Giardiasis in dogs is commonly treated with fenbendazole because it is effective against Giardia and is considered safe for canine use. Metronidazole has also been used, but fenbendazole is generally preferred as the safer routine option in veterinary practice. Ivermectin is mainly used against nematodes and ectoparasites, not Giardia. Albendazole is not preferred in dogs because of potential toxicity, especially bone marrow suppression and teratogenic effects.
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